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Phase 1 flashcards > IMMS anatomy > Flashcards

IMMS anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what is the torso/ trunk?

A

main central part of the body including the thorax, abdomen and pelvis
not including the neck, head, upper or lower limb

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2
Q

what is the thorax?

A

upper part of the torso from the bottom of the neck to the diaphragm

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3
Q

what is the abdomen?

A

central part of the torso between the diaphragm and top of the pelvic bones

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4
Q

what is the pelvis?

A

lowest part of the torso, between the abdomen and start of the lower limbs

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5
Q

what is the back?

A

entire posterior surface of the torso

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6
Q

what is the arm?

A

upper part of the upper limb
torso to elbow

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7
Q

what is the forearm?

A

middle part of the upper limb
elbow to wrist

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8
Q

what is the thigh?

A

upper part of the lower limb
pelvis to knee

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9
Q

what is the leg?

A

middle part of the lower limb

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10
Q

anatomical word for above

A

superior

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11
Q

anatomical word for below

A

inferior

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12
Q

anatomical words for ‘in front of’

A

anterior/ ventral

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13
Q

anatomical word for behind

A

posterior/ dorsal

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14
Q

anatomical word for ‘closer to the centre line’

A

medial

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15
Q

anatomical word for ‘further away from the centre line’

A

lateral

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16
Q

anatomical word for ‘closer to the origin’

A

proximal

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17
Q

anatomical word for ‘further away from the origin’

A

distal

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18
Q

anatomical word for ‘the same side of the body’

A

ipsilateral

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19
Q

anatomical word for ‘the opposite side of the body’

A

contralateral

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20
Q

anatomical word for ‘further away from the surface’

A

deep

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21
Q

anatomical word for ‘closer to the surface’

A

superficial

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22
Q

supine position

A

lying down facing upwards

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23
Q

prone position

A

lying down, on front, facing face down

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24
Q

anatomical word for ‘towards the head’

A

cranial

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25
Q

anatomical word for ‘towards the tail’

A

caudal

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26
Q

anatomical word for ‘towards the face’

A

rostral

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27
Q

coronal/ frontal plane

A

face on
cuts a structure into an anterior and posterior part

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28
Q

saggital plane

A

side on
a midline sagittal incision cuts a structure into a left and right side

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29
Q

parasagittal

A

cut in the sagittal plane but parallel to the midline

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30
Q

axial/ transverse/ horizontal plane

A

end on
cuts a structure into a superior and inferior part

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31
Q

axial skeleton

A

central or core parts
skull, vertebral column, ribs, sternum

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32
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

the bones of the limbs
including scapulae, clavicles and pelvic girdle

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33
Q

name the three histological types of joints

A

synovial, fibrous, cartilaginous

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34
Q

which histological type of joint is the most common?

A

synovial

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35
Q

describe a synovial joint

A

narrow synovial cavity separates the articular surfaces of the bones
cavity contains lubricating synovial fluid, which is enclosed in a joint capsule

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36
Q

layers of the joint capsule of synovial joints

A

outer fibrous capsule
inner synovial membrane

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37
Q

what covers the articular surface of synovial joints

A

hyaline cartilage

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38
Q

do synovial joints allow a small or great deal of movement?

A

great

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39
Q

give an example of a synovial joint

A

shoulder, knee, wrist

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40
Q

describe the structure of a fibrous joint

A

connects two bones with strong fibrous tissue
no cavity and no fluid
little if any movement

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41
Q

what joint is between the skull bones?

A

fibrous

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42
Q

describe primary cartilaginous joints

A

bones connected by hyaline cartilage, which allows some flexibility

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43
Q

describe secondary cartilaginous joints

A

bones connected by fibrocartilage
layer of hyaline cartilage covers articular surfaces of the bones
flexible but strong
can support a lot of weight
symphyses

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44
Q

give an example of a primary cartilaginous joint

A

where the ribs meet the sternum

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45
Q

give an example of a secondary cartilaginous joint

A

intervertebral discs

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46
Q

name the six biomechanical types of synovial joints

A

ball and socket
hinge
plane
pivot
saddle
condyloid

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47
Q

describe the movement of a ball and socket joint

A

mobile joints
significant range of movement in all directions, including rotation

