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Y3 Neurology Anatomy > Neuroanatomy > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

The nervous system can be divided into…

A

CNS: brain and spinal cord
PNS: 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs spinal nerves and branches

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2
Q

What is the first structure the brain develops from?

A

Neural tube

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3
Q

What primary vesicles does the neural tube divide into? When does this occur?

A

Prosencephalon
Mesencephalon
Rhombencephalon
4 weeks

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4
Q

What secondary vesicles are formed from the primary vesicles of the brain? When does this occur?

A

1st and 3rd divide at 6-8 weeks:

Prosencephalon forms telencephalon and diencephalon
Mesencephalon remains the same
Rombencephalon forms melencephalon and mylencephalon

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5
Q

What structures of the brain evolve from the 5 secondary vesicles?

A 
Top - toe order...
Telencephalon ---> Cerebral hemispheres
Diencephalon ---> Thalamus, hypothalamus
Mesencephalon ---> Midbrain
Melencephalon ---> Pons, cerebellum
Myelencephalon ---> Medulla oblongata
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6
Q

What are the components of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata

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7
Q

What is the role of neurones, principle cells of the CNS?

A

‘Communicators’ that recieve info via synapses, integrate it and then transmit electrical impulses to another neurone or effector cell

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8
Q

Most neurones are multipolar/ unipolar?

A

Multipolar

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9
Q

What is the basic structure of a neurone?

A

Dendrites
One axon
Cell body

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10
Q

What are the four types of glial ‘glue’ cells

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells

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11
Q

What is the most numerous cell in the CNS?

A

Glial cells

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12
Q

What is the role of astrocytes? What do they look like?

A

Roles in support, maintain blood-brain barrier, environmental homeostasis
Star shape

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13
Q

What is the role of oligodendrocytes? What do they look like?

A

Produce myelin in the CNS

Round nucleus which is stained

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14
Q

What is the role of microglia? What do they look like?

A

Immune monitoring and antigen presentation (don’t originate from CNS)
Similar to macrophages

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15
Q

What is the role of ependymal? What do they look like?

A 
Line ventricles (no barrier to CSF)
Square-shaped cells that are 'epithelium like'
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16
Q

What three structures give rise to the bumpy surface of the brain?

A

Gyrus (bumps)
Sulcus (grooves)
Fissures (deeper than sulcus)

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17
Q

The white matter of the brain contains ___ and is found on the inside/outside of the brain which is the opposite to the spinal cord

A

Axons, glial cells, blood vessels

Inside

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18
Q

The grey matter of the brain contains ___ and is found on the inside/outside of the brain which is the opposite to the spinal cord

A

Neurones, cell processes, synapses, glia, blood vessels
Outside
(H pattern in spinal cord)

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19
Q

The posterior fibres in the spinal cord are involved in motor/sensory information whereas the anterior fibres convey motor/sensory information

A

Sensory from dorsal (posterior) horn

Motor from the ventral (anterior) horn

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20
Q

The precentral gyrus is associated with what type of cortex?

A

Somatosensory

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21
Q

The postcentral gyrus is associated with what type of cortex?

A

Somatomotor

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22
Q

The lentiform nucleus can be split into…

A

Putamen

Globus pallidus

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23
Q

What is the functions of the corpus callosum?

A

Connects both hemispheres of the brain

Connects brain to spinal cord

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24
Q

What is the name for the touching part between the thalamus and hypothalamus?

A

Interthalamic adhesion

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25
Q

Columns in the spinal cord are composed of ___ matter, whereas horns are composed of ___ matter

A

White

Grey

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26
Q

Which sulci border the frontal lobe posteriorly and inferiorly respectively?

A

Central sulcus

Lateral sulcus

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27
Q

Which sulci border the parietal lobe anteriorly, inferiorly and posteriorly respectively?

A

Central sulcus
Lateral sulcus
Parieto-occipital sulcus (to preoccipital notch)

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28
Q

Which sulci border the occipital lobe anteriorly?

A

Parieto-occipital sulcus

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29
Q

Which sulci border the frontal lobe superiorly, inferiorly and medially respectively?

A

Lateral sulcus
Parieto-occipital sulcus (to preoccipital notch)
Calcarine sulcus (to preoccipital notch)

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30
Q

What is known as the fifth or ‘hidden’ lobe?

A

Insular lobe or insula

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31
Q

What fissure extends down between the cerebral hemispheres splitting the frontal, parietal and occipital lobes?

