Infectious Disease Flashcards
Cell cultures with mixed infections of feline calicivirus and feline herpesvirus can sometimes result in feline herpesvirus outgrowing feline calicivirus, resulting in only FHV. T/F?
False - it is other way around (feline calici can outgrow FHV)
Timeline for blood cultures for:
- acute febrile illness
- acute endocarditis
- nonacute disease
acute febrile illness: two sets from separate sites, all within 10 minutes. +/- third set
acute endocarditis: 3 sets from 3 separate sites, within 1-2 hours
nonacute disease: 3 sets from separate sites within 24h, spaced at intervals of at least 3 hours
In animals with renal failure, concentration-dependent drugs that require renal clearance should be have reduced (dosage or dosing frequency).
Dosing frequency
Extended-spectrum beta-lactamase have only been described in what type of bacteria?
Gram negative bacilli (E coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae)
Dogs with liver disease require dosing adjustments with penicillins. T/F?
False (dosing interval extended with renal disease but hepatic impairment has little effect on pharmacokinetics)
How is cefpodoxime different than other third generation cephalosporins? (in terms of spectrum)
Most active against Staph, less active against gram negative and anaerobic infections
What is the benefit of adding cilastatin to imipenem?
Cilastatin inhibits dehydropeptidase-1 (brush border enzyme in renal tubules). Dehyropeptidase-1 degrades imipenem into nephrotoxic metabolite.
Meropenem is a good treatment option for methicillin resistant staph. T/F?
False = MRS are generally resistant to carbapenems.
Mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics
Bind and inhibit penicillin binding proteins and inhibit cell wall biosynthesis
Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones
Bind to DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV
Topoisomerase II is more common in gram positive/negative bacteria.
Negative; topoisomerase IV is more common in positive [and FQs has less affinity for topoisomerase IV, hence why FQs are better for gram negative)
Which fluoroquinolone has the highest activity against anaerobes?
Pradofloxacin
Rapid IV administration of fluoroquinolone can result in what?
Hypotension, tachycardia, and cutaneous erythema (suspected due to histamine release)
Cephalosporin and fluoroquinolones can cause false positive results on urine test strips for what?
Glucose
Give physical exam findings and fundic findings for cats with enrofloxacin retinotoxcity.
Bilateral mydriasis and tapetal hyperreflectivity. This results due to functional defect in FQ transport protein.
Mechanism of action of metronidazole
Diffuses into cells as prodrug, activated in cytoplasm. Preferentially accepts electrons and creates free radical that damages DNA.
Metronidazole is metabolized by which organ?
Liver
Mechanism of action of rifampin
Inhibit beta-subunit of DNA dependent RNA polymerase in bacteria
Drugs like steroids, cyclosporine, itraconazole should be increased/decreased when given with rifampin. Why?
Increased. Rifampin is one of the most potent inducers of hepatic microsomal enzymes and efflux proteins, such as P-glycoprotein
Mechanisms of action of trimethoprim and sulfonamides? Why administer together?
Trimethoprim - inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
Sulfonamides - analogs of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) and competitively inhibit incorporation of PABA = decreased folic acid synthesis.
When administered together = bactericidal (bacteriostatic on their own)
What breeds should you use caution before using TMS?
Dobermans, Samoyeds, miniature schnauzer
Tear tests should be monitored if using TMS drug for more than what period of time?
1 week
Mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?
Bind to outer cell membrane and displace Mg and Ca (which link LPS molecules), then they are taken up into cytoplasm and bind to 30s subunit of ribosome
Resistance to 1 aminoglycoside does not imply resistance to others. T/F?
True
Why are anaerobes resistant to aminoglycosides?
The process that aminoglycosides are taken into cell is oxygen dependent
Organs that require lipid-soluble drugs to reach are
Eyes, prostate, brain, CSF
Risk factors for nephrotoxicity with aminoglycosides?
Older age, reduced renal function, concomitant liver disease, dehydration, Na depletion, hypokalemia, other nephrotoxic drugs
Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?
Binds to 50S subunit
Reversible bone marrow suppression can occur in cats with chloramphenicol within how many weeks of administration?
Two
Mechanism of action of macrolides and lincosamides?
Binds to 50s subunit
What is special about azithromycin compared to other macrolides?
Contains a nitrogen and thus is extensively concentrated within cells and retained in tissue for long periods of time (half-life 30h in dog, 35h in cat)
Which two oral drugs can cause esophagitis in cats?
Oral doxycycline and clindamycin. In doxycycline it’s due to the hyclate salt, not due to the doxycycline itself
Erythromycin is secreted in highest concentrations where?
Bile (undergoes enterohepatic recirculation and excreted in feces)
Mechanism of action of linezolid?
Binds to 50S ribosome but prevents formation of initiation complex (unlike other 50s protein synthesis inhibitors, which interfere with polyppetide extension)
Mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
Bind to 30S subunit
How are doxycycline and minocycline anti-inflammatory?
Inhibit nitric oxide synthase and proinflammatory cytokines (like TNF-a)
Difference of minocycline from tetracycline?
Minocycline is more lipophilic and better absorbed orally. Dosed similarly.
Can doxycycline be used in puppies and kittens?
Yes - binds Ca less avidly than other tetracyclines (use of doxy in human pediatrics is accepted per Sykes). Other tetracyclines should not be administered as they can interfere with bone growth.
Mechanism of action of azoles?
Inhibit sterol 14a-demethylase (so ergosterol cannot be formed, which is important part of fungal cell membrane)- cytochrome p450 enzyme (which is why adverse effects/drug interactions happen)
What are other uses for ketoconazole besides antifungal treatment?