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48
Q

describe the movement at a hinge joint

A

significant range of movement, but only in one plane

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49
Q

describe the movement at a pivot joint, using an example

A

top of the spine
first and second vertebrae articulate
the first vertebrae (CI, the atlas) at the base of the skull, plots around the peg of the second vertebrae (C2, the axis)
allows rotational movement only

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50
Q

describe a saddle joint

A

shaped like a rider sitting in a saddle
permit movement in two planes

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51
Q

describe a condyloid joint

A

like a ball and socket joint, but the joint surfaces are oval shaped
good range of movement but only in two planes

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52
Q

describe a plane joint

A

articular surfaces are almost flat and glide against each other
limited range of movement dictated by the neighbouring bones and surrounding ligaments

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53
Q

what type of joint is the hip?

A

ball and socket

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54
Q

what type of joint is the elbow?

A

hinge

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55
Q

what type of joint is where the first and second vertebrae articulate?

A

pivot

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56
Q

what type of joint is the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb?

A

saddle

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57
Q

what type of joint are the metacarpophalangeal joints?

A

condyloid

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58
Q

what type of joint is the acromioclavicular joint?

A

plane

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59
Q

what is a ligament?

A

band of fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone

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60
Q

function of ligaments

A

stabilise joints and limit their movement

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61
Q

what is the mechanism behind double-jointedness?

A

hyper mobility caused by extremely stretchy ligaments

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62
Q

what is a sprain?

A

a ligament is overstretched and injured

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63
Q

what causes recurrent dislocation of a joint?

A

ligaments are stretched to the extent that they become permanently lax

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64
Q

what is flexion?

A

bending
decreasing the angle between the two parts

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65
Q

what is extension?

A

straightening
increasing the angle between the two parts

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66
Q

what is lateral flexion?

A

bending sideways
unique to the vertebral column

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67
Q

what is abduction?

A

movement away from the midline

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68
Q

what is adduction?

A

movement towards the midline

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69
Q

what is internal (medial) rotation?

A

rotating towards the midline (around an axis)

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70
Q

what is external (lateral) rotation?

A

rotating away from the midline (around an axis)

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71
Q

what is pronation?

A

unique to the forearm
internal rotation of the radius so the palm faces posteriorly
e.g our forearm and hand are prone when we type using a keyboard

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72
Q

what is supination?

A

unique to the forearm
external rotation of the radius, so the palm faces anteriorly
e.g the anatomical position

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73
Q

what is opposition?

A

unique to the thumb and little finger
flexion and rotation of the thumb or little finger to that each one can reach the other

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74
Q

what is circumduction?

A

combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction such that the appendage traces a circular or conical pattern

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75
Q

what is dorsiflexion?

A

unique to the ankle
the foot and toes move superiorly towards the shin (pointing the foot and toes up)

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76
Q

what is plantarflexion?

A

unique to the ankle
the foot and toes move inferiorly
(pointing the foot and toes down)

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77
Q

what is inversion?

A

unique to the foot and ankle
medial flexion so that the sole of the foot faces medially

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78
Q

what is eversion?

A

unique to the foot and ankle
lateral flexion so that the sole of the foot faces laterally

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79
Q

what is protraction?

A

unique to the scapula and mandible
movement of the scapula or mandible anteriorly
e.g moving the upper limb out in front of us to push open a door

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80
Q

what is retraction?

A

unique to the scapula and mandible
moving the scapula or mandible posteriorly
e.g squaring the shoulder

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81
Q

what is elevation?

A

unique to the scapula and mandible
moving the scapula or mandible superiorly
e.g shrugging, closing the mouth

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82
Q

what is depression?

A

unique to the scapula and mandible
moving the scapula or mandible inferiorly
e.g opening the mouth, returning the shoulders after elevation

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83
Q

function of skeletal muscle

A

provide support for the body
move joints and some soft tissues e.g eyeball and tongue

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84
Q

which types of muscle are striated?

A

skeletal and cardiac

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85
Q

where is smooth muscle found?

