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ACVIM SAIM Specialty 2023 > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Opening Na channels causes depolarization/hyperpolarization of the neuronal cell, while opening K channels causes depolarization/hyperpolarization of the neuronal cell.

A

Depolarization/hyperpolarization

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2
Q

What are three neurolocalizations for a completely recumbent animal?

A

Brainstem lesion, cervical lesion, neuromuscular

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3
Q

Opisthotonus with extensor rigidity of the limbs, but with the hips flexed localizes to where?

A

Severe cerebellar lesion

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4
Q

opisthotonus with rigid extension of the neck and all four limbs localizes to where?

A

Decerebrate

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5
Q

Contralateral CP deficits would be present in neuroanatomic localization where?

A

cerebrum and/or thalamus

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6
Q

What can cause delayed paw placement test?

A

Diminished CP, weakness, defect in other accessory sensory pathways (spinocerebellar tract), rarely normal pets

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7
Q

Patellar reflex is mediated by what nerve from which spinal cord segment?

A

femoral nerve through spinal
cord segments L4-L7

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8
Q

Nerve and spinal cord segments for bicep reflex? Tricep reflex?

A

The musculocutaneous
nerve mediates the biceps reflex through spinal cord segments C6-C8. The radial nerve mediates the triceps reflex through spinal cord segments C7-T2.

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9
Q

What nerve and segments mediate the pelvic limb withdrawal/flexor reflex?

A

sciatic nerve through spinal cord
segments L6-S1

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10
Q

Manifestation of CN IV abnormality in dog?

A

lateral deviation of retinal vein (in cats they have dorsomedial strabismus)

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11
Q

Which cranial nerve can manifest as megaesophagus with abnormalities (either as primary cause or in association with CN abnormality)?

A

CN 10 (vagus nerve)

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12
Q

Medial strabismus associated with abnormalities of which CN?

A

CN6

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13
Q

Localize the lesion:
Left pupil normal size, Light in left eye, only left pupil constricts, positive menace response
Right pupil complete dilation, Light in right eye, no pupil constricts, negative response

A

Right retrobulbar

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14
Q

Localize the lesion:
Left pupil dilated, light in left eye = only right pupil constricts, positive menace response
Right pupil normal, light in right eye = only right pupil constricts, positive menace response

A

Left oculomotor nerve

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15
Q

Gait is normal in forebrain lesions. T/F?

A

True - critical UMNs responsible for gait generation in domestic species (rubrospinal and reticulospinal tracts) are spared, being located more caudally in the midbrain, pons,
and medulla

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16
Q

With peripheral vestibular lesions, the fast phase of the nystagmus is away from
the lesion; the opposite is true for central lesions. T/F?

A

False -central lesions can be away or towards

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17
Q

Hypermetric gait is associated with a lesion where?

A

Cerebellar

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18
Q

What would be pelvic limb gait of a dog/cat with polyneuropathy and sciatic dysfunction?

A

Because sciatic dysfunction does not affect weight bearing, the pelvic limb gait is not short-strided. Despite being a LMN problem, an exaggerated pelvic limb gait is present in which the pet repeatedly initiates the gait from a plantigrade position and “flings” its pelvic limbs forward

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19
Q

Localization for fine, whole body tremor?

A

Diffuse CNS disease [dysmyelinogenesis, diffusemeningitis (idiopathic tremor syndrome, disseminated granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis, infectious
meningitis) and various toxicoses (e.g., molds, algae, ethylene glycol).]

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20
Q

Cranial nerves associated with brainstem lesions?

A

CV (3 + 4?) 5-12

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21
Q

Most metabolically demanding area of brain (thus metabolic differentials and toxicities usually result in these signs)

A

Forebrain

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22
Q

What type of central edema is generally treatable with steroids and osmotic therapies?

A

Vasogenic (not interstitial - from obstructive hydrocephalus or cytotoxic - from ischemia)

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23
Q

General medical treatments for hydrocephalus?

A

Steroids +/- seizure meds; or carbonic anhydrase inhibitors or proton pump inhibiitors; diuretics [mannitol for acute signs]

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24
Q

Excessive scratching of the neck
vocalization and facial rubbing with CP deficits in a Brussels Griffon should raise concern for what disease?