A

Longitudinal cerebral fissure

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32
Q

What are the layers of the meninges from superficial to deep?

A
  1. Dura
  2. Arachnoid matter
    (Subarachnoid space)
  3. Pia matter
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33
Q

Where does CSF drain to?

A

Subarachnoid space (and some to central canal of spinal cord)

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34
Q

Outline the route taken by CSF

A

Lateral Vs - Interventricular foramen - 3rd V - cerebral aqueduct - 4th V - SA space

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35
Q

What is known as the 3rd nervous system? Where is it located? What is it divided into?

A

Enteric nervous system
In digestive system (Oesophagus - rectum)

2 wall plexuses

  1. Myenteric (between SM)
  2. Submucosal (submucosa)
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36
Q

Outline the blood supply to the brain, splitting it into two systems

A

INTERNAL CAROTID SYSTEM
Anterior cerebral arteries
Middle cerebral arteries
Internal carotid arteries (form MCA)

VERTEBROBASILAR SYSTEM
Basilar artery
Vertebral arteries

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37
Q

What is the Circle of Willis?

A

An arterial polygon formed as the internal carotid and vertebral systems anastomose around the optic chiasm and infundibulum of the pituitary stalk

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38
Q

What territory of the brain is supplied by the ACA, MCA and PCA respectively?

A

Medial frontal lobe
Lateral frontal lobe, parietal lobe and temporal lobe
Mostly occipital lobe

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39
Q

Outline the venous drainage of the brain

A

Blood drains into intercavernous and cavernous dural venous sinuses, then into jugular foramen and finally the internal jugular vein

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40
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1/L2

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41
Q

What are the two enlargements of the spinal cord?

A

Cervical (UL)

Lumbar (LL)

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42
Q

What are the terms used to describe a group of cell bodies outside the CNS vs. inside the CNS?

A

Ganglion

Nucleus

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43
Q

What is the pathway taken by each segment of the spinal cord?

A

Rootlets —> Roots —> Subarachnoid space —> Intervertebral foramina —> Roots fuse to form mixed spinal nerve –> Ramii

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44
Q

Posterior root is enlarged by…

A

Dorsal root ganglion

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45
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate? What does it continue as?

A

Conus medullaris

Thin CT cord = Filum terminale

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46
Q

Which foramen allows spinal and cranial meninges to be continuous with each other?

A

Foramen magnum

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47
Q

The spinal cord is suspended in the spinal canal by what ligament? What is it formed from?

A

Denticulate ligament

Pial and arachnoid tissue

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48
Q

What are the 3 components of white matter in the spinal cord?

A

Posterior, lateral and anterior fasciculi

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49
Q

What are the 5 components of grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

Left and right posterior and anterior horns (arms of ‘H’)

Dorsal and ventral grey commisures (join of ‘H’) which surround central canal

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50
Q

What is the arterial supply of the spinal cord and what do they originate from?

A

Vertebral arteries —> 1 anterior and 2 posterior longitudinal arteries

Vertebral, intercostal, lumbar arteries —> Segmental arteries

Various spinal arteries —> Radicular arteries

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51
Q

Where do radicular arteries travel?

A

Along dorsal and ventral roots

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52
Q

What is the venous drainage of the spinal cord?

A

Similar to supply - longitudinal and segmental veins

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53
Q

In the spinal canal, what is the space between dura and bone known as? What is it composed of?

A

Epidural space

Adipose tissue and venous plexuses

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54
Q

Information from the periphery reaches the cortex in the spinal cord. What parts of the body are an exception to this?

A

Face and scalp

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55
Q

The ascending spinal cord tract is sensory/motor, whereas the descending is sensory/motor

A

Sensory

Motor

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56
Q

What is the role of the dorsal column/ medial lemniscus system?

A

SENSORY: Fine touch, vibration and conscious proprioception (mostly upper limb)

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57
Q

Where do the fibres from the medial lemniscus system originate, cross and synapse to reach the cortex?

A

Medial lemniscus!
Medulla
Thalamus

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58
Q

What is the role of the spinothalamic tract?

A

SENSORY: Carries pain, temperature and deep pressure

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59
Q

Where do the fibres from the spinothalamic tract originate, cross and synapse to reach the cortex?

A

Spinal lemniscus (Medulla)
Segmentally in spinal cord
Thalamus

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60
Q

What is the role of the corticospinal/pyramidal tract?

A

MOTOR: fine, precise movement especially of distal limb muscles, for example digits

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61
Q

Where do the fibres from the CST start and end?