A

walls of blood vessels and internal organs such as the intestine

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86
Q

which type of muscle is not striated

A

smooth

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87
Q

how is smooth muscle controlled?

A

ANS

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88
Q

how is cardiac muscle controlled?

A

electrical impulses spontaneously generated by specialised cells within the heart
ANS influences these cells and can speed up or slow down the heart rate

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89
Q

function of tendons

A

strong connective tissues attaching skeletal muscles to bone or soft tissues

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90
Q

what is the muscle between tendons called?

A

belly

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91
Q

forms tendons can take

A

rounded like a cord
thin, flat sheets called aponeuroses e.g in the scalp and abdominal wall

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92
Q

term for the bone that does not move when a muscle contracts

A

origin

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93
Q

term for a bone that does move when a muscle contracts

A

insertion

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94
Q

main orientations of skeletal muscle fibres

A

parallel, convergent, circular, pennate

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95
Q

describe the orientation of fibres in parallel muscles

A

fibres aligned parallel to each other

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96
Q

subtypes of parallel muscles

A

fusiform - long tendon at each end and the muscle belly bulges out in the middle e.g biceps brachii
strap - belt-shaped and uniform in width at the belly
e.g rectus abdominis

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97
Q

describe the orientation of fibres in convergent muscles

A

fan-shaped muscles
broad attachment at one end
fibres converge onto a much smaller attachment at the other
e.g pec major

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98
Q

describe the orientation of fibres in circular muscles

A

fibres arranged in concentric rings around a structure and are often called sphincters
e.g muscles around the eyes and lips

99
Q

describe the orientation of fibres in pennate muscles

A

fibres arranged at an angle to the direction in which the muscle acts

100
Q

subtypes of pennate muscles

A

unipennate - fibres arranged diagonally in relation to the tendon and insert onto one side of the tendon only
bipennate - fibres arranged in a V-shape and insert onto both sides of the tendon
multipennate - multiple bipennate muscles side-by-side, all attaching to one tendon

101
Q

what is the smallest functional unit of the nervous system?

A

motor unit

102
Q

what is a motor unit?

A

comprises a single motor neurone, its axon and the muscle fibres it supplies

103
Q

can a muscle fibre be supplied by multiple motor neurone?

A

no
each individual muscle fiber in a muscle is innervated by one, and only one, motor neurone

104
Q

can a motor neurons supply multiple muscle fibres?

A

yes
a single motor neurone can innervate many muscle fibres

105
Q

what is the upper limb adapted for?

A

dexterity

106
Q

what is the lower limb adapted for?

A

bipedal locomotion and supporting the weight of the body

107
Q

adaptations of the upper limb

A

shallow socket and relatively lax ligaments which allow a significant range of motion for positioning the hand
fingers are long and perform complex movements

108
Q

adaptations of the lower limb

A

deep socket and strong ligaments so it is more stable but less mobile that the shoulder joint
foot and toes are adapted for weight bearing rather than dexterity

109
Q

where does the vertebral column span from?

A

base of the skull to the coccyx

110
Q

functions of the spine

A

protect the spinal cord
provide an attachment for muscles
allows movement

111
Q

how many vertebrae are there?

A

33

112
Q

name the 5 sections of the vertebral column

A

cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral
coccygeal

113
Q

how many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

114
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

115
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

5

116
Q

how many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

5

117
Q

how many coccygeal vertebrae are there, and what form do they take?

A

4
Co1-Co4
fused into the coccyx

118
Q

why is the vertebral column curved?

A

absorbs shock

119
Q

which parts of the spine curve anteriorly? what’re these sections called?

A

cervical and lumbar
cervical lordosis
lumbar lordosis

120
Q

which parts of the spine curve posteriorly? what are these sections called?

