Gastrointestinal/Hepatobiliary/Pancreatic Flashcards
Why can vegetarian diets lead to cobalamin deficiency?
Cobalamin is bound to animal dietary proteins - cannot be absorbed in this fashion and so needs to be further digested
Best clinical use of fecal alpha 1 protein?
To investigate GI loss for hypoalbuminemia. Must be collected under voluntary evacuation (NOT rectal) because the scraping of colonic wall can result in false positve
Good empirical antibiotics used for periodontal pathogens?
Metronidazole, clavamox, clindamycin
Normal lymph nodes should still be aspirated in cases of oral melanoma or squamous cell carcinoma. T/F?
True - tumors have very high metastatic rate
Difference in muscle layering of esophagus in dogs and cats?
Dogs - all striated muscle
cats - lower 1/3 is smooth muscle
What breeds are predisposed to inflammatory myopathies, of which dysphagia can be a clinical sign?
Boxers and Newfoundlands
Clinical signs associated with oropharyngeal dysphagia
Nasal regurgitation, transient apnea, gagging/retching associated with meals, dropping food while eating, swallow-related cough, recurrent aspiration
Breeds predisposed to cricopharyngeal dysphagia?
Springer and Cocker Spaniels
Levels of CK with focal or chronic myopathies?
Can range from normal to high
Benefits of swallow study in sternal vs lateral?
cervical esophageal transit is significantly delayed when dogs are in lateral recumbency. Swallow studies on dogs in sternal recumbency are significantly more likely to result in generation of primary peristaltic waves for both liquid and kibble boluses.
Most common cause of high grade esophagitis and stricture formation in dogs?
GE reflux under anesthesia
Persistent right aortic arch are more common in which breeds?
GSD and Irish Setters
Esophageal fibrosarcomas and osteosarcomas are common malignant tumors that result from malignant transformation from infection of what organism?
Spirocerca lupi
Congenital megaesophagus has been noted in which breeds?
Irish Setter, Great Dane, German Shepherd, Labrador Retriever,
Chinese Shar-Pei, Newfoundland, Miniature Schnauzer, and Fox Terrier breeds
Causes of gastro-esophageal reflux?
Things that weaken gastroesophageal barrier. Hiatal hernia, general anesthesia causing decreased lower esophageal tone, chronic vomiting (weakening tone), gastric atony
Which short chain fatty acid is major source of energy for colonocytes?
Butyrate
What contributes to gastric acid secretion?
Binding of histamine, gastrin, acetylcholine to parietal cells
Causes for elevated gastrin other than gastrinoma?
Using PPIs, liver or renal dysfunction
An upper GI obstruction will cause what pH change in the urine?
Aciduria (paradoxical; metabolic alkalosis from vomiting acid > H+ is exchanged for Na+ and H+ is excreted)
NSAID- associated ulcers are found in which part of the stomach (generally)?
Antrum
Atrophic gastritis has been associated with what breed?
Lundehund
Gastric hypertrophy (especially in fundus) has been associated with what breed?
Basenji (they can also get an enteropathy as well)
Atrophic gastritis in Lundehunds can precede development of what disease?
Gastric adenocarcinoma
Gastric carcinomas commonly occur where?
Lesser curvature and pylorus
Major food source for small intestinal enterocytes is what?
Glutamine
How are cats more predisposed to lose cobalamin?
Lack transcobalamin 1 and lose cobalamin through enterohepatic recycling
Irish Setters are predisposed to developing what type of enteropathy?
Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
Breeds predisposed to PLE?
Basenji, Lundehund, Rottweiler, Soft-coated Wheaten Terrier, Yorkshire Terrier, and Chinese Shar-Pei
Why is a positive on occult blood test not always significant?
Can detect dietary meat proteins. Really only has significance if patient has been eating meat-free or hydrolyzed diet for 72h (according to Ettinger)
Most hydrolyzed diets can resolve type _ immune hypersensitivities, but type _ hypersensivities are still possible.
Type I, Type IV
Histopath consistent with true antibiotic responsive diarrhea?
Normal or subtle changes
Antibiotic course for antibiotic responsive diarrhea?
4-6weeks initial therapy, but change after 2w if not working. Can stop to see persistent antibiotics are still required to manage disease as animals can “outgrow” antibiotics
Name three types of alimentary lymphoma that occur in cats and order from worse prognosis to best along with focal vs diffuse, T vs B vs both.
Large granular lymphoma - worse prognosis with MST of weeks to couple months with tx, generally focal, T cell ; intermediate/hi grade alimentary lymphoma - MST a little under year, generally focal, both; low grade alimentary lymphoma - MST 1-2 years, generally diffuse, T cell.
