Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

rostral

A

towards the front (rostrum = beak)

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2
Q

caudal

A

towards the tail

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3
Q

what is the encephalon?

A

brain

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4
Q

what does the CNS comprise?

A

brain and spinal cord

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5
Q

what is the rhombencephalon?

A

hindbrain

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6
Q

what is the rhombencephalon (hindbrain) divided into?

A

medulla oblongata
pons
cerebellum

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7
Q

what is medulla oblongata derived from?

A

myelencephalon

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8
Q

what is the pons derived from?

A

metencephalon

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9
Q

what is the cerebellum derived from?

A

metencephalon

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10
Q

what is the mesencephalon?

A

midbrain

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11
Q

in which part of the brain is the tectum?

A

midbrain

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12
Q

where is the tectum relative to the cerebral aqueduct in the midbrain?

A

dorsal

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13
Q

which part of the midbrain comprises of four colliculi?

A

tectum

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14
Q

what is the corpora quadrigemina?

A

superior and inferior colliculi

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15
Q

what is the cerebral peduncle?

A

midbrain ventral to the aqueduct

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16
Q

divisions of the cerebral peduncle

A

dorsal tegmentum
ventrally, a large fibre tract on each side of the midline - crus cerebri

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17
Q

what separates the tegmentum and crura?

A

substantia nigra

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18
Q

what are the crus cerebri?

A

large bundles of white matter emerging from the cerebral hemispheres, one on each side of the midline
pass backwards and downwards, converging to meet in the midline at the upper border of the pons

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19
Q

which part of the cerebral peduncles are visible on the inferior surface of the brain?

A

crus cerebri

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20
Q

what is the prosencephalon?

A

forebrain

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21
Q

divisions of the prosencephalon/ forebrain

A

diencephalon and telencephalon

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22
Q

divisions of the diencephalon

A

thalamus and hypothalamus
with the epi and sub-thalamus

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23
Q

what does the telencephalon consist of?

A

cerebral cortex (grey matter)
deep nuclei - basal ganglia

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24
Q

where are the red nuclei located?

A

ventral midbrain

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25
Q

what are the meninges?

A

three separate tubular sheaths of membrane which surround and enclose the ENTIRE CNS

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26
Q

name the meninges deep to superficial

A

PAD out
pia, arachnoid, dura

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27
Q

describe dura mater

A

fibrous sheet
white collagen fibres
few elastic fibres arranged in dense laminae, often of parallel fibres
latticed appearance due to wide angle between the direction of the fibres in adjacent laminae

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28
Q

does the spinal cord dura have an endosteal layer?

A

no, just cranial dura

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29
Q

layers of cranial dura

A

outer endosteal layer - equivalent to the periosteum
inner meningeal layer - dura mater proper

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30
Q

describe arachnoid mater

A

poorly vascularised membrane of loose connective tissue, consisting of collagen, elastin and reticulin fibres
loosely covers the brain without following the gyral and sulcal undulations

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31
Q

describe pia mater

A

adherent to the entire surface of the CNS, including following the gyral and sulcal folds

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32
Q

what is the subarachnoid space?

A

space between the arachnoid and pia mater containing cerebrospinal fluid

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33
Q

where is CSF?

A

in the ventricles and subarachnoid space

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34
Q

what is white matter?

A

formed by collections of nerve fibres (axons) wrapped in fatty myelin sheaths with few or no neuronal somata (cell bodies)

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35
Q

what is grey matter of the CNS?

A

formed by aggregations of neuronal cell bodies and their local processes

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36
Q

what is neuropil?

A

network of intermingled and interconnected neuronal processes which occupy the space between neuronal cell bodies in the grey matter

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37
Q

what are clusters of nerve cell bodies (grey matter) within the brain?

A

nuclei/ ganglia
e.g basal ganglia

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38
Q

what is the difference between ganglia and nuclei?
why is ‘basal ganglia’ a misnomer?

A

ganglia are clusters of nerve cell bodies in the PNS
nuclei are clusters of nerve cell bodies in the CNS
basal ganglia are in the forebrain (CNS)

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39
Q

what is the cortex?

A

outer surface of the brain
cerebral hemispheres AND cerebellum
formed by flatter sheets of neurones

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40
Q

what shape does the grey matter form in the spinal cord?

A

butterfly

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41
Q

difference in orientation of grey and white matter in the spinal cord and brain

A

brain
- grey matter surrounds white matter
spinal cord
- white matter surrounds grey matter
- grey matter forms a butterfly shape

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42
Q

which layer of the meninges is indistinguishable with the naked eye?

A

pia

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43
Q

arterial supply to the brain

A

Circle of Willis

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44
Q

venous drainage of the brain

A

cerebral veins
dural venous sinuses

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45
Q

in which lobe is the primary motor cortex?

A

frontal

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46
Q

in which lobe is the prefrontal cortex?

A

frontal

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47
Q

in which lobe are the primary auditory cortex and auditory association cortex?

A

temporal

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48
Q

in which lobe is Wernicke’s area?

A

temporal

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49
Q

in which lobe is the hippocampus?

A

temporal

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50
Q

in which lobe is the amygdala?

A

temporal

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51
Q

in which lobe is the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

parietal

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52
Q

in which lobe is the somatosensory association cortex?

A

parietal

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53
Q

in which lobe is the primary visual cortex?

A

occipital

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54
Q

in which lobe is the visual association cortex

A

occipital

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55
Q

function of the cerebellum

A

motor control of equilibrium
posture and muscle tone and movement co-ordination

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56
Q

where are cranial nerve nuclei?

A

brainstem mainly

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57
Q

what are gyri?

A

rolls of cerebral cortex

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58
Q

what are sulci?

A

grooves between the gyri

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59
Q

what is the central sulcus?

A

large fissure separating the frontal from parietal lobes

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60
Q

what is the lateral sulcus?

A

large fissure separating the temporal lobe from parietal and frontal lobes

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61
Q

what are the posterior most parts of the occipital lobes called?

A

occipital poles

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62
Q

what is insula?

A

forms the floor of the lateral sulcus

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63
Q

what are opercula?

A

means ‘lips’
the parts of the temporal, frontal and parietal lobes that overlie the insula

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64
Q

where is the median longitudinal fissure?

A

between the hemispheres

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65
Q

white matter connecting the hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

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66
Q

ion which lobe do the olfactory tracts run?