A

thoracic and sacral
thoracic kyphosis
sacral kyphosis

121
Q

function of intervertebral discs

A

support the weight of the upper body and absorb shock

122
Q

describe the distinguishing features of cervical vertebrae

A

bifid (two pronged) spinous processes
holes in the transverse processes (transverse foramen)
oval shaped bodies
the first two are uniquely modified for rotation of the head

123
Q

describe the distinguishing features of thoracic vertebrae

A

long, sharp, downward-sloping spinous processes that overlap the vertebra below
additional articular facets for the attachment of ribs and heart-shaped bodies

124
Q

describe the distinguishing features of lumbar vertebrae

A

short, blunt spinous processes and extra large, oval shaped bodies to support the weight of the body

125
Q

describe the distinguishing features of sacral vertebrae

A

fused into the sacrum
triangular shaped bone that sits in the posterior midline
it articulates with the left and right hip bones to form the bony pelvis

126
Q

describe the coccygeal vertebrae

A

fused to form the coccyx - vestigial remnant of what used to be a tail

127
Q

what protects the spinal cord?

A

vertebral column

128
Q

function of axons and dendrites

A

allow neurons to communicate with other neurons

129
Q

meaning of cranial

A

head end
towards the head

130
Q

meaning of caudal

A

tail end
with regards to the brain, caudal means posterior
with regards to the spinal cord, caudal means inferior

131
Q

meaning of rostral

A

towards the face
with regards to the brain, rostral means anterior
with regards to the spinal cord, rostral means superior

132
Q

what is the PNS?

A

all nervous tissue outside the CNS

133
Q

what is the CNS?

A

brain and spinal cord

134
Q

which nerves make up the PNS?

A

cranial - arise from the brain
spinal - arise from the spinal cord
autonomic

135
Q

what does the cerebral cortex contain?

A

neuron cell bodies

136
Q

why is the cerebral cortex called grey matter?

A

grey appearance due to neuron cell bodies

137
Q

name for the folds in the cerebral cortex

A

gyri

138
Q

name for the grooves between the folds in the cerebral cortex?

A

sulci

139
Q

what can we find deep to the cerebral cortex in the cerebral hemispheres?

A

masses of axons

140
Q

what is white matter?

A

masses of axons where information is transmitted through bundles of fibres

141
Q

what are nuclei?

A

collection of cell bodies in the CNS

142
Q

what are the lobes of the cerebral hemispheres named after?

A

bones of the skull that overlie them

143
Q

name the lobes of the brain

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital

144
Q

functions of the cerebellum

A

balance, coordination and movement

145
Q

components of the brainstem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

146
Q

functions of the brainstem

A

relays information between the cerebrum, spinal cord and cerebellum
gives rise to most cranial nerves
contains centres that regulate breathing and consciousness

147
Q

at which spinal level does the spinal cord end? (it’s shorter than the vertebral column)

A

L1-L2

148
Q

what constitutes the grey matter?

A

neuronal cell bodies

149
Q

is the grey matter on the inside or outside of an axial cross section of the spinal cord?

A

inside

150
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31

151
Q

what are brain ventricles?

A

cerebrospinal fluid filled cavities within the brain

152
Q

function of CSF

A

provide nutrients to the brain
protects the brain as a cushion against trauma
prevents delicate nerves and vessels from being compressed between the brain and the internal surface of the skull

153
Q

how many meninges are there?

A

3

154
Q

name the meningeal layers from superficial to deep

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater
(PAD out)

155
Q

function of the meninges?

A

protect the brain
provide a scaffold for blood vessels

156
Q

which pairs of arteries supply the brain?

A

left and right internal carotid arteries
left and right vertebral arteries

157
Q

anastomosis on thee inferior surface of the cerebrum

A

Circle of Willis

158
Q

what are dural venous sinuses?

A

large veins enclosed within the dura mater

159
Q

function of the motor component of the somatic nervous system

A

voluntary contraction of skeletal muscle

160
Q

function of the sensory component of the somatic nervous system

A

sends information about peripheral stimuli from the sensory receptors in the body to the CNS, to reach our conscious perception e.g pain

161
Q

functions of the ANS

A

involuntary activities such as heart rate, blood pressure and digestion

162
Q

function of the somatic nervous system

A

voluntary activities

163
Q

what does the motor component of the ANS control?