A

Chiari-like malformations (CM) and syringohydromyelias (other breed is CKCS); Chihuahuas also can be affected but don’t have to have syringohydromyelia to show clinical signs (JVIM 2017)

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25
Q

First signs of lysosomal storage diseases?

A

Cerebellar signs of dysmetria, truncal ataxia, and nystagmus

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26
Q

In terms of intracranial neoplasias, dolichocephalic breeds are more likely to have ____, while brachycephalic breeds are more likely to have _____

A

Meningioma, glioma

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27
Q

Secondary neoplasia accounts for how much of all canine intracranial tumors?

A

50%

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28
Q

When does consensus recommend epileptic treatment for dogs?

A

(1) identifiable structural lesion or prior history of brain disease or injury; (2) acute repetitive seizures (status epilepticus) has occurred; (3) interictal period is < 6 months (i.e., 2 or more seizures within 6 month period); (4) prolonged, severe or unusual post-ictal periods; and (5) epileptic seizure frequency and/or duration is increasing and/or seizure severity is worse over three interictal periods

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29
Q

Dog breeds least likely to go into remission or have > 50% decrease in seizure activity?

A

Border Collie, German Shepherd Dog and Staffordshire Terrier

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30
Q

Dog breed over-represented for ischemic stroke?

A

Greyhound

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31
Q

Diseases that predispose to nonhemorrhagic ischemic stroke?

A

metabolic disorders (hypothyroidism,
pheochromocytoma, hypertension), sepsis, parasitism, cancer, or hypercoagulopathy (diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, renal disease, protein-losing nephropathy)

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32
Q

Causes for hemorrhagic stroke?

A

coagulopathy (including Angiostrongylus vasorum), hypertension (can cause microbleeds), toxins, trauma, sepsis, inflammation, and metastasis (hemangiosarcoma)
NOTE - hemorrhagic strokes can be hemorrhagic ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke

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33
Q

CSF that is typical of GME?

A

mainly mononuclear pleocytosis, with a variable percentage of neutrophils and elevated protein level

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34
Q

Difference in regions affected by NME vs NLE?

A

NME - most commonly cerebrum with meningeal involvement; NLE - most commonly cerebrum AND brainstem with less consistent involvement of the meninges and cerebral cortex (aka mainly white matter)

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35
Q

Most common breed affected by NLE? Most common (two) breeds affected by NME?

A

Yorkies - NLE ; Pug and Maltese - NME

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36
Q

Most common bacterial organisms in canine meningoencephalitis?

A

Escherichia coli, Streptococcus species, and Klebsiella

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37
Q

most common fungal organism responsible for fungal meningoencephalitis in dogs and cats?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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38
Q

Antifungal agents that cross BBB?

A

Fluconazole; flucytosine; voriconazole

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39
Q

What cranial nerves may be impacted in dogs with paralytic rabies?

A

dropped jaw (cranial nerve [CN] V) and swallowing difficulty with attendant
ptyalism (CNs IX to XI).

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40
Q

What are hallmark traits of cognitive dysfunction?

A

Disorientation, altered Interactions with owners or other pets, Sleep-wake cycle alterations, Housesoiling, and Activity changes (which might be increased, repetitive, or reduced); also decreased ability to perform tasks

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41
Q

Treatments for cognitive dysfunction?

A

Selegilene for dogs, propentophylline in Europe for dogs, nutrition (antioxidants like Vitamins E and C, omega-3s)

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42
Q

Most common cause of dropped jaw in dogs. Treatment?

A

Idiopathic trigeminal neuritis; supportive care -should resolve in 2-4 weeks

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43
Q

In a dog with Horner’s syndrome, mydriasis that occurs after 20 minutes of topical application of phenylephrine indicates pre-ganglionic or post-ganglionic lesion?

A

Post-ganglionic

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44
Q

Paradoxical vestibular syndrome localizes to where?

A

lesions in the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum, the caudal cerebellar peduncle, and the rostral and medial vestibular nuclei in the medulla [aka cerebellum or brainstem]

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45
Q

Which cranial nerve can be affected with peripheral vestibular disease (besides 8)?

A

CN7 (facial nerve)

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46
Q

Which endocrinopathy can result in vestibular disease?