A

frontal

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67
Q

rounded eminences behind the optic chiasma

A

mamillary bodies

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68
Q

are the mamillary bodies visible from the dorsal or ventral surface of the brainstem?

A

ventral

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69
Q

what is the only part of the diencephalon visible on the outside of the brain?

A

hypothalamus

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70
Q

what are the crus cerebri?

A

part of the cerebral peduncles
two large masses of white matter emerging behind the mamillary bodies on each side, from the cerebral hemisphere
they converge as they meet the pons

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71
Q

bridge of neural tissue between the midbrain and the medulla oblongata

A

pons

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72
Q

what joins the hemispheres of the cerebellum?

A

vermis

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73
Q

where does the parietal lobe extend between?

A

central sulcus anteriorly to the imaginary parietooccipital fissure posteriorly

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74
Q

which lobe contains the primary sensory area?

A

parietal

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75
Q

how many of each lobe do we have?

A

2

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76
Q

which parietal lobe is usually dominant?

A

left

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77
Q

functional of the non dominant parietal lobe

A

visuospatial functions

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78
Q

function of the frontal lobe

A

motor function, problem solving, spontaneity, memory, language, judgement, personality, impulse control, social and sexual behaviour

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79
Q

where is the prefrontal cortex?

A

anterior part of frontal lobe

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80
Q

function of the prefrontal cortex

A

higher cognitive functions and determination of personality

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81
Q

where is Broca’s area?

A

left inferior frontal gyrus

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82
Q

function of Broca’s area?

A

language production and comprehension

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83
Q

where is the primary auditory complex?

A

temporal lobe

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84
Q

where is the hippocampus?

A

temporal lobe

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85
Q

in which lobe is the amygdala?

A

temporal

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86
Q

where is Wernicke’s area?

A

superior temporal gyrus of the left hemisphere

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87
Q

function of Wernicke’s area

A

understanding the spoken word

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88
Q

where is the auditory complex found?

A

lateral/ Sylvian fissure

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89
Q

where are the primary visual and visual association cortices?

A

occipital lobe

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90
Q

function of the limbic system

A

emotion, memory, behaviour, olfaction

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91
Q

function of the hippocampus

A

long term memory formation

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92
Q

function of the amygdala

A

motivationally significant stimuli e.g those related to reward and fear

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93
Q

what is the brain’s pleasure centre?

A

nucleus accumbens

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94
Q

falx cerebri

A

arched crescent of dura lying in the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres

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95
Q

sinus at the superior border of the falx cerebri

A

superior saggital sinus

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96
Q

sinus at the free border of the falx cerebri (inferior margin)

A

inferior saggital sinus

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97
Q

thick, fibrous roof over the posterior cranial fossa and cerebellum

A

tentorium cerebelli

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98
Q

sinus within the tentorium cerebelli at its attachment to the falx cerebri (midline of the tentorium cerebelli)

A

straight sinus

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99
Q

horseshoe shaped space between the free concave border of the tentorium and the dorsum sellae of the sphenoid

A

tectorial inscisure

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100
Q

sinuses running along the line of attachment of the tentorium cerebelli to the occipital bone

A

transverse sinuses

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101
Q

sinus lying lateral to the body of the sphenoid

A

cavernous sinus

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102
Q

small, circular, horizontal fold of dura mater which forms the roof of the pituitary fossa

A

diaphragma sellae

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103
Q

dura separating the lobes of the cerebellum

A

falx cerebelli

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104
Q

compartments within the subarachnoid space where the pia mater and arachnoid membrane are not in close approximation and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) forms pools

A

subarachnoid cisterns

names after their positions relative to the brain

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105
Q

midline communication between the 4th ventricle and subarachnoid space

A

foramen of magendie

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106
Q

lateral communication between the 4th ventricle and the subarachnoid space

A

foramen of luschka

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107
Q

which part of the meninges forms part of the blood brain barrier?

A

pia mater

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108
Q

function of the blood brain barrier

A

limits the ability of molecules to pass between the blood and CNS for protection

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109
Q

4 features of the blood brain barrier

A
  1. the edges of adjacent endothelial cells that line blood vessels are bonded closely together by tight junctions to prevent molecules passing between them
  2. the basement membrane of CNS blood vessels lack fenestrations
  3. contractile pericytes embedded in the basement membrane wrap around endothelial cells, regulating capillary blood flow, immunity and vascular permeability
  4. astrocyte end feet envelop CNS capillaries and restrict the flow of molecules into the CNS parenchyma
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110
Q

meningism

A

triad of headache, neck stiffness and photophobia

nausea, vomiting and fever

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111
Q

meningitis

A

inflammation of the meninges, typically caused by infection

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112
Q

which form of meningitis is serious?

A

bacterial

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113
Q

extradural haemorrhage

A

between the skull and dura mater

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114
Q

subdural haemorrhage

A

between the dura and arachnoid

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115
Q

which type of haemorrhage appears as a crescent on a CT scan?

A

subdural

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116
Q

subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

blood between the arachnoid and pia mater

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117
Q

which type of haemorrhage causes a sudden, severe headache?

A

subarachnoid

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118
Q

bleeding within the brain tissue

A

intracerebral

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119
Q

amaurosis fugax

A

temporary loss of vision to one eye
part of a carotid plaque breaks off and occludes the central retinal artery
warning of thrombus of the internal carotid artery - potential for an impending stroke

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120
Q

where do arteries and veins on the surface of the brain lie?

A

within the subarachnoid space

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121
Q

which arteries supply blood to the brain?

A

internal carotid and vertebral arteries

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122
Q

what percentage of blood do the vertebral arteries supply to the brain?

A

20%

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123
Q

what percentage of blood do the internal carotid arteries supply to the brain?

A

80%

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124
Q

which artery supplies the posterior cerebrum and posterior cranial fossa?

A

vertebral

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125
Q

which artery supplies the anterior and middle cerebrum and diencephalon?

A

internal carotid

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126
Q

what pathology commonly affects the cerebral arteries?

A

berry aneurysms

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127
Q

draw and label the circle of Willis

A

.

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128
Q

where does the internal carotid arise?

A

bifurcation of the common carotid at the level of the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

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129
Q

which bone does the internal carotid enter?

A

temporal

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130
Q

where does the internal carotid divide into its terminal branches?