A

smooth muscle, glands, and cardiac muscle

164
Q

function of the sympathetic nervous system

A

fight and flight
or the 4Fs: fight, fright, flight and freeze

165
Q

function of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

rest and digest

166
Q

function of the sensory component of the the autonomic nervous system

A

conveys sensory information about the internal environment from the viscera (organs) to the CNS
it does not reach our conscious perception
e.g blood pressure monitoring

167
Q

what are visceral efferent nerves?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves that leave the CNS and travel to the periphery

168
Q

describe the sympathetic response

A

heart rate increases
bronchi dilate
peripheral blood vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin and gut to skeletal muscles in preparation for activity
pupils dilate
hair stands on end
sweat glands ar stimulated

169
Q

describe the parasympathetic response

A

heart rate decreases
bronchi constrict
glands are stimulated e.g salivary glands
gut activity (peristalsis) is stimulated
pupils constrict

170
Q

how many neurons do sympathetic and parasympathetic systems have in the pathway from the CNS to the effector?

A

2

171
Q

where does the cell body of the first neuron of sympathetic and parasympathetic systems lie?

A

CNS

172
Q

which spinal segments correspond to where sympathetic neuron cell bodies lie?

A

T1-L2/3

173
Q

which spinal segments and part of the brain correspond to where parasympathetic neuron cell bodies lie?

A

brainstem and sacral spinal cord

174
Q

what is a ganglion

A

collection of cell bodies outside the CNS

175
Q

what is the name of the first parasympathetic or sympathetic neuron?

A

preganglionic/ presynaptic

176
Q

what is the name of the second parasympathetic or sympathetic neuron?

A

postganglionic/ postsynaptic
the postganglionic fibres travel to target organs

177
Q

describe the arrangement of the sympathetic system

A

first neuron cell body in the thoracic or lumbar spinal cord
short preganglionic axon
second neuron cell body in a ganglion close to the CNS
long postganglionic axon
target organ/ effector e.g smooth muscle in the blood vessel walls

178
Q

describe the arrangement of the parasympathetic system

A

first neuron cell body in the brainstem or sacral spinal cord
long preganglionic axon
second neuron cell body in a ganglion close to the target organ
short postganglionic axon (or parasympathetic ganglia may be within target organs)
target organ/ effector e.g smooth muscle in wall of the intestine

179
Q

which part of the ANS is more widely distributed?

A

sympathetic

180
Q

what are visceral afferent fibres?

A

sensory autonomic fibres conveying information from the viscera back to the CNS

181
Q

function of the sensory component of the ANS

A

monitor internal environment e.g blood pressure, level of blood oxygen
send information back to the CNS
these sensory inputs elicit reflex responses which maintain our internal environment
this information does not reach our conscious perception
visceral afferents also convey information to the CNS about distension, stretch, spasm or ischaemia of the viscera - this causes pain or discomfort that DOES reach out consciousness

182
Q

how many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

183
Q

how do nerves exit the skull?

A

via foramina

184
Q

how many cervical spinal nerves do we have, and why is this unusual?

A

8
we have 7 cerical vertebrae

185
Q

how many thoracic spinal nerves do we have?

A

12

186
Q

how many lumbar spinal nerves do we have?

A

5

187
Q

how many sacral spinal nerves do we have?

A

5

188
Q

how many coccygeal spnal nerves do we have?

A

1
Co1

189
Q

how do spinal nerves leave the vertebral column?

A

intervertebral foramina

190
Q

where do the cell bodies of motor neurons lie?

A

ventral horn of the spinal cord (grey matter)

191
Q

how do somatic motor fibres leave the spinal cord?

A

a series of rootlets, which merge to form the ventral (motor) root of the spinal nerve

192
Q

where do cell bodies of peripheral sensory neurons lie?

A

dorsal root ganglia

193
Q

structure of peripheral sensory neurons

A

two processes - one that projects peripherally into the spinal nerve and one that projects centrally into the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

194
Q

how does sensory information travel from peripheral receptors towards the DRG?

A

via the spinal nerve

195
Q

how does sensory information travel from the DRG to the dorsal horn?

A

series of rootlets

196
Q

what type of fibres do all 31 pairs of spinal nerves contain?

A

sympathetic

197
Q

why are sympathetic fibres so widespread?

A

they innervate sweat glands, smooth muscle in blood vessel walls and hair follicles (arrestor pili muscles)
reach every part of the body

198
Q

what is a dermatome?