Potent inhibitor of p450 and has been used to allow reduction of dose of cyclosporine; inhibits testosterone and cortisol synthesis and has been used for pituitary dependent HAC. Caution of this with ivermectin.
Drug of choice for dermatophytosis in cats
Itraconazole (accumulates in skin and claws)
Side effects of itraconazole
Vomiting, anorexia (first two are most common); hepatotoxicity, ulcerative dermatitis
Fluconazole is azole of choice for penetration into which regions?
meningeal and urinary tract fungal infections (more water-soluble than other azoles
Fluconazole is primarily excreted through which organ?
Renal (dose decrease needed in renal failure, esp if patient is using other p450-dependent drugs)
Mechanism of action of amphotericin
irreversibly binds sterols and forms pores in membrane; also enhances macrophages and enhances macrophage killing capacity
5-flucytosine is used for what fungal diseases?
Cryptococcus and Candida; resistance happens quickly so generally given with another agent (like ampho)
5-flucytosine should not be given to dogs or cats?
dogs - they will develop severe but reversible drug eruption within 2-3 weeks of treatment
Mechanism of action of terbinafine
inhibits fungal squalense epoxidase - blocks fungal ergosterole synthesis and results in accumulation of toxic squalene
Mechanism of action of echinocandin
Inhibit formation of beta 1,3 d glucan in fungal cell wall
Caspofungin should not be used for treatment of what fungus?
Cryptococcus (do not possess glucan synthase)
Caspofungin is fungicidal against which common fungi?
Aspergillus, Candida
Mechanism of action of atovaquone? What protozoa is it used for?
inhibits electron transport and targets cytochrome bc1 complex; used for Babesia and cytauxzoon (with azithromycin)
Decoquinate is generally used for which protozoa?
Hepatozoon americanum, sarcocystis
Mechanism of action of imidocarb? What is it used for?
Inhibit DNA synthesis. Used mainly for large Babesia and Hepatozoon canis, can also be used for monocytic ehrlichiosis and feline cytauxzoon
Toltrazuril/ponazuril are used for which protozoal diseases?
Toxoplasma, neospora; toltrazuril also for Hepatozoon (canis)
Meglumine antimoniate is mainly used to treat which disease? What is it used with?
Leishmaniasis. Used with allopurinol.
Disinfectant classes that do NOT get nonenveloped viruses?
Alcohol, chlorhexidine, QUATs (these also don’t get bacterial spores)
Three most common causes for pericardial effusion in cats?
Cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, FIP
Which neoplasia is most commonly reported with FIV?
B cell lymphoma
Which immune cell is most commonly infected by FIV?
CD4 T cell
A positive FIV test is consistent with infection unless
There is history of vaccination or cat is <6 mo
What retroviral drug can be used in FIV cats with stomatitis or neurologic disease? What hematological sign would indicate discontinuation?
Zidovudine; monitor weekly CBC for1 mo and monthly thereafter for HCT < 20% (but a recent study found this wasn’t very effective)
Vaccination policy for FIV + cats?
Inactivated vaccines; only for FIV + cats likely to be exposed to other cats (as vax with core vaccines may activate viral transcription)
FeLV-associated lymphomas are of what cell origin?
T cell (unlike FIV which is B)
A healthy cat testing positive on FeLV test should have results confirmed how?
Couple of options:
- Perform another ELISA from different manufacture (but see below)
- Retest in 6 mo (as cats that have single positive result may have regressive infection and may clear FeLV)
- Perform IFA assay on blood smears (if positive > almost always progressive infection)
- Evaluate CBC
Development of anemia in FeLV cats implies infection of which FeLV subtype?
FeLV-C
A feline patient with facial edema, fever, lingual and footpad ulceration, abdominal pain, and petechia should have concern for what viral disease
feline calicivirus (virulent systemic disease)
E canis can’t be differentiated from what other ehrlichia? E. ewingii morulae have to be differentiated from what other diease?
E canis can’t be differentated from E chaffeensis (monocytes); E ewingii can’t be differentiated from Anaplasma phagocytophilum (granulocytes)
English Springer Spaniels with PFK deficiency may have more severe forms of what rickettsial disease?
RMSF; activation of PFK may be important in maintaining vascular integrity and energy metabolism in endothelial cells under stress
Best diagnostic tool for Neorickettsial helminthoaeca?
Fecal sedimentation combined with flotation to confirm eggs
Enterococcus are resistant to what antibiotic even if they appear susceptibility in vitro?
TMS -they are able to use exogenously produced folate (most labs do not report TMS with Enterococcus)
Dogs with concurrent endocarditis and polyarthritis are more likely to be infected from which organism?
Streptococcus
Which Mycoplasma species is most associated with anemia in cats?
Mycoplasma haemofelis (not Ca. M. haemominutum or Ca. M. turicensis)
Single or multiple firm cutaneous nodules with associated lymphadenomegaly in cats is the most common PE finding in what infectious disease?
Mycobacterium bovis or microti
Triple antibiotic therapy for mycobacterium (MTuberculosisComplex) in cats includes
Combinations of FQ, doxy, rifampin, or macrolide (clarithromycin/azithromycin)
Combination drug therapy for human mycobacterium (MTuberculosisC) infections includes
Rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, isoniazid
The inclusion of what antibiotic is included important for treatment of mycobacterium avium complex?
Macrolide (clarithromycin)
The majority of cutaneous mycobacterial disease in cats are from rapid growing or slow growing mycobacterium? What is the combination of antibiotics used for treatment?
Rapidly growing (generally in inguinal fat pad); tx options include doxy/aminoglycoside/+/-FQ.
A single high IgG for T gondii is consistent with active infection. T/F?
False (some cats can have as high as 1:10k 6y after induction)
Neospora has a predilection for which site in the canine brain?
Cerebellum