A

anterior perforated substance at the medial end of the lateral sulcus

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131
Q

what are the terminal branches of the internal carotid artery?

A

anterior and middle cerebral arteries

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132
Q

which artery supplies the corpus callosum and medial aspects of the hemispheres?

A

anterior cerebral artery

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133
Q

which is the largest terminal branch of the internal carotid?

A

middle cerebral artery

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134
Q

which artery supplies the lateral surface of the hemisphere and the deep structures of the anterior part of the cerebral hemisphere?

A

middle cerebral artery

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135
Q

what connects the two anterior cerebral arteries?

A

anterior communicating artery

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136
Q

what connects the internal carotid and vertebro-basilar systems?

A

posterior communicating artery

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137
Q

which artery supplies the occipital lobe?

A

posterior cerebral artery

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138
Q

which foramen does the opthalmic artery pass through?

A

optic canal

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139
Q

which foramen do the ethmoidal artery and vein pass through?

A

ethmoidal foramen

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140
Q

which foramen does the superior ophthalmic vein pass through?

A

superior orbital fissure

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141
Q

which foramen does the middle meningeal artery pass through?

A

foramen spinosum

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142
Q

which foramen does the internal jugular vein pass through?

A

jugular foramen

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143
Q

which foramen do the vertebral arteries pass through?

A

foramen magnum

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144
Q

which foramen does the labyrinthine artery pass through?

A

internal acoustic meatus

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145
Q

is there a functional anastomosis between the anterior and posterior circulations?

A

no

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146
Q

where do the vertebral arteries arise from?

A

subclavian artery

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147
Q

where do the vertebral arteries unite, and what do they form?

A

lower border of the pons
basilar artery

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148
Q

where does the basilar artery lie?

A

anterior median fissure on the pons

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149
Q

which vessels form the posterior circulation?

A

vertebral and basilar arteries and branches
posterior cerebral artery

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150
Q

what connects the anterior and posterior circulations?

A

circle of willis

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151
Q

where are berry aneurysms most likely to form?

A

anterior communicating artery which lies in the subarachnoid space

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152
Q

types of stroke

A

ischaemic or haemorrhagic
lasts over 24h (under = TIA)
blood supply to the brain is interrupted

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153
Q

where do cerebral veins drain into?

A

dural venous sinuses

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154
Q

what are internal cerebral veins?

A

run within the substance of the brain tissue and end when they reach the surface of the brain where they become external cerebral veins

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155
Q

what are external cerebral veins?

A

run on the surface of the brain, crossing the subarachnoid space to drain into the dural venous sinuses

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156
Q

which vein drains the deep structures of the brain?

A

great cerebral vein of Galen

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157
Q

where does the great cerebral vein (of Galen) drain into?

A

straight sinus

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158
Q

draw and label the dural venous sinuses

A

.

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159
Q

where do ALL the dural venous sinuses drain into?

A

internal jugular veins

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160
Q

a deep groove in the mastoid portion of the temporal bone

A

sigmoid sinus

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161
Q

sinus beside the body of the sphenoid bone

A

cavernous sinus

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162
Q

what does the cavernous sinus contain?

A

five cranial nerves and the internal carotid artery
carotid plexus
cranial nerves
- abducens
- oculomotor nerve
- trochlear
first and second divisions of the trigeminal
3rd, 4th, first and second divisions of the 5th, 6th

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163
Q

sinus in the groove between the petrous temporal bone and the basal part of the occipital bone

A

inferior petrosal sinus

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164
Q

emissary veins

A

allow communication between inter cranial venous sinuses and the veins outside the skull

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165
Q

consequences of venous sinus thrombosis

A

cerebral oedema and raised inter cranial pressure
brain damage
headaches, epileptic seizures, focal motor deficit, deterioration in consciousness

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166
Q

what are arachnoid granulations?

A

arachnoid granulations are pockets of arachnoid membrane and subarachnoid space which connect cerebrospinal fluid to venous circulation

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167
Q

what does the brain develop from?

A

hollow neural tube

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168
Q

where is most choroid plexus found?

A

lateral ventricles

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169
Q

what is choroid plexus and what is its function?

A

a network of blood vessels in each ventricle of the brain, producing the cerebrospinal fluid

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170
Q

what connects the lateral and second ventricle?

A

inter ventricular foramen of Munroe

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171
Q

what connects the third and fourth ventricle?

A

cerebral aqueduct

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172
Q

from the fourth ventricle, which foramina does CSF then travel to?

A

median foramen of magendie
lateral foramen of luschka

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173
Q

which cells line the ventricles?

A

ependymal cells

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174
Q

what constitutes the CSF-brain barrier?

A

the ependyma

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175
Q

which blood vessels supply the deep structures of the anterior part of the cerebral hemisphere?

A

anterior perforating branches

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176
Q

name the cranial fossae

A

anterior, middle and posterior

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177
Q

in which bone is the cribriform plate?

A

ethmoid

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178
Q

in which fossa is the frontal lobe contained?

A

anterior cranial fossa

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179
Q

which bones form the anterior cranial fossa?

A

frontal bone, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone

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180
Q

what is the crista galli?

A

midline projection in the ethmoid bone

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181
Q

which wing of the sphenoid bone bounds the anterior cranial fossa posteriorly?

A

lesser

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182
Q

which lobes of the brain are contained in the middle cranial fossa?

A

temporal, parietal and occipital

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183
Q

list the cranial fossae in order from shallowest to deepest

A

anterior, middle, posterior

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184
Q

which fissure is between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid?

A

superior orbital fissure

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185
Q

in which bone is the optic canal?

A

sphenoid

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186
Q

which bones form the middle cranial fossa

A

sphenoid and two temporal bones

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187
Q

what is the sella turcica?

A

saddle-like bony formation on the upper surface of the body of sphenoid bone
houses the pituitary gland
also called the pituitary (hypophyseal) fossa

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188
Q

in which cranial fossa is the foramen rotundum?

A

middle

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189
Q

in which cranial fossa is the foramen ovale?

A

middle

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190
Q

in which cranial fossa is the foramen lacerum?

A

middle

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191
Q

in which cranial fossa is the foramen spinosum?

A

middle

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192
Q

what does the posterior cranial fossa contain?

A

cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata

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193
Q

in which cranial fossa is the foramen magnum?