Where do the fibres from the corticospinal tract cross?

A

Cortex and spinal cord (lumbar region)
Medulla at decussation of pyramids (why it is also referred to as pyramidal tract)
NOT ALL OF THEM!

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62
Q

The crossed fibres of the CST form what part of the CST?

A

Lateral

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63
Q

The uncrossed fibres of the CST form what part of the CST?

A

Ventral (cross segmentally)

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64
Q

Which spinal tract is involved in decorticate posturing?

A

Corticospinal tract (FLEXOR - ARMS LIKE C)

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65
Q

What is the motor system outside the pyramidal tract known as? What tracts is it composed of?

A

Extrapyramidal system

Tectospinal, reticulospinal, vestibulospinal tracts

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66
Q

What is the role of the tectospinal tract?

A

Input to cervical segments - mediate reflex head and neck movement due to visual stimuli e.g. following a moving bus with your eyes

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67
Q

What is the role of the reticulospinal tract?

A

Forms central core of brainstem - receives input from all parts of CNS and influences voluntary movement, breathing and heart rate

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68
Q

Where do fibres from the reticulospinal tract originate from?

A

Reticular formations in the pons and medulla

Pons - extensor movement, inhibits flexor
Medulla - flexor movement, inhibits extensor

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69
Q

What is the role of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

Excitory input to ‘antigravity’ extensor muscles e.g. stabilise yourself if falling (LATERAL)
Control head movement via neck and back muscles (MEDIAL)

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70
Q

Where do fibres from the vestibulospinal tract originate from and where do they receive inputs from?

A 
Vestibular nuclei (lateral (Deiters nucleus) and medial) of pons and medulla
CNIII from vestibular labyrinths and cerebellum
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71
Q

Which spinal tract is involved in decerebrate posturing?

A

Vestibulospinal tract (EXTENSOR - ARMS LIKE E)

72
Q

Where does the TST start and end?

A

Optic tectum or superior colliculus (roof of midbrain) and spinal cord (cervical region)

73
Q

Where does the TST recieve inputs from?

A

Retina, visual cortex and afferents

74
Q

What is the role of the cerebellum?

A

Involved in planning intended movement in motor cortex and feeding it to the CST for movement to occur

75
Q

What is the basal ganglia? What is their role?

A

Series of grey matter structures key to initiation and inhibition of movement
Role in posture and muscle tone

76
Q

How is white and grey matter distributed in the cerebellum?

A

Core of white matter

Grey matter outside

77
Q

What exists anterosuperiorly, posteriorely and superiorly to the cerebellum respectively?

A

Cerebral hemispheres
Pons and medulla
Lateral fissure

78
Q

List the lobes that combine to form the cerebellum

A

Anterior
Posterior
Floccolus (‘ear’) - part of flocculonodular lobe

79
Q

List the fissures that exist within the cerebellum and give their position

A

Primary (between anterior and posterior)

Horizontal (splits posterior)

80
Q

What cavity does the cerebellum exist within? What cavities exists superiorly and posteriorly to this?

A

Tentorium cerebelli
Falx cerebri
Falx cerebelli

81
Q

How is the cerebellum attached to the brainstem?

A

Via 3 peduncles - superior, middle and inferior cerebellar peduncles

82
Q

Which is the largest cerebellar peduncle?

83
Q

What parts of the cerebellum can be attributed to its function?

A

Vermis (line down middle of A and P lobe)

Grey matter within the core (series of nuclei that communicate outputs from the cerebellum)

84
Q

What are the 3 layers of the cortex from outside to inside?

A

Molecular layer
Purkinje cell layer
Granule cell layer

85
Q

Where do afferent inputs to the cerebellum arrive from? (3)

A

MOTOR
Spinal cord (via somatic proprioceptors and pressure receptors)
Cerebral cortex (via pons)
Vestibular apparatus via nuclei

86
Q

Where in the cerebellum do afferent projections enter and project to?

A

Cerebellar peduncle

Granular layer

87
Q

Where does the efferent output from the cerebellum come from? What is the function of this?

A

Axons of purkinje cells

Coordinate function of all motor tracts

88
Q

Where do efferent outputs from the cerebellum synapse? What happens after this?

A

Thalamus

Sends fibres to motor cortex

89
Q

A lesion to a cerebellar hemisphere would cause symptoms on the ipsilateral side. True/False?

90
Q

What symptoms would we expect from a lesion to a unilateral hemisphere?

A

Coordination problems - intention tremor, unsteady gait

91
Q

What symptoms would we expect from a lesion to bilateral hemispheres?