Canine GI adenocarcinomas metastasize generally to what organs?
Local lymph nodes and liver, carcinomatosis is also reported (can also go to testes, skin, other organs)
GISTs are known by their positive expression for which marker?
c-KIT (CD 117)
Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with leiomyosarcomas
Hypoglycemia (due to IGF-2), nephrogenic DI, erythrocytosis (due to production of EPO-like molecule)
Diagnosis of pseudo-obstruction requires histopathologic evaluation of what region?
Muscularis
Management of short bowel syndrome?
Fat and fiber restricted diet; supplement vitamins, +/- antibiotics or probiotics if suspect SIBO (from ileocolic valve resection), cholestyramine for bile salt binding, +/- PPI for hypergastrinemia due to imbalance of GI hormones from massive resection
Normal distended colonic thickness in ultrasound is less than or equal to
2 mm
Main adverse effect of sulfasalazine is
KCS
“Alabama rot” (cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy) has been found associated with what organism?
E coli
Most common GI large intestinal tumor in dogs? In cats?
Adenocarcinoma. Still adenocarcinoma.
Differences in metastasis rates in colonic adenocarcinomas in cats vs dogs?
Cats are more metastatic (dogs not so much so). Siamese cats over-represented
Colonic lymphoma in cats tend to be B or T cell?
B
Rectal lymphoma in dogs responds well to chemotherapy. T/F?
True
Most common intussusception is
ileo-colic
Two pathologic mechanisms of megacolon and their causes?
Hypertrophic - obstructive
Dilated - electrolyte abnormalities, neuromuscular, idiopathic
Hypertrophic can progress to dilated if not addressed
Perianal adenomas are more commonly found in intact/castrated males and intact/spayed females.
Intact males, spayed females (androgen driven, estrogen suppressed)
Negative prognosticators for AGASACA?
Large tumor size, evidence of mets
Breeds over-represented for portal vein hypoplasia/microvascular dysplasia?
Maltese dogs, and Cairn and Yorkshire Terriers (also Dobermans)
Progressive vacuolar hepatopathy is linked with which breed? What disease can this predispose to?
Scottish Terrier, hepatic carcinoma
Clinical signs of superficial necrolytic dermatitis from hepatic disease can be found where on the body in dogs but not in cats?
Paw pads
Low protein content in ascites secondary to liver disease localizes to what type of portal hypertension (i.e. pre-hepatic, etc)
Pre-hepatic, pre-sinusoidal, sometimes sinusoidal
Why can anorexic cats with hepatic lipidosis develop hepatic encephalopathy more easily than dogs can?
Lack arginine (essential for detoxification process in urea cycle)
Blood samples left at room temperature for ammonia will result in a false increase/decrease
Increase
Which clotting factors are not strictly produced by liver?
vWF and Factor 8
Normal common bile duct size in dogs? Cats?
The common bile duct
can measure up to 3 mm in diameter in normal dogs and up to 4 mm in diameter in normal cats
Acute hemolytic crisis can be a rare manifestation of what type of liver disease?
Copper storage disease
Copper accumulation due to a primary storage disease will have copper accumulate in which zone of liver?
Zone 3/centrilobular
Most common organism in feline bile infections?
E coli
Duration of antibiotic treatment in cats with bacterial cholangiohepatitis.
At least 6 weeks
Most effective treatment for Platynosomum Infections in cats?
Praziquantel
What large dog breed is over-represented in portal vein hypoplasia?
Doberman pinschers (~1/4 of cases)
What breed can have a false positive ammonia test?
Irish Wolfhound
Between PT and PTT, which is more frequently elevated in dogs with chronic liver disease (and PSS)?
PTT (acute liver cases more often PT)
Below what fraction % is considered normal for scintigraphy in terms of blood that bypasses the liver?
<15%
Next steps if hyperammonic animal does not have PSS (based on imaging, bile acids)?
Urine metabolic screen for urea cycle metabolic abnormalities
Why is fresh blood preferred for transfusions in dogs with hepatic encephalopathy?
Stored blood has higher ammonia content
Prognostic indicators for medical management in dogs with congenital PSS (if sx not pursued)?
Higher BUN or older age at diagnosis = better prognosis
Two critical differences
between surgical PSS management in cats (compared with dogs)?
Higher perioperative complication rate and worse long-term outcomes (generally due to neurologic signs) - seizures, blindness; 37-60% (neurologic sequelae) following suture ligation, 8-77% following ameroid constrictor placement, and in
1/5 cats and 3/9 cats following use of cellophane banding
Most dogs that receive interventional or surgical treatment for hepatic arteriovenous malformation still require medical management. T/F?