A

posterior

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194
Q

in which cranial fossa is the hypoglossal canal?

A

posterior

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195
Q

in which cranial fossa is the internal acoustic meatus (internal auditory meatus)?

A

posterior

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196
Q

what are the holes in the cribriform plate called?

A

olfactory foramina

197
Q

in which cranial fossa is the jugular foramen?

A

posterior cranial fossa

198
Q

which cranial nerves pass through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI
glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory nerve

199
Q

what passes through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI
internal jugular vein

200
Q

what passes through the foramen magnum?

A

vertebral arteries
anterior and posterior spinal arteries
spinal cord

201
Q

what passes through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN VII - facial
CN VIII - vestibulocochlear

202
Q

what passes through the ethmoidal foramen?

A

CN I - olfactory

203
Q

what passes through the optic canal?

A

CN II - optic

204
Q

what passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III - oculomotor
CN IV - trochlea
CN VI - abducens
CN V(1) - trigeminal (ophthalmic branch)

205
Q

what passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

CN V(2) - trigeminal (maxillary)

206
Q

what passes through the foramen ovale?

A

CN V(3) - trigeminal (mandibular)

207
Q

what passes through the hypoglossal canal?

A

CN XII - hypoglossal

208
Q

raised intercranial pressure

A

caused by space occupying lesions (SOLs; tumour, haematoma, abscess) and idiopathic inter cranial hypertension

signs and symptoms
- headache
- nausea
- visual disturbance
- later, altered consciousness
- papilledema
- increased blind-spot on visual field testing

209
Q

identify the muscles and nerves of the orbit

A

.

210
Q

from which spinal segments and cranial nerves is parasympathetic outflow?

A

CN III - oculomotor
CN VII - facial
CN IX - glossopharyngeal
CN X - vagus
sacral spinal segments 2,3 and 4 - S2-4

211
Q

where do parasympathetic fibres in the oculomotor nerve originate from?

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain

212
Q

where is the nucleus for the oculomotor nerve?

A

midbrain
Edinger-Westphal

213
Q

which muscles does the oculomotor nerve innervate?

A

Superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae superioris, sphincter pupillae (parasympathetics), ciliary muscle (parasympathetics)

214
Q

where is sympathetic outflow from the CNS?

A

T1-L2
the sympathetic trunk

215
Q

which spinal segment provides sympathetic innervation to the orbit?

A

T1

216
Q

which extra ocular muscles are not innervated by the oculomotor nerve?

A

superior oblique and lateral rectus

217
Q

action of medial rectus

A

adducts the eye

218
Q

action of lateral rectus

A

abducts the eye

219
Q

action of superior rectus

A

elevates (primary)
intorts (secondarily)
adducts (tertiarily)

220
Q

action of inferior rectus

A

depresses (primary)
extorts (secondarily)
adducts (tertiarily)

221
Q

action of superior oblique

A

intorts (primary)
depresses (secondarily)
abducts (tertiarily)

222
Q

action of inferior oblique

A

extorts (primary)
elevates (secondarily)
abducts (tertiarily)

223
Q

what is intorsion of the eye?

A

rotating the top of the eye towards the nose

224
Q

what is extortion of the eye?

A

rotating the top of the eye away from the nose

225
Q

what is adduction of the eye?

A

moving the eye inwards

226
Q

what is abduction of the eye?

A

moving the eye outwards

227
Q

mnemonic to remember the actions of superior and inferior muscles of the eye

A

RAD SIN
rectus adducts (therefore oblique abducts)
superior intorts (inferior extorts)

228
Q

mnemonic to explain the innervation of the extra ocular muscles

A

LR6 SO4
lateral rectus is innervated by abducens (CN VI)
superior oblique is innervated by trochlear (CN IV)
all other extraocular muscles are innervated by oculomotor

229
Q

jugular foramen syndrome

A

compression of multiple lower cranial nerves
glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory

symptoms
- dysphonia
- loss of gag reflex
- unilateral wasting of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

230
Q

foramen magnum syndrome

A

compression of spinal cord, lower brain stem or part of cerebellum
symptoms
- pain in head, neck, limbs, trunk made worse by straining
cerebellar symptoms: vertigo, gait disturbance
decerebrate posture
cardiorespiratory failure
pyramidal signs
death

231
Q

Arnold-Chiari malformation

A

congenital
displacement of the cerebellar tonsils down through the foramen magnum
sometimes blocks CSF flow causing hydrocephalus
symptoms
- headaches
- fatigue
- muscle weakness in the head and face
- impaired coordination

232
Q

label the ear

A

.

233
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

benign tumour of myelin sheath of the vestibulocochlear nerve

234
Q

components of the brainstem

A

midbrain
pons
medulla oblongata

235
Q

what is the bulbopontine sulcus?

A

transverse groove at the caudal border of the pons

236
Q

what is the basilar sulcus?

A

shallow sulcus on the ventral aspect of the pons in which the basilar artery runs

237
Q

function of the cerebellar peduncles

A

connect the cerebellum to the different parts of the brainstem

238
Q

function of the superior cerebellar peduncles

A

connect the cerebellum and midbrain

239
Q

function of the middle cerebellar peduncles

A

connect the cerebellum to the pons

240
Q

function of the inferior cerebellar peduncles?

A

connect the cerebellum to the medulla

241
Q

what is the anterior median fissure?

A

division of the medulla in the ventral midline

242
Q

what are medullary pyramids?

A

elongated eminences marking the position of underlying fibres passing from the cerebral hemisphere to the cord

243
Q

what are the types of pyramidal tracts?

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar

244
Q

where do the pyramidal tracts originate?

A

cerebral cortex

245
Q

where do corticospinal tracts travel between?

A

cerebral cortex and spinal cord

246
Q

where do corticospinal tracts terminate?

A

spinal cord

247
Q

where do the corticobulbar tracts travel between?

A

cerebral cortex and (cranial nerve nuclei in the) brainstem

248
Q

what are pyramidal tracts responsible for?

A

motor functions

249
Q

what is the decussation of the pyramids?

A

point at the junction of the medulla and spinal cord where the motor fibers from the medullary pyramids cross the midline

250
Q

what percentage of corticospinal tracts decussate?

A

80%

251
Q

what percentage of corticobulbar tracts decussate?