A 
Speech problems (Dysarthria)
Gait problems (Ataxic gait)
92
Q

What symptoms would we expect from a lesion to the midline of the cerebellum?

A

Posture problems - falls over when standing

93
Q

List some basal ganglia

A

Caudate nucleus
Putamen and globus pallidus (lentiform nucleus)
Subthalamic nucleus
Substantia nigra

94
Q

What is the striatum of the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus

Putamen

95
Q

What is the corpus striatum?

A

Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Globus pallidus

96
Q

What does the lentiform nucleus look like?

A 
Globus pallidus (two stripes)
Putamen (lentil)
97
Q

What does the caudate nuclei look like?

98
Q

What is located lateral and medial to the internal capsule (white matter tract)?

A

Lentiform nucleus

Thalamic nuclei

99
Q

What does the substantia nigra look like? Where is it located in the brainstem?

A

Black lines

Midbrain

100
Q

What disease is characterised by degeneration of dopaminergic neurones of substantia nigra?

A

Parkinsons Disease

101
Q

What pathway is used to enhance normal movement by the basal ganglia?

A

Direct pathway

Enhance outflow of thalamus

102
Q

What pathway is used to inhibit unwanted movement by the basal ganglia?

A

Indirect pathway

Inhibit outflow of thalamus

103
Q

Unilateral lesions of the basal ganglia affect the ipsilateral side. True/ False?

A

False

Affect contralateral side

104
Q

What symptoms would we expect from a lesion to the basal ganglia?

A

Change in muscle tone
Dyskinesias (abnormal involuntary movement) inc. tremor, chorea (rapid asymmetrical movements typically by the distal limbs), myoclonus (muscle jerks)

105
Q

What symptoms would we expect in Parkinsons Disease?

A

REDUCED OUTPUT TO CORTEX
Akinesia (impairment of the power of voluntary movement)
Rigidity
Resting tremor

106
Q

What is Huntingdon’s Disease?

A

Progressive degeneration of basal ganglia and cerebral cortex

107
Q

What symptoms would we expect in Huntingdon’s Disease?

A

Chorea

Progressive dementia

108
Q

Which CN has functions outwith the head?

A

Vagus nerve

109
Q

What is a cranial nerve associated with in the brain?

A

Association with streak of grey matter in the brain/ brainstem with one function

110
Q

Which direction do most cranial nerves exit the brain? What are the exceptions?

A

Anteriorly
CN IV - posteriorly
CN VIII - laterally

111
Q

Soma of sensory nerve cells are found within the CNS. True/ False?

A

False

In ganglia outside the CNS

112
Q

Which CN is the only sensory modality that does not synpase in the thalamus before reaching the cortex?

A

Olfactory nerve

113
Q

Which CNs have a nuclei of origin close to the midline?

A

CN III, IV, VI, (XII - closeish)

114
Q

What is the modality and function of the olfactory nerve?

A

Sensory

Smell

115
Q

What is the modalities and functions of the oculomotor nerve?

A

Somatic motor - levator ps., SR, MR, IR, IO

Parasympathetic - sphincter pupillae ciliary muscle

116
Q

What is the ciliary ganglion controlled by?

A

Edinger westphal nucleus

117
Q

What is the modality and function of the trochlear nerve?

A

Somatic motor - SO

118
Q

What is the modality and function of the abducens nerve?

A

Somatic motor - LR

119
Q

What is the modality and function of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

Somatic motor - geniog, hyog, stylog, intrinsic tongie muscles

120
Q

Where does the spinal accessory nerve arrive from?

A

Cervical spinal cord

121
Q

What are the 3 functions of the trigeminal nerve and the 4 nuclei associated with it?

A
  1. Somatosensation of face with oral sparing (discriminative touch, vibration - PONTINE TRIGEMINAL NUCLEUS)
    (pain, temperature - SPINAL NUCLEUS)
  2. Proprioception associated chewing (TMJ, muscles of mastication, teeth) - MESENCEPHALIC NUCLEUS
  3. Motor control (muscles of mastication, tensor tympani, mylohyoid, A belly of digastric, tensor veli palatini) - MOTOR NUCLEUS
122
Q

What are the trigeminal sensory nuclei?

A

Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine trigeminal nucleus (PRINCIPAL)
Spinal nucleus

123
Q

Where does the trigeminal sensory nucleus start and finish?

A

Midbrain

Cervical spinal cord

124
Q

What is the only site in the CNS where cell bodies of primary afferent neurones live inside the CNS?