A

hypothyroidism

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47
Q

Most common region to be affected by cerebrovascular accident (stroke) in dogs and cats is

A

Cerebellum (areas supplied by the rostral cerebellar artery)

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48
Q

Toxicity of which antibiotic can manifest as vestibular signs in dogs? What are signs in cats?

A

Metronidazole. In cats - manifests as seizures, blindness, ataxia (more forebrain)

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49
Q

Strokes that occur due to disease (as opposed to idiopathic) are considered to have a better/worse prognosis and be less/more recurrent?

A

Worse prognosis; more recurrent

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50
Q

Degree of cauda equina compression seen on imaging does not correlate with presence of disease or its severity. T/F?

A

True

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51
Q

Degenerative myelopathy generally localizes where? What is the most effective supportive regimen for dogs with degenerative myelopathy?

A

T3-L3; physical therapy

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52
Q

Most common agent associated with canine discospondylitis?

A

Staph (pseud or aureus)

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53
Q

A young Basset Hound with discospondylitis may have what other underlying infectious disease?

A

systemic tuberculosis

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54
Q

Presentation of polyradiculoneuritis?

A

Ascending pelvic limb paresis, +/- hyperesthesia, reduced or absent pelvic limb reflexes with intact sensation

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55
Q

Tick paralysis is associated with what type of tick in N America? Difference with tick paralysis in N America vs Australia?

A

Dermacentor; Australian tick paralysis has poorer prognosis, demonstrates autonomic signs, and animals may decline for a few days after tick removal

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56
Q

Associated conditions with myasthenia gravis in dogs and cats?

A

Thymoma, hypothyroidism, hypoadrenocorticism, polymyositis, masticatory myositis, reported methimazole in cats

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57
Q

Risks of edrophonium administration to test for myasthenia?

A

salivation, tremors, vomiting, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, and respiratory
distress (can pretreat with atropine)

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58
Q

Congenital myasthenia gravis in what breed of dog is known to spontaneously resolve?

A

Miniature Dachshunds

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59
Q

Most common cause of myelopathy in cats < 2 years?

A

FIP

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60
Q

Breeds predisposed to immune mediated polymyositis?

A

Vizla, Newfoundland

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61
Q

What antibiotics might worsen signs with botulinism?

A

Aminoglycosides, ampicillin

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62
Q

Dysphagia and tongue hypertrophy can be an indication of what type of muscle disorder?

A

X-linked (dystrophin-deficient)Muscular dystrophy (CK should be extremely high)

63
Q

Pseudomyotonia can develop in dogs with untreated Cushing’s. This will resolve with treatment. T/F?

A

False- while it can develop with untreated Cushing’s, it is poorly responsive

64
Q

Medium chain triglycerides were effective at lowering seizure frequency as an add-on treatment in a subset of dogs. T/F?

A

True (but 11/28 dogs did not show any change or worsened) - JVIM 2020

65
Q

Time it takes to get to steady state with phenobarbital

A

2 weeks (ACVIM consensus)

66
Q

Adverse effects of zonisamide?

A

sedation, ataxia, hepatotoxic, RTA, KCS, bone marrow suppression

67
Q

A dog on chronic phenobarbital for idiopathic epilepsy presents for PU/PD. PE shows distended abdomen and mild truncal alopecia. Bloodwork shows increased ALP. An ACTH stimulation is consistent with Cushing’s disease. Does this dog have Cushing’s?

A

Likely. Phenobarbital can cause PU/PD but should not interfere with adrenal axis. LDDST should also not be affected.

Phenobarb CAN mess with tT4 and fT4 though. (ACVIM consensus)

68
Q

A cat presents to you for repetitive episodes of facial twitching, lip smacking, chewing, and licking. If these were focal seizures and an MRI were performed, changes might be expected where?

A

Hippocampus (feline temporal lobe epilepsy, JVIM 2017 review)

69
Q

Which is better for seizuring patient - intranasal midazolam or rectal diazepam.

A

Intranasal midaz - JVIM 2017

70
Q

What % of dogs was EEG helpful to detect or exclude epilepsy? Did sedatives/GA/anti-epileptic drugs affect this?