A

50%

252
Q

where is the ventrolateral sulcus?

A

lateral border of the pyramid on each side

253
Q

where are the olives, and what are they?

A

lateral to the ventrolateral sulcus of the medulla
caused by the presence of the underlying olivary nucleus
involves with the control of movement

254
Q

what are the corpora quadrigemina?

A

superior and inferior colliculi

255
Q

function of the superior colliculi

A

visual reflexes
part of the visual system

256
Q

function of the inferior colliculi

A

reflex of looking towards a loud noise
part of the auditory system

257
Q

function of the pineal gland

A

endocrine gland that synthesises melatonin, which modulates sleep patterns

258
Q

what is the inferior brachium?

A

conveys auditory information from the medial geniculate body (nucleus) to the inferior colliculi

259
Q

what is the superior brachium?

A

conveys visual information from the lateral geniculate body (nucleus) to the superior colliculi

260
Q

can the tectum be seen on the dorsal or ventral aspect of the midbrain?

A

dorsal

261
Q

can the pineal gland be seen from the dorsal or ventral aspect of the midbrain?

A

dorsal

262
Q

what is the rhomboid fossa?

A

floor of the 4th ventricle

263
Q

which part of the brain can the floor of the 4th ventricle be seen?

A

dorsal aspect of the pons

264
Q

which nuclei are found in the pontine tegmentum?

A

abducens
facial
motor division of trigeminal
5th, 6th and 7th

265
Q

where does the tegmentum extend from?

A

substantia nigra to cerebral aqueduct

266
Q

what marks the midline of the medulla?

A

posterior median sulcus

267
Q

what are the gracile tubercles?

A

round swellings either side of the midline which overlie the gracile fasciculus

268
Q

what is the gracile fasciculus?

A

carries fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination and proprioception from the lower limb

269
Q

what are the cuneate tubercles?

A

swellings lateral to the gracile tubercles which overlie the cuneate fasciculus

270
Q

what is the cuneate fasciculus?

A

carries fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination and proprioception from the upper limb

271
Q

which nuclei are found in the medullary tegmentum?

A

glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, hypoglossal
9th, 10th, 11th and 12th

272
Q

what are the nuclei underlying the gracile and cuneate tubercles also called?

A

dorsal column nuclei

273
Q

what are the dorsal column nuclei?

A

major relay site for the dorsal column sensory pathway
i.e DCMLS - dorsal column medial leminscal system

274
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

acute unilateral inflammation of the facial nerve - lower motor neuron
if caused by herpes zoster, a vesticular rash is present in the external auditory canal and on the oropharynx
signs and symptoms
- pain behind ear
- paralysis of the facial muscles and failure to close eye
- absent corneal reflex
- hyperacusis
- loss of taste on anterior two-thirds of tongue

275
Q

Bulbar Palsy

A

impairment of the functions of the cranial nerves that arise from the medulla
- glossopharyngeal
- vagus
- spinal and cranial accessory
- hypoglossal
9-12
symptoms
- dysphagia
- absent gag reflex

caused by MND

276
Q

pseudo bulbar palsy

A

similar symptoms to bulbar palsy but the lesion is in the upper motor neurons e.g stroke or MS

277
Q

central pontine myelinolysis

A

destruction of myelin in the pons
occurs when low sodium levels are corrrected too quickly

278
Q

MALES mnemonic

A

medial geniculate body - auditory
lateral geniculate body - eyes (so visual) superior colliculus

279
Q

which is the only cranial nerve to emerge from the dorsal aspect of the brain?

A

trochlear

280
Q

which two cranial nerves emerge from the cerebrum?

A

CN I and CN II

281
Q

which cranial nerve emerges from the midbrain?

A

trochlear

282
Q

which cranial nerves emerge from the midbrain-pontine junction?

A

oculomotor

283
Q

which cranial nerve emerges from the pons?

A

trigeminal

284
Q

which cranial nerves emerges from the pontine-medulla junction?

A

abducens, facial, vestibulocochlear

285
Q

which cranial nerves emerge from the medulla?

A

posterior to the olive: glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory
anterior to the olive: hypoglossal

286
Q

mnemonic to remember cranial nerves

A

oh, oh, oh, to touch and feel very good velvet ah heaven

287
Q

mnemonic to remember component fibres of the cranial nerves

A

some say money matter but my brother says big brains matter more
s = sensory
m = motor
b = both

288
Q

which cranial nerves are parasympathetic?

A

1973
10th, 9th, 7th, 3rd
vagus, glossopharyngeal, facial, oculomotor

289
Q

what does the olfactory nerve innervate?

A

olfactory epithelium

290
Q

what does the optic nerve innervate?

A

retina

291
Q

what does the oculomotor nerve innervate?

A

extraocular muscles excluding lateral rectus and superior oblique
- superior rectus
- inferior rectus
- medial rectus
- inferior oblique
- levator palpebrae superioris

sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscle of the eye

292
Q

function of levator palpebrae superioris

A

elevate upper eyelid

293
Q

how can we remember which extraocular muscles are not innervated by oculomotor?

A

LR6 SO4
lateral rectus = 6th cranial nerve
superior oblique = 4th cranial nerve

294
Q

what does the trochlear nerve innervate?

A

superior oblique

295
Q

what does the sensory component of the trigeminal innervate?

A

face, scalp, cornea, nasal and oral cavities

296
Q

what does the motor component of the trigeminal innervate?

A

muscles of mastication, tensor tympani

297
Q

name the divisions of the trigeminal in order

A

ophthalmic (V1)
maxillary (V2)
mandibular (V3)

oh max man

298
Q

which division of the trigeminal is the only one to receive motor fibres?

A

mandibular

299
Q

what does abducens innervate?

A

lateral rectus

300
Q

what does the facial nerve innervate?
sensory, motor and parasympathetic

A

sensory
- anterior 2/3 of tongue

motor
- muscles of facial expression

parasympathetic
- salivary and lacrimal glands via submandibular and pterygopalatine gland

301
Q

what does the vestibulocochlear innervate?