A

Mesencephalic nucleus

125
Q

Why do we get bilateral representation of touch, vibration etc. in the cortex from the trigeminal nerve?

A

Most fibres of the ventral trigeminothalamic tract cross in the midline but some don’t

126
Q

What are the 3 functions of the facial nerve and what 3 nuclei are associated with each?

A
  1. Motor supply to muscles of facial expression, stapedius - FACIAL MOTOR NUCLEUS
  2. Parasympathetic to pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglia - SALIVATORY NUCLEUS
  3. Taste to the A 2/3s of the tongue via chorda tympani - SOLITATORY NUCLEUS
127
Q

What are the 4 functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve and what 3 nuclei are associated with each?

A
  1. Tactile sense, pain, temperature from P tongue and upper pharynx - SPINAL TRIGEMINAL NUCLEUS (small area of ear)
  2. Taste to P 1/3 of tongue - SOLITATORY NUCLEUS
  3. PS to otic ganglion (parotid gland) - SALVATORY NUCLEUS
  4. Motor supply to stylopharyngeus - NUCLEUS AMBIGUUS
128
Q

What are the 4 functions of the vagus nerve and what 4 nuclei are associated with each?

A
  1. Tactile sense, pain, temperature from pharynx to abdomen - SPINAL TRIGEMINAL NUCLEUS
  2. Taste (epiglottis) - SOLITATORY NUCLEUS
  3. PS to ganglia serving thoracic and abdominal viscera - DORSAL (MOTOR) NUCLEUS
  4. Motor to muscles of pharynx and larynx (+ CN XI) - NUCLEUS AMBIGUUS
129
Q

What CNs are supplied by the solitatory nucleus?

A

VII, IX, X

130
Q

What CNs are supplied by the salvatory nucleus?

131
Q

What CNs are supplied by nucleus ambiguus?

A

IX, X and cranial part of XI

132
Q

List the areas of taste attributed to the solitary nucleus on the tongue and their sensory CN supply from front-back

A 
A 2/3 - VII
P 1/3 - IX
Epiglottis - X
Carotid sinus/ body - IX
Aortic arch and viscera (pulmonary stretch receptors) - X
133
Q

What tract provides the motor input to CN V, VII, X, XII

134
Q

What supplies input to PS efferents of CN III, VII, IX, X?

A

Hypothalamus directly and via reticular formation

135
Q

What is reticular formation?

A

Network of loosely aggravated cells with cell bodies, axons and dendrites in the central core of the brainstem

136
Q

What are the functions of the reticular formation?

A

Integrate CN reflexes
Conduct and modulate pain
Voluntary movement
Regulate autonomic activity
Integrate basic functions - respiration, SLEEP
Activate cerebral cortex (component of ARAS)

137
Q

Which CN is involved in hearing?

A

CN VIII - Cochlear nerve

138
Q

What route is taken by the cochlear nerve to reach the thalamus?

A 
ECOLI
Cochlear nerve (EIGHTH CN) -->
Cochlear nucleus (C) -->
Superior olivary nucleus (O)-->
(LATERAL LEMNISCUS)
Inferior collicus (I) -->
Medial geniculate body (in thalamus)
139
Q

A unilateral hearing problem is typically an issue with the cochlea. True/ False?

A

False
Typically, a brainstem issue
Superior to cochlear nuclei, some fibres are crossed and some are not = bilateral input

140
Q

What are the auditory ossicles of the middle ear?

A

Malleus, incus and stapes

141
Q

What is contained within the organ of corti in the cochlea?

A

Inner and outer hair cells

142
Q

What is the role of the spiral ganglion within the cochlea?

A

Bipolar neurones that are stimulated by hair cells and carry action potentials from organ of corti to cochlear nuclei in pons

143
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex in the brain - in terms of lobes and fissures?

A

Temporal lobe

Close to lateral fissure

144
Q

What area of the auditory cortex do low frequency fibres end, versus high frequency fibres?

A

Anterolateral

Posteromedial

145
Q

What is the function of the superior olivary nucleus and lateral lemniscus in hearing?

A

Sound localization and relays info for stapedial and tensor tympani reflexes

146
Q

What is aphasia? Which side of the brain is dominant for language?

A

Inability to use language

Left predominantly

147
Q

What would we expect to happen if there was damage to Broca’s area? Where is Broca’s area?