A

area of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve

199
Q

what is a myotome?

A

group of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve

200
Q

name structures that can be found in the thorax

A

heart and lungs
trachea
oesophagus
arteries and veins
nerves
lymphatic vessels

201
Q

what separates the thorax and abdominal cavity?

A

diaphragm

202
Q

what is the bony skeleton of the thorax called?

A

thoracic cage

203
Q

name the parts of the sternum

A

manubrium, body and xiploid process

204
Q

where is the suprasternal notch

A

superior border of the manubrium

205
Q

lateral joint between the clavicle and manubrium

A

sternoclavicular joint

206
Q

which part of the sternum does the clavicle articulate with?

A

manubrium

207
Q

what is the angle of Louis?

A

manubriosternal joint
where the manubrium and body articulate

208
Q

how many pairs of ribs do we have?

A

12 (one for each thoracic vertebra)

209
Q

what are the anterior parts of the ribs composed of?

A

costal cartilage

210
Q

what are costochondral joints?

A

where the ribs articulate with their costal cartilages

211
Q

at which joints do the ribs articulate with their costal cartilages?

A

costochondral

212
Q

what are costovertebral joints?

A

where ribs articulate posteriorly with thoracic vertebrae

213
Q

at which joints do the ribs articulate with thoracic vertebrae?

A

costovertebral

214
Q

what are sternocostal joints?

A

where the costal cartilages of the upper ribs articulate with the sternum

215
Q

at which joints do costal cartilages of the upper ribs articulate with the sternum?

A

sternocostal

216
Q

what are the joints between the vertebrae?

A

intervertebral

217
Q

where are atrioventricular valves, and what are they called?

A

between the atria and ventricles
tricuspid on the right
mitral on the left

218
Q

where are the semilunar valves and what are they called?

A

between the ventricles and large blood vessels that carry blood from them
pulmonary valve
aortic valve

219
Q

where is the pulmonary valve?

A

entrance to the pulmonary trunk

220
Q

where is the aortic valve?

A

entrance to the aorta

221
Q

which arteries supply blood to the myocardium?

A

coronary arteries

222
Q

what is the circulation between the heart and lungs called?

A

cardiopulmonary

223
Q

which circulation serves the rest of the body?

A

systemic

224
Q

approximately how many alveoli are in each lung?

A

300 million

225
Q

how many lobes does the right lung have?

A

3

226
Q

name the lobes of the right lung

A

superior, middle, inferior

227
Q

how many lobes does the left lung have?

A

two

228
Q

name the lobes of the left lung

A

upper and lower

229
Q

what separates the lobes of the lung?

A

fissures

230
Q

how many pulmonary arteries and veins serve each lung?

A

one pulmonary artery
two pulmonary veins

231
Q

what is the bronchial tree?

A

branching system of tubes that conduct air into and out of the lungs

232
Q

describe the bronchial tree?

A

trachea bifurcates into the left and right main bronchi, which enter the left and right lungs
each main bronchus divides into a series of smaller bronchi, which divide into bronchioles
with each division, the bronchioles become smaller and smaller

233
Q

do bronchioles contain cartilage?

A

no

234
Q

do bronchi contain cartilage?

A

yes

235
Q

effect of parasympathetic stimulation of the bronchioles

A

bronchoconstriction

236
Q

effect of sympathetic stimulation of the bronchioles

A

bronchodilation

237
Q

where is the midsternal (anterior median) line?

A

drawn straight down the centre of the sternum

238
Q

where is the midclavicular line?

A

drawn inferiorly from the midpoint of the clavicle

239
Q

where is the anterior axillary line?

A

drawn inferiorly from the anterior axilla (armpit)

240
Q

where is the midaxillary line?

A

drawn inferiorly from the middle of the axilla

241
Q

where is the posterior axillary line?

A

drawn inferiorly from the posterior axilla

242
Q

where is the scapula line?

A

drawn inferiorly through the scapula

243
Q

where is the midvertebral (posterior median) line?

A

drawn straight down along the spinous processes of the vertebrae

Phase 1 flashcards (27 decks)

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