A

vestibular apparatus
cochlear

302
Q

what does the glossopharyngeal innervate?
sensory, motor and parasympathetic

A

sensory
- posterior third of tongue
- pharynx
- Eustachian tube
- middle ear

motor
- stylopharyngeus muscle

parasympathetic
- parotid salivary gland

303
Q

sensory innervation of the vagus

A

pharynx, larynx, trachea, oesophagus, external ear
thoracic and abdominal viscera, aortic bodies, aortic arch

304
Q

motor innervation of the vagus

A

soft palate, pharynx, larynx, upper oesophagus

305
Q

parasympathetic innervation of the vagus

A

thoracic and abdominal viscera

306
Q

what does the accessory nerve innervate?

A

sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscle

307
Q

what does the hypoglossal nerve innervate?

A

intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue

308
Q

function of the olfactory nerve

A

olfaction

309
Q

function of the optic nerve

A

vision, pupillary light reflex

310
Q

function of the oculomotor nerve

A

movement of the eyeball
elevation of the upper eyelid
pupillary constriction and accommodation

311
Q

function of the trochlear

A

intorts the eye

312
Q

function of the trigeminal nerve

A

general sensation of the face, scalp, cornea, nasal and oral cavities
opening and closing the mouth

313
Q

function of abducens

A

ABducts the eye
ABducens ABducts

314
Q

function of the facial nerve

A

taste, facial movement, salivation and lacrimation

315
Q

function of the vestibulocochlear nerve

A

vestibular sensation
(position/ movement of head) hearing

316
Q

function of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

general sensation to the pharynx, posterior third of tongue, Eustacian tube, middle ear
swallowing
salivation

317
Q

function of the vagus nerve

A

general sensation
visceral sensation
chemoreception
baroreceptors
speech
swallowing
innervation of cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands of CVS system, respiratory and GI tracts

318
Q

function of the accessory nerve

A

movement of head and shoulder

319
Q

function of hypoglossal

A

movement of tongue

320
Q

which are the only two cranial nerves to pass through canals?

A

cranial nerves with a 2 in them
2nd and 12th
optic nerve and hypoglossal nerve
pass through a canal of the same name

321
Q

what passes through the cribriform plate?

A

olfactory nerve

322
Q

which nerve passes through the optic canal?

A

optic nerve

323
Q

which nerves pass though the superior orbital fissure?

A

3rd, 4th, first division of the 5th, 6th
oculomotor
trochlear
ophthalmic division of the trigeminal
abducens
these are all intuitive since they act on the eye

324
Q

in which bone is the superior orbital fissure?

A

sphenoid

325
Q

which nerve passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

second division of the 5th (maxillary division of the trigeminal)
CNV2

326
Q

which nerve passes through the foramen ovale?

A

third division of the 5th (mandibular division of the trigeminal)
CNV3

327
Q

which nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

facial
vestibulocochlear

328
Q

which nerve passes through the jugular foramen?

A

9th, 10th and 11th
glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory

329
Q

which nerve passes through the hypoglossal canal?

A

hypoglossal

330
Q

what do the fibres from the nasal portion of the retina provide information about?

A

temporal visual field

331
Q

do fibres from the nasal or temporal retina cross?

A

nasal

332
Q

where do fibres from the nasal retina cross?

A

optic chiasma/ optic chiasm

333
Q

what do the optic nerves become after the optic chiasma?

A

optic tracts

334
Q

where do the optic tracts terminate?

A

lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus
but some continue medially to the midbrain (pretectal nucleus and superior colliculus) where they synapse to form the afferent limb of the visual reflexes

335
Q

where do axons of the nerve cells from the lateral geniculate pathways pass?

A

posteriorly through the internal capsule to the visual cortex of the occipital lobe

336
Q

what does the inferior portion of the retina supply information about?

A

superior visual field

337
Q

which lobes do the fibres carrying information from the inferior portions of the retina (superior visual field) to the visual cortex pass through?

A

temporal lobe

338
Q

which lobes do the fibres carrying information from the superior portions of the retina (inferior visual fields) pass through on the way to the visual cortex?

A

parietal lobe

339
Q

what can a pituitary tumour cause and why?

A

bitemporal hemianopia
impaired vision in the outer temporal halves of the visual field of each eye
due to pressing on the optic chiasma

340
Q

what are Meyer’s loops?

A

optic tracts from the lower retina (superior visual field) passing through the temporal lobes to travel to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe

341
Q

what will damage to the Meyer’s loops cause?

A

upper quadrantinopia

342
Q

what will damage to the neurons travelling from the lateral geniculate body to the occipital lobe via the parietal lobe cause?

A

lower quadrantinopia

343
Q

what does a lesion of the optic tract after the optic chiasm cause?

A

homonymous hemianopia
vision loss on the same side of the visual field in both eyes

344
Q

which cranial nerves pass through the cavernous sinus?

A

CN III, CN IV, CNV1, CNV2, CN VI

345
Q

what ridges does the cerebellum have on the surface?

A

folia

346
Q

function of the cerebellum

A

coordination of movement and balance

347
Q

what joins the cerebellar hemispheres?

A

vermis

348
Q

where is grey matter located in the brain?

A

outside

349
Q

where is grey matter located in the spinal cord?

A

inside

350
Q

cerebellar cortex

A

outer layer of grey matter

351
Q

what shape do the cerebellar peduncles form?

A

clef
or bottom of golf stick

352
Q

what is the red nucleus and where is it found?

A

circular mass of grey matter ventro-lateral to the cerebral aqueduct in the midbrain

353
Q

what is the substantia nigra and where is it found?

A

black band of nerve cells overlying the crus cerebri
ventrolateral to the red nucleus on each side in the midbrain

354
Q

which fissures does the cerebellum have?

A

horizontal and primary fissures

355
Q

which lobes does the cerebellum have?

A

anterior and posterior

356
Q

what divides the cerebellum into its respective lobes?

A

primary fissure

357
Q

prominent rounded swellings on the cerebellar cortex anteriorly on either side of the vermis

A

tonsils

358
Q

ovoid swelling lying immediately posterior to the lateral foramen of the 4th ventricle on each side

A

flocculus

359
Q

what is continuous with the flocculus via a peduncle of white matter?

A

nodule

360
Q

what is the flocculo-nodular lobe and its function?

A

flocculus and nodule together, primarily concerned with vestibular information

361
Q

what connects the cerebellum to the medulla?

A

inferior cerebellar peduncle

362
Q

what connects the cerebellum to the pons?

A

middle cerebellar peduncle

363
Q

hat connects the cerebellum to the midbrain?