A

MOTOR/ EXPRESSIVE APHASIA
Difficulty in producing language - typically few words/ most important (‘broken’)
Frontal lobe

148
Q

What would we expect to happen if there was damage to Wernicke’s area? Where is Wernicke’s area?

A

SENSORY/ RECEPTIVE APHASIA
Difficulty comprehending language - words out of order/ meaningless words
Temporal lobe

149
Q

Which CN is involved in balance?

A

CNVIII - vestibular nerve

150
Q

Which part of the inner ear is involved in balance?

A

3 semicircular canals

151
Q

What are the main connections of vestibular nuclei?

A

Thalamus
Nuclei of CN III, IV, VI (Eye control)
Cerebellum (flocculonodular lobe)
Spinal cord

152
Q

There is no ‘vestibular cortex’, where does the projection of vestibular information typically converge?

A

Parietal cortex/ posterior to postcentral gyrus that represents hand and mouth)
Anterior to primary auditory cortex
Posterior insular cortex

153
Q

What part of the thalamus is involved in processing visual information?

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus

154
Q

Each optic tract, LGN, optic radiation and visual cortex deals with visual information from the contralateral/unilateral field.

A

Contralateral

155
Q

What is the role of the superior cocculi in vision?

A

Recieve inputs and outputs to nuclei of CN III, IV, VI and motor nucleus of VII and spinal cord
Mostly involved in ‘automatic vision’

156
Q

Where is the primary visual cortex located in the brain - in terms of lobes and fissures?

A

Occipital lobe

Above and below the calcarine sulcus

157
Q

Which visual field is projected to gyrus superior to the calcarine sulcus?

A

Lower visual field

Upper projects to inferior

158
Q

Which pole of the cortex does the macula project to?

A

Posterior pole (occupies large proportion)

159
Q

What is Meyer’s loop?

A

Fibres of geniculocalcarine tract that form part of the internal capsule
Visual information from upper half of field first loop anteriorly around temporal part of lateral ventricle

160
Q

What type of eye movement is the visual cortex involved in?

A

Movements in response to visual stimuli (tracking moving objects) - SMOOTH

161
Q

What type of eye movement is the frontal eye fields involved in?

A

Movements of command (no moving visual stimuli) - JUMPY

162
Q

In the consensual light reflex, what is the mechanism behind the constriction of the contralateral pupil?

A

Pretectal fibres project bilaterally to EW nucleus

163
Q

In the accommodation reflex, what receives inputs from the visual cortex?

A

Oculomotor nerve

EW nucleus

164
Q

What is meant by the term ‘cortical localization’?

A

Some higher functions are greater in one cerebral hemisphere - this is the dominant hemisphere

165
Q

What are the 3 types of white matter tracts in the brain?

A

Association fibres - connect cortical sites lying in same hemisphere

Commissural fibres - connect one hemisphere to other

Projection fibres - connect hemispheres to deeper structures including thalamus, corpus striatum, brain stem and spinal cord

166
Q

Which part of a myelinated axons allows the spread of saltatory conduction?

A

Node of Ranvier

167
Q

What is the route for sympathetic nerve supply to the eye?

A 
T1 sympathetic trunk ganglion --->
Superior cervical sympathetic ganglion --->
Internal carotid plexus --->
Ciliary ganglion --->
Short ciliary nerve
168
Q

Where does the lateral and medial VST terminate, respectively?

A

Lumbar spinal cord

Cervical spinal cord

169
Q

Where do axons of the TST deccusate?

A

Dorsal tegmental decussation in the brainstem

170
Q

What is the function of the rubrospinal tract, and where do the fibres originate?

A

Extra-pyramidal tract that excites flexors and inhibitis extensors of UL
Red nucleus in midbrain

171
Q

What is the function of the spinocerebellar tract?

A

SENSORY

Transmits unconscious proprioceptive information for posture and movement

172
Q

The DCML pathway divided into what two divisions after synapsing?

A

> T6: Nucleus cuneatus

< T6: Nucleus gracillus

173
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

Encircles corpus callosum and is involved in higher emotional functions and memory

174
Q

The afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex is controlled by which cranial nerve?

175
Q

The efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex is controlled by which cranial nerve?

A

CNIII (thrEEE)

176
Q

Outline the somatotopic layout of the corticopsinal tract, in terms of anatomical location controlled, at the spinal cord

A 
Medial = UL
Lateral = LL
177
Q

Which artery does CNIII travel close too, once exiting the midbrain, and can damage CNIII if there is an aneurysm?

A

Posterior communicating artery

Y3 Neurology Anatomy (12 decks)

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