A

72% JVIM 2017; no they did not JVIM 2020

71
Q

Early seizure recurrence is likely in what type of dogs presenting to hospital for seizure evaluation?

A

Any dog with abnormal neuro exam and status or cluster within 72h before presentation (JVIM 2018)

72
Q

Which of the following was a risk factor FOR seizures based on a study in the UK? Female; young age; Labrador; weight > 40 kg

A

Weight > 40 kg; males more likely; older age more likely; labradors were less likely compared to other breeds [Pug was specified in abstract but many other breeds] JVIM 2018

73
Q

Which drug is not recommended to add-on as a second agent for a dog on keppra? Zonisamide, phenobarbital, KBr

A

Phenobarbital (increases variability of drug) JVIM 2018

74
Q

Which is better to stop a seizure - intranasal or IV midazolam?

A

Intranasal midaz (mainly b/c it takes time to place IVC) - JVIM 2019

75
Q

Was rectal Keppra effective at stopping seizures when compared to diazepam/phenobarb combo?

A

Yes JVIM 2019

76
Q

Boerboels have been reported to have a type of focal epilepsy manifesting as what clinical sign?

A

Paroxysmal fear episodes (JVIM 2019)

77
Q

What were factors reported to precipitate seizure behavior (specifically focal ones)?

A

stress-related situation, sleep deprivation, weather, and hormonal factors JVIM 2019

78
Q

What % of dogs with MUO developed post-encephalitis-epilepsy?

A

23% (JVIM 2020)

79
Q

Serum high-mobility group box 1 concentration was higher in epileptic dogs and non-epileptic brain disease dogs compared to normal dogs. T/F?

A

False- only in epileptic dogs (higher than both normal and non-epileptic brain disease) JVIM 2020

80
Q

Based on an epidemiological study on cats in UK, which age group is most likely to be diagnosed with recurrent seizure disorders? juvenile cats, adults < 3, cats 3-6

A

Cats 3-6 (JVIM 2020)

81
Q

What % of dogs on midazolam CRI acquired seizure control?

A

77% (a good option to stop seizures if possible) JVIM 2021

82
Q

Combination of what anti-seizure meds resulted in lowest activity score in dogs?

A

KBr + phenobarb (JVIM 2021)

83
Q

All beagles with Lafora disease had what initial clinical sign? What other behavioral episodes also occurred?

A

Myoclonic episodes; mental decline/photosensitivity/staring into space

84
Q

Most common locations that triggered reflex epilepsy in dogs?

A

vet clinic, grooming, boarding facility
JAVMA 2017 [Sedatives and antiepileptic drugs failed to prevent stimulus-specific seizure activity]

85
Q

Cats that developed seizures under what age were more likely to have structural epilepsy?

A

<12 mo (JAVMA 2018)

86
Q

What breed of cat was predisposed to developing audiogenic seizures? This was improved with what drug?

A

Birman; Keppra JFMS

87
Q

What % of cats with intracranial disease (not IED) will have interictal neurologic abnormalities?

A

75% (JFMS review on recurrent seizures)

88
Q

What are signalment/PE/neuro exam consistent with idiopathic epilepsy in cats?

A

Adult cats 1-3 year, normal PE and neuro exam between seizures (JFMS review on recurrent seizures)

89
Q

Important extracranial/reactive causes to seizures in cats?

A

HE, hypoglycemia, hyperthyroidism, severe hypertension, uremic encephalopathy, hypocalcemia, polycythemia, hyperlipidemia, thiamine (B1) deficiency, electrolyte abnormalities, severe anemia, toxic (JFMS review)

90
Q

A cat with known epileptic seizures has a seizure and presents 30 minutes later. Ammonia is elevated. Which is next step?
Retest in few hours; AUS for shunt; run b12

A

Retest - cats can have transient hyperammoniemia after seizures (JFMS 2021)

91
Q

Australian cattle dogs and Border collies can have lysosomal storage disease with a mutation where that is fatal if homozygous?

  • CFA X
  • CHRNE
  • CLCN 1
  • CLN 5
  • COLQ
A

CLN5 mutation JVIM 2016

92
Q

Irregular, jerky nystagmus with retraction of globe is highly specific to neurolocalization where?

A

Dorsal midbrain (tectum and dorsal aspect of the tementum) JVIM 2016

93
Q

Can brain herniation be predicted by clinical signs? If so, what signs.