A

superior cerebellar peduncle

364
Q

which is the largest and most lateral of the deep cerebellar nuclei?

A

dentate nucleus

365
Q

where is the dentate nucleus?

A

in the cerebellar peduncles

366
Q

which part of the brainstem is at the same level as the cerebellum?

A

pons

367
Q

what limits the rhomboid fossa laterally?

A

cerebellar peduncles

368
Q

what limits the rhomboid fossa posteriorly?

A

gracile and cuneate tubercles

369
Q

what is the gracile fasciculus?

A

medial dorsal columns carrying touch, vibration, two-point discrimination and proprioception from the lower limb
a bundle of nerve fibres

370
Q

what is the cuneate fasciculus?

A

lateral dorsal colums carrying touch, vibration, two-point discrimination and proprioception from the upper limb
a bundle of nerve fibres

371
Q

medan sulcus

A

divides the rhomboid fossa into triangular left and right halves

372
Q

area postrema
where and function

A

small tongue shaped area immediately rostro-lateral to the obex
nausea control

373
Q

label the brainstem and floor of the 4th ventricle

A

rhomboid fossa
gracile tubercles
cuneate tubercles
median sulcus
median sulcus
facial colliculus
medullary striae
locus coeruleus
hypoglossal trigone
vagal trigone
vestibular trigone
obex
area postrema

374
Q

what is the facial colliculus?

A

rounded swelling caused by the fibres of the facial nerve in the substance of the pons curving around the nucleus of the abducens nerve at the level of the superior fovea

375
Q

what is the hypoglossal trigone

A

medial triangular area overlying the hypoglossal nerve nucleus

376
Q

what is the vagal trigone?

A

intermediate triangular area overlying the vagus nerve nucleus

377
Q

what is the vestibular trigone?

A

lateral triangular area overlying the vestibulocochlear nerve nucleus

378
Q

what is the obex?

A

inferior apex of the rhomboid fossa

379
Q

what is the paracentral lobule, and what does it represent?

A

U shaped gyrus surrounding the medial extension of the central sulcus which contains the representations of the lower limb within the primary motor and somatic sensory areas of the cortex, which on the lateral surface, occupy the pre-central and post-central gyri respectively

380
Q

what is the cingulate gyrus?

A

gyrus wrapping around the corpus callosum

381
Q

what is the cingulate sulcus?

A

separates the cingulate gyrus from the rest of the hemisphere

382
Q

on which aspect of the hemisphere can the parieto-occipital sulcus mainly be seen?

A

medial
forms a Y shaped arrangement with the calcarine sulcus

383
Q

the primary visual cortex lies in the walls of which sulcus?

A

calcarine

384
Q

is the grey matter thicker in the primary motor or primary somatosensory cortex?

A

thicker in the primary motor cortex

385
Q

in the homunculus, are the legs and feet represented medially or laterally?

A

medially

386
Q

in the homunculus, is the face represented medially or laterally?

A

laterally

387
Q

largest fibre bundle connecting the halves of the brain

A

corpus callosum

388
Q

name the parts of the corpus callosum, first to last

A

rostrum, genu, body, isthmus, splenium

389
Q

what and where is the fornix

A

bundle of white matter beneath the body of the corpus callosum

390
Q

function of the fornix

A

connect the hippocampus to various subcortical structures

391
Q

what is the anterior commisure?

A

thick bundle of white matter crossing the midline horizontally
connects the temporal lobes and olfactory structures of each side

392
Q

which pathways is the anterior commisure involved in?

A

olfactory

393
Q

where is the septum pellucidum?

A

between the corpus callosum and the fornix

394
Q

where is the anterior commisure in a cross section?

A

sort of continuous with the rostrum of the corpus callosum

395
Q

where is the lamina terminalis?

A

extends downwards from the rostrum of the callosum and fornix to the anterior wall of the 3rd ventricle

396
Q

what is the dorsal part of the diencephalon?

A

thalamus

397
Q

what is the ventral part of the diencephalon?

A

hypothalamus
intuitive - ‘hypo’ = under

398
Q

function of the thalamus

A

major subcortical relay for information ascending to the cerebral cortex

399
Q

where and what is the interthalamic adhesion?

A

flattened grey disc joining the thalami of each side behind the interventricular foramen

400
Q

what divides the diencephalon into dorsal and ventral parts, and where is it?

A

hypothalamic sulcus
lateral wall of the third ventricle

401
Q

function of the medial geniculate nucleus/ body

A

relays auditory information from the midbrain to the auditory cortex and passes some fibres via the inferior brachium to the inferior colliculi

402
Q

function of the lateral geniculate nucleus/ body

A

relays visual information from the optic nerve to both the visual cortex via the optic radiation (for vision) and the superior colliculi via the superior brachium (for pupillary reflexes)

403
Q

function of the lateral geniculate nucleus/ body

A

relays visual information from the optic nerve to both the visual cortex via the optic radiation (for vision) and the superior colliculi via the superior brachium (for pupillary reflexes)

404
Q

which brachium and geniculate body are the superior colliculi related to?

A

superior brachium
lateral geniculate body

405
Q

which brachium and geniculate body are the inferior colliculi related to?

A

inferior brachium
medial geniculate body

406
Q

function of the hypothalamus

A

homeostasis
autonomic nervous and neuroendocrine systems control

407
Q

ventral part of the diencephalon below the thalamus and lateral to the hypothalamus, merging posteriorly with the tegmentum

A

sub thalamus

408
Q

what part of the diencephalon is the preoptic area, on functional grounds?

A

hypothalamus

409
Q

association fibres

A

link cortical regions within one cerebral hemisphere

410
Q

commissural fibres

A

link similar functional areas of the two hemispheres

411
Q

projection fibres?

A

link the cortex with subcortical structures

412
Q

give examples of subcortical structures

A

diencephalon, pituitary gland, limbic structures and the basal ganglia

413
Q

is the diencephalon above or below the midbrain?

A

above

414
Q

what type of fibre is the corpus callosum?

A

commissural

415
Q

what type of fibre is the internal capsule and corona radiata?

A

projection

416
Q

functions of the left hemisphere

A

verbal
linguistic description
mathematical
sequential
analytical
direct link to consciousness

417
Q

functions of the right hemisphere

A

almost nonverbal
musical
geometriical
spatial comprehension
temporal synthesis
link to consciousness?

