Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

How would an obtundated patient present themselves?

A

lethargic, somnolent, responsive to verbal or tactile stimulation, but quickly drifts back to sleep

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2
Q

What kind of patient would present generally unresponsive; may be briefly aroused by vigorous, repeated, or painful stimuli; may withdraw (shrink away from) or localize (grab at) the source of stimuli?

A

a patient presenting with stupor

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3
Q

What scale is used to assess changes in arousal?

A

glascow coma scale

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4
Q

What are the three categories assessed in the Glascow Coma Scale?

A

Eye opening, verbal response, and best motor response

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5
Q

What are three examples of central stimulation? What does this address?

A

Trapezius pinch, sternal rub, supraorbital pressure
This will assess if the brain stem is still intact/functioning

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6
Q

What does peripheral stimulation assess?

A

spinal cord function

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7
Q

If a patient is presenting with decorticate posturing, what may this indicate?

A

cerebral hemispheric dysfunction

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8
Q

If a patient is presenting with decerebrate posturing, what may this indicate?

A

brainstem dysfunction

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9
Q

Is decorticate or decerebrate posturing more concerning? Why?

A

decerebrate, as this means there is brainstem dysfunction

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10
Q

What is the inability to understand written or spoken words?

A

wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia

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11
Q

What is the inability to express language through speech or writing?

A

broca’s (expressive) aphasia

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12
Q

What can pupillary reaction provide information on?

A

the location of the lesions or mass effect from cerebral edema

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13
Q

If both pupils are nonreactive, where is damage indicated?

A

the midbrain

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14
Q

If pupils are dilated on a patient, what is important to assess before getting too concerned?

A

medications.. atropine and epinephrine can cause pupil dilation

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15
Q

If a patient has pinpoint pupils, what can this be an indicator of?

A

pons lesion or opiate drug overdose

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16
Q

What are the two oculomotor responses that determine brainstem integrity?

A

oculovestibular (caloric) and oculocephalic (doll’s eyes) reflexes

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17
Q

What kind of drugs can depress oculocephalic/oculovestibular reflexes?

A

ototoxic drugs, neuromuscular blockers, and ethyl alcohol

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18
Q

What kind of respirations are seen in a bilateral lesion in the cerebral hemispheres, cerebellum, midbrain, or, in rare circumstances, upper pons, and it may be caused by cerebral infarction or metabolic disease?

A

Cheyne-stokes

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19
Q

What type of respirations indicate a lesion in the low midbrain or upper pons and may be caused by infarction or ischemia of the midbrain or pons, anoxia, or tumors of the midbrain?

A

central neurogenic hyperventilation

20
Q

What may an increased pulse be indicative of?

A

poor cerebral oxygenation

21
Q

In the late stages of ICP, there will be a ____ in heart rate?

22
Q

What is the reason that widening pulse pressure may occur?

A

ICP exceeds MAP

23
Q

What do cranial nerve reflexes indicate?

A

brainstem functioning

24
Q

What are the 4 protective reflexes?

A

(1) corneal reflex (blink), (2) gag reflex, (3) swallow reflex, and (4) cough reflex

25
What is the gold standard for measuring ICP?
intraventricular monitoring
26
What are the major disadvantages of having an intraventricular drain?
it is very invasive and carries a high risk for hemorrhage and infection
27
Why is a subarachnoid pressure monitoring device not ideal for someone with an increased ICP?
they are unable to drain CSF
28
What is the anatomic landmark for the lateral ventricle?
foramen of Monroe (tragus)
29
Why is the waveform of a subarachnoid bolt/screw easily dampened?
fragments of bone or brain tissue may obstruct the bolt
30
What is the p1 waveform on an ICP monitor?
pulse pressure
31
What does the p2 waveform represent on an ICP monitor?
compliance of brain tissue
32
What is the p3 waveform on an ICP monitor?
dicrotic wave
33
When do A waves typically occur? What do they look like?
When there is an increase in ICP. They are sharp increases that plateau
34
What kind of neurological changes typically accompany A waves?
decreased level of consciousness, pupillary changes, and posturing
35
What are the two types of cerebral oxygenation monitoring?
jugular bulb oximetry and brain tissue oxygen monitoring
36
What does a transcranial doppler measure?
cerebral blood velocity
37
Three primary types of TBIs
Accelerational/decelerational, Rotational, Penetrating
38
What are the 5 trademark signs of a basilar skull fracture?
Battle sign, raccoon eyes, otorrhea, rhinorrhea, positive halo sign.
39
What are three circumstances that may cause an increase in cerebral blood volume?
hypoxemia and/or hypercapnia, cerebral venous outflow obstruction, or loss of cerebral autoregulation
40
Why does hypoxemia/hypercapnia result in an increased CBV?
it causes vasodilation
41
What term describes the process whereby cerebral vessels have the capacity to dilate or constrict in response to changes in perfusion pressures?
Autoregulation
42
A brief loss of consciousness followed by a period of being alert and oriented and then a loss of consciousness again is a typical presentation for which condition?
epidural hematoma
43
What is the term used to describe an accumulation of blood between the dura and the arachnoid layers of the meninges?
Subdural hematoma
44
What should the MAP be maintained at for management of an intraparenchymal hematoma?
70mmHg or less
45
Presence of dizziness, headache, and confusion for long periods of time after concussion is _______.
postconcussive syndrome
46
What are the components of the beside neurological assessment?
LOC, motor function, pupillary response, respiratory function, and VS
47
What interventions are used to manage cerebral metabolism?
sedation, anticonvulsants, antipyretic therapies