A

No (JVIM 2016)

94
Q

Scottish terriers can develop progressive ataxia due to mutation where?
- CFA X
- CHRNE
- CLCN 1
- CLN 5
- COLQ

A

CFA X JVIM 2017

95
Q

Putative microbleeds are associated with what finding on minimum database?

A

Proteinuria (JVIM 2017)

96
Q

Three distinct neurolocalizations associated with cats with neurological FIP?

A

T3-L3 myelopathy, central vestibular syndrome and multifocal CNS disease (JVIM 2017) [CSF PCR for FeCV+ in all tested ]

97
Q

About 50% of dogs with tetanus develop what type of disorder after surviving infection?

A

REM sleep disorders (can manifest as seizure) - around 50% resolved on own (JVIM 2018)

98
Q

What % of dogs with inflammatory CNS disease had antibodies to neuronal cell surface antigens?

A

around 10% JVIM 2019

99
Q

What biomarker may be able to differentiate dogs with cognitive dysfunction?

  • Total plasma Ab42/40
  • transglutaminase (TG)2 and gliadin
A

Total plasma Ab42/40 (JVIM 2020)

100
Q

Most common clinical signs associated with hydrocephalus?

A

ataxia and obtundation (JVIM 2019) - generally want these to resolve when you place shunt

101
Q

What % of dogs with congenital hydrocephalus improved with medical management (steroid)?

A

50% (JAVMA 2019)

102
Q

% of dogs that undergo stereotactic brain biopsy of adverse event? What were most of those adverse events due to?

A

27%; 88% of them due to intracranial hemorrhage (JVIM 2020)

103
Q

Breeds of dog that presented most frequently for vestibular disease in a epidemiological study from UK?

A

Brachycephalics (Pugs and English Bulldogs) and Spaniels (King Charlies, Cavalier, Springer) - JVIM 2020

104
Q

Dogs with hypertonic saline had what changes in electrolytes and acid-base status compared to dogs that received mannitol for possible intracranial hypertension?

A

Increased Na/Cl at all time points up to 2 hours later, decreased iCa 1 and 2 hours later, no change in acid-base (JVIM 2021) [mannitol had decreased Na/Cl only 5 minutes after]

105
Q

Shaking puppy syndrome is associated with what pathological changes to the CNS?

A

Abnormal myelination of the central nervous system (JVIM 2021) - hypomyelinating leukodystrophy described in family of GSD

106
Q

Persistent fontanelles are associated with what breed?

A

Chihuahua

107
Q

Neurofilament light chains can be used as a biomarker for MUO and correlate with clinical control. T/F?

A

True - JVIM 2021

108
Q

Pugs at higher risk for NME had what changes in CD4 T cells and IL-10 concentrations?

A

Lower CD4 T cells, and higher IL-10 (JVIM 2021)

109
Q

Strokes in cats are likely to be associated with underlying disease. T/F?

A

True - like HCM, pulmonary neoplasia, hypertension, hyperthyroidism (JFMS)

110
Q

Intracranial empyema or abscessation can be managed medically in cats. T/F?

A

True - JFMS 2019

111
Q

Alpha delta fibers rise from the bladder and communicate primarily with which two brain nuclei?

A

pontine micturition center and the periaqueductal gray (JVIM 2016 review)

112
Q

Unmyelinated C fibers have what function in urination?

A

convey sensory information such as autonomic regulation of micturition that does not undergo conscious processing (spinomesencephalic, spinoreticular, and spinohypothalamic tracts) (JVIM 2016 review)

113
Q

Disc herniation at what site is most associated with development of ascending or descending myelomalacia?

A

L5-L6 (JVIM 2017) - maybe this would be good to know? Idk seems surgery

114
Q

What was Se/Sp for Cerebrospinal Fluid Levels of Phosphorylated Neurofilament Heavy for degenerative myelopathy?

A

Sens 80.4% and 93.6% specific (JVIM 2017)

115
Q

Injury at which spinal cord segment is more associated with loss of incontinence, even after surgery?

A

L4-S3 (JVIM 2017)

116
Q

Pugs with long-standing thoracolumbar myelopathy commonly had what diagnosis?

