Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Internal Medicine > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What does the diencephalon include?

A

Thalamus

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the forebrain include?

A

Diencephalon

Cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cerebral white matter tracts and the basal nuclei are involved in what?

A

Sensory and motor control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Unilateral forebrain lesion can cause what type of limb deficits?

A

Contralateral due to crossing over nerves in the mibrain (pic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Unilateral lesions in the pons and medulla will cause what type of limb deficit?

A

Ipsilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What cranial nerves extent from the pons and medulla?

A

3-12.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the vestibular nuclei located?

A

Medulla

Flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A decerebellate posture is seen in lesions where?

A

Rostral cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs of cerebellar disease?

A

Hypermetria

Intention tremors

Ataxia and wide based stance

Decerebellate posture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In the spinal cord the gray matter contains what?

A

Interneurons and LMNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The spinal cord give rise to a dorsal and ventral root. Which one is motor and which one is sensory?

A

Dorsal is sensory.

Ventral is motor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is the cervical intumescenece?

A

C6-T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the lumbar intumescence?

A

L4-S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why do dogs with a cervical lesion have more pronounced UMN deficits in the rear limbs vs the forelimbs?

A

The rear limb tracts are more peripherally in the cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What makes up the peripheral nerves?

A

12 CNs

36 pair spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the neuromuscular junction process?

A

Calcium dependent release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft

ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to ACh muscle receptors

ACh is rapidedly removed by Acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Myasthenia gravis is what type of neuromuscular disorder?