418
Q

function of the limbic system

A

projects meaning on the external world
essential for adaptive behaviour, emotional responsiveness and the ability to learn new responses based on previous experiences

419
Q

what system is related to the limbic system?

A

olfactory

420
Q

why is the limbic system named so?

A

the main parts are located on the edge or ‘limbus’ of the hemisphere

421
Q

how are the parts of the limbic system connected?

A

the Papez circuit

422
Q

list the parts of the limbic system

A

cingulate gyrus, hippocampal formation, parahippocampal gyrus, anterior perforated substance, septal nuclei, uncus, amygdala
also the parts of the diencephalon
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- epithalamus
- subthalamus

423
Q

what lies immediately dorsal and parallel to the corpus callosum?

A

cingulate gyrus

424
Q

what is the parahippocampal gyrus continuous with?

A

cingulate gyrus

425
Q

what lobe is the parahippocampal gyrus in?

A

temporal

426
Q

what is the uncus

A

hook shaped region of cortex at the anterior end of the temporal lobe

427
Q

role of the uncus

A

olfaction, emotions and memory

428
Q

what is the longest association fibre bundle?

A

superior longitudinal fasciculus

429
Q

what is the corona radiata continuous with below?

A

internal capsule

430
Q

in which lobe is the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle?

A

frontal

431
Q

what forms the roof and anterior wall of the lateral ventricle?

A

body and genu of the corpus callosum

432
Q

what forms a bulge in the infero-lateral aspect of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle?

A

caudate nucleus

433
Q

what forms the medial wall of the lateral ventricle?

A

fornix and septum

434
Q

action of superior oblique

A

moves the eye down and out

435
Q

what is the stria terminalis?

A

slender bundle of white fibres accompanying the curve of the caudate into the temporal horn of the ventricle and connecting the amygdala with the septum and hypothalamus

436
Q

which lobes do the lateral ventricles project into?

A

frontal, temporal, and occipital lobes

437
Q

which horns does the lateral ventricle have?

A

anterior, inferior and posterior

438
Q

in which lobe is the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle?

A

temporal

439
Q

where is the amygdaloid body?

A

tip of the inferior horn
temporal lobe

440
Q

in which lobe is the hippocampus?

A

temporal

441
Q

efferent fibres from the hippocampus heading to the fornix

A

fimbria

442
Q

in which lobe is the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle?

A

occipital

443
Q

hydrocephalus

A

blockage of CSF flow in ventricles e.g tumours or subarachnoid space leads to rise in fluid pressure causing the ventricles to swell
relieved by inserting a shunt connecting the ventricular system to the peritoneum or jugular vein
symptoms
- raised intercranial pressure
- headache
- unsteadiness
- mental impairment

444
Q

what forms the striatum?

A

caudate nucleus and putamen

445
Q

what forms the lentiform nucleus?

A

putamen and globus pallidus

446
Q

what is the claustrum?

A

part of basal ganglia
subcortical nucleus derived from the telencephalon
receives from and projects to the cerebral cortex in a topographically organised manner
contains cells that respond to visual, auditory and sensory stimuli

447
Q

what is the extreme capsule?

A

white matter connecting the claustrum and insular cortex

448
Q

what is between the extreme capsule and external capsule?

A

claustrum

449
Q

what is between the insular cortex and claustrum?

A

extreme capsule

450
Q

what does the corona radiata continue as inferiorly?

A

internal capsule

451
Q

what separates the putamen and globus pallidus?

A

lateral medullary lamina

452
Q

what separates the lateral and medial parts of the globus pallidus?

A

medial medullary lamina

453
Q

what carries all the motor and sensory fibres from and to the cortex?

A

internal capsule

454
Q

name the parts of the corpus callosum from anterior to posterior?

A

rostrum, genu, body, isthmus, splenium
really good bodies in Spain

455
Q

what is the caudate nucleus?

A

paired, “C”-shaped subcortical structure which lies deep inside the brain near the thalamus

456
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

degenration of dopaminergic neurones of the Substantia nigra
depletion of striatal dopamine levels
symptoms
- pill rolling tremor at rest
- cog-wheel rigidity
- bradykinesia

457
Q

neurology of Huntington’s

A

degeneration of the corpus striatum and cerebral cortex

458
Q

ow many cervical vertebrae?

A

7

459
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae?

A

12

460
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae?

A

5

461
Q

how many vertebrae fuse to form the sacrum?

A

5

462
Q

how many coccygeal vertebrae fuse to form the coccyx?

A

4

463
Q

what joins the spine and the pelvis?

A

sacroiliac joints

464
Q

label a vertebrae

A

.

465
Q

uppermost palpable spinous process

A

C7

466
Q

higest point of iliac crest

A

between L3 and L4

467
Q

movements of the vertbral column

A

forward flexion (40 degrees)
extension (15 degrees )
lateral flexion (30 degrees)
rotation (40)

468
Q

where is rotation maximum?

A

thoracic region

469
Q

where is rotation limited?

A

lumbar

470
Q

re are flexion and extension limited?

A

thoracic due to ribcage

471
Q

layers of intervertebral discs

A

nucleus pulposus surrounded by annulus fibrosis

472
Q

sciatic nerve

A

L5

473
Q

space between dura mater and vertebrae

A

epidural space

474
Q

how many spinal nerve pairs?

A

31

475
Q

many spinal cord segments?

A

31

476
Q

how many cervical spinal segments?

A

8
not 7 as you might think

477
Q

how many thoracic spinal cord segemtns

A

12

478
Q

how many lumbar spinal cord segemtns?

A

5

479
Q

how many sacral spinal cord segments?

A

5

480
Q

how many coccygeal spinal cord segments?

A

1

481
Q

where do spinal nerves exit the spinal canal?

A

intervertebral foramen

482
Q

lumbar and sacral nerve roots below the termination of the cord

A

cauda equina

483
Q

which joints are between vertebrae?

A

plane synovial

484
Q

where does the spinal cord end?

A

between L1 and L2

485
Q

bel the main spinal cord tracts

A

.

486
Q

is the ventral root motor or sensory?

A

motor

487
Q

is the dorsal root motor or sensory?

A

sensory

488
Q

function of the ligamentum flavun

A

connect the ventral parts of the laminae of adjacent vertebrae