A

Meningeal fibrosis, 80% were incontinent (JVIM 2020)

117
Q

Owner reported signs in Cavalier King Charles Spaniels for Chiari-like Malformation are not associated with severity or presence of syringohydromyelia. T/F?

A

True - JVIM 2018

118
Q

A wide (>4mm ) syringomyelia was associated with what clinical signs in CKCS?

A

phantom scratching (ipsilateral) and torticollis (shoulder deviated ipsilateral; head tilt contralateral)
(JVIM 2019)

119
Q

Longer filum terminale internum and less caudal spinal cord termination is associated with syringomyelia in CKCS. T/F?

A

False - shorter filum terminale internum and more caudal (JVIM 2019, 2021)

120
Q

In a comparison of cerebellomedullary and lumbar cerebrospinal fluid analysis in dogs with neurological disease, in what % did a pathologist’s interpretation differ from site to site?

A

66% (JVIM 2020)

121
Q

CRP is not as sensitive as fever and leukocytosis in association with discospondylitis. T/F?

A

False - it is more sensitive (JVIM 2021)

122
Q

Greater length of intramedullary hyperintensity is associated with ischemic myelopathy or acute noncompressive nucleus pulposus extrusion?

A

Ischemic myopathy (JAVMA 2016)

123
Q

Ischemic myelopathy are more associated with what dog breed and region of the spinal cord?

A

Staffie, lumbosacral (fecal incontinence) - JAVMA 2016

123
Q

Risk of post-op diskospondylitis after decompression surgery? Highest risk in what breed?

A

2.2%, GSD (JAVMA 2016)

124
Q

Earliest radiological findings in juvenile dogs with disco?

A

narrowed IVD space (JAVMA 2016)

125
Q

Spinal epidural empyema can be cured with medical management and is associated with concurrent infectious disease. T/F?

A

True JAVMA 2016

126
Q

Is the outcomes of nonsurgical treatment for congenital thoracic vertebral body malformations in dogs favorable or nonfavorable?

A

Nonfavorable (JAVMA 2018) - all dogs were screw-tailed brachycephalics

127
Q

100% of dogs with thoracolumbar acute non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion and lack of deep pain were fecal or urinary incontinent?

A

Fecal (JVIM 2019)

128
Q

Breeds over-represented in SRMA (at least in N America)?

A

Golden Retriever, Bernese Mountain Dog, Wirehaired Pointing Griffon, Boxer, Beagles (JVIM 2019)

129
Q

lumbosacral transitional vertebrae in cats is a risk factor for what condition associated with LS pain, low tail carriage, difficulty jumping, urinary or fecal incontinence?

A

Lumbosacral stenosis (JFMS 2019)

130
Q

MST for stereotactic radiosurgery for trigeminal peripheral nerve sheath tumor?

A

745d (JVIM 2016)

131
Q

Regurgitation with megaesophagus and aphonic bark in Miniature Schnauzer is consistent with what disease?

A

Demyelinating polyneuropathy (JVIM 2020)

132
Q

What was most common clinical sign associated with juvenile-onset polyneuropathy in American Staffordshire Terriers?

A

10/14 dogs had lar-par (disease is progressive); surgery for lar par is performed, lifespan may be similar normal dogs despite locomotor disturbance
JVIM 2018

133
Q

A Siberian kitten presents for waxing/waning neuromuscular weakness with normal sensory function. Diagnosis and treatment?

A

Consistent with juvenile-onset motor polyneuropathy (ideally EMG + muscle biopsy performed), but will generally resolve on own (but is recurrent) (JVIM 2020)

134
Q

Differentiate myotonia vs myoclonus; along with medical treatment options

A

Myoclonus - sudden brief, involuntary muscle jerk, can be seizure-related (LaFora) or non-seizure (distemper); medication - clorazepate (or Keppra for cortical/epileptic based)
Myotonia - disturbance in muscle relaxation after voluntary contraction or percussion, generally channelopathy [CLCN1 (Miniature Schnauzer, JRT, Australian Cattle Dog)], treatment - if needed - class I antiarrhythmics (procainamide or mexiletine) [JVIM 2017 review]

135
Q

Self-limiting myotonic-like muscle stiffness can be triggered with exercise in which breeds?