True - up to 75% still require (generally due to persistent acquired shunting)
Return of bile acids to normal after PSS attenuation is correlated
with long-term outcome. T/F?
False - use biochemical parameters/clinical signs/medication weaning
Recommended treatment for cats with feline hepatic lipidosis and resulting hepatic encephalopathy?
Not protein restricted diet but more frequent /small amount fed and address any underlying inflammatory disease (according to Ettinger)
Two feline breeds associated with hepatic amyloidosis? Differences in clinical presentation?
Siamese - present for hepatic disease
Abyssinian - generally present with CKD (renal medulla more primarily involved than glomeruli)
Mechanism of action of colchinine?
Inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to its constitutive protein, tubulin
The risk of ALT elevation secondary to CCNU in dogs is highest with which breed?
Boxers
What has been associated with decreasing the incidence and severity of hepatopathies associated with CCNU?
Denamarin
Most common antibiotic associated with idiosyncratic hepatotoxicosis?
Sulfonamides
Course of clinical signs associated with amanita poisoning in dogs?
Clinical signs of vomiting, bloody
diarrhea, and abdominal pain occur within 6 to 24 hours of ingestion, followed by severe hypoglycemia at 24
to 48 hours, caused by insulin release stimulated by alpha-amanitin. Finally, massive hepatic necrosis and
renal tubular necrosis develop after 36 to 84 hours
Different types of hepatic carcinomas in dogs and their risk for mets? Where do they met?
Massive (most common) - low risk
Diffuse and nodular - high risk
Met to regional LNs, peritoneum, lungs
Most common non-hematopoietic malignancy in cats?
Cholangiocarcinoma
Breeds that commonly develop gallstones?
Miniature schnauzers and miniature poodles
Emphysematous cholecystitis has been associated with what disease in the dog?
Diabetes mellitus
Antibiotics indicated for emphysematous cholecystitis?
FQ, metronidazole, chloramphenicol (reach bile, have anaerobic coverage)
Dog breed predispositions for gallbladder mucocele?
Shetland Sheepdog, Cocker spaniel, miniature schnauzer; Border Terrier (JVIM 2018), Affenpinscher, Bichon, Poms
Medical therapy for mucoceles has been successful with what concurrent disease?
Hypothyroidism
Dog breeds affected by pancreatic acinar atrophy leading to EPI
German Shepherd dogs, Rough-coated Collies, and Eurasians
Why is feeding low fat or high fiber diet in EPI discouraged?
Fat digestibility is impaired, so don’t want to restrict fat (ideally) or want to cause more problems with fat absorption (as with high fiber)
Alopecia in cats with hyperadrenocorticism vs exocrine pancreatic carcinoma can be differentiated in what way?
HAC cats have skin fragility. Biopsy results are very similar. Pancreatic carcinoma cats generally have ventrally distributed hair loss, with sometimes glossy appearing skin.
What was correlated with a longer duration of indwelling esophageal foreign body?
Severe esophagitis, need for feeding tube, major complications (JVECC 2019), NOT correlated with risk of death (JVIM 2017)…but JAVMA 2018 says that longer duration was so idk
Overall complication rate with esophageal foreign body removal?
About 22% - JVECC 2019
Which of the following was seen in the swallow study of normal dogs?
gastric reflux, esophageal retention, retrograde flow, bolus discohesion, all of the above
All of the above (JVIM 2017)
Gastric emptying times in healthy cats (tracked by scintigraphy or ultrasound) can be up to how long?
75% Gastric emptying time can be up to 5 hours (25% - 100 min) - JVIM 2017
Cats with gingivostomatitis also tended to have evidence of esophagitis. T/F?
True (JVIM 2017)
risk of stricture formation in survivors of esophageal foreign body removal?
2% (JVIM 2017)
Most common location of esophageal foreign body?
Distal esophagus - 49% of dogs (JVIM 2017)
What were minor and major complication rate in dogs/cats with B-tube?
58% minor; 17% major (JVIM 2018)
Characteristics of lower esophageal achalasia based on VFSS?
Megaesophagus (73%), baseline esophageal fluid line (68%), “bird-beak” (63%) ; latter two were exclusive to dogs with this disease JVIM 2019
Most common type of sliding hernia in cats?
Type 1 - 85% (JVIM 2019)
Complication rate associated with esophageal feeding tubes?
44% (JVIM 2019) - similar between dogs and cats
Brachycephaly was significantly associated with what variables on VFSS?
esophageal dysmotility, prolonged esophageal transit time, gastroesophageal reflux, and hiatal hernia (JVIM 2019)
Common bacterial agents associated with e-tube site infection in cats?
Enteroccoccus and E coli (JVIM 2019 - two papers)