A

English Springer and Cocker Spaniel - JVIM 2020

136
Q

paroxysmal dyskinesia (PD) in Maltese dogs can be improved with what regimen?

A

Paroxysmal dyskinesia is sudden dystonia of ≥1 limbs and generalized body tremors with preserved consciousness.
Self-limiting; Acetazolamide; gluten-free diet (JVIM 2020) (maybe Keppra as well? - JVIM 2021 case report)

137
Q

Border Terriers with paroxysmal gluten-sensitive dyskinesia (PGSD) have antibodies that can be detected against what?
- Total plasma Ab42/40
- transglutaminase (TG)2 and gliadin

A

transglutaminase (TG)2 and gliadin JVIM 2018

138
Q

What was most common etiology for muscle cramps in a study looking at canine muscle cramps?

A

Hypocalcemia (JVIM 2021)

139
Q

Almost half of dogs with unilateral masticatory myositis were diagnosed with what condition?

A

trigeminal nerve sheath tumor diagnosed in 47.6% (JVIM 2019)

140
Q

What % of cats with acquired myasthenia gravis (and no cranial mediastinal mass) resolved disease with no intervention?

A

50% - the rest responded excellently to immunosuppression (JVIM 2020)

141
Q

Congenital myasthenic syndrome in Golden Retrievers is associated with what mutation?

  • CFA X
  • CHRNE
  • CLCN 1
  • CLN 5
  • COLQ
A

COLQ (JVIM 2020)

142
Q

Strong false positives can be seen with what disease when using neostigmine administration in the diagnosis of acquired myasthenia gravis?

A

Polymyositis (weak positives also occurred with intracranial mass, DCM, coxofemoral joint disease) - JVECCS 2021. Otherwise most dogs with acquired MG could be diagnosed correctly

143
Q

What % of dogs with acquired myasthenia gravis did not have any improvement with treatment? What factors were negatively correlated with remission?

A

29%; Initial AChR Ab concentration and regurgitation (JVIM 2021); Younger age and comorbid endocrine disease were associated with clinical remission

144
Q

Jack Russell Terriers are known to have congenital myasthenia syndrome. Where is the deficiency and what is the gene?

Gene choices:

  • CFA X
  • CHRNE
  • CLCN 1
  • CLN 5
  • COLQ
A

AChR deficiency (CHRNE gene). JVIM 2020 review

145
Q

Is bacteruria associated with survival in chronically paralyzed dogs?

A

No - JVIM 2017

146
Q

Was Bartonella isolated from CSF in a group of dogs with inflammatory CNS disease? How about astrovirus and bornavirus in dogs with MUO?

A

No to all - JVIM 2018 (bartonella), JVIM 2020 (the viruses)

147
Q

Congenital sensorineural deafness is unique to what color of cats and what prevalence in the UK?

A

White; 30%. Apparently higher in cats with blue irises. JVIM 2019

148
Q

Which two dog breed were predisposed to primary intracranial histiocytic sarcoma? What breed had only disseminated if found intracranially? Characteristic of CSF?

A

Corgis and Shelties - primary; Rottweilers - exclusively disseminated; CSF -High total nucleated cell count and the presence of neoplastic cells (JVIM 2020)

149
Q

Elevated VEGF can differentiate between neoplastic and inflammatory CNS disease. T/F?

A

False - they are both elevated compared to controls but not significantly different from one another (JVIM 2021)

150
Q

What % of dogs with acquired narcolepsy had an additional concurrent (or causative) condition?

A

50% (4/8, with 2 diagnosed with MUO) JVIM 2021

151
Q

Deficits in cranial nerve five that stem from a cranial lesion localize to where specifically?

A

Pons (brainstem)

152
Q

Acute denervation of cranial nerve 12 will result in deviation towards which side (affected or nonaffected) and atrophy or no atrophy?

A

Deviation towards nonaffected side, with no atrophy. If more chronic - deviation towards affected side with atrophy of affected side.

153
Q

What are centralizing vestibular signs?

A

CP deficits, CN deficits (besides CN7 and Horner’s), vertical or varying nystagmus, mentation changes, proprioceptive ataxia, paresis

ACVIM SAIM Specialty 2023 (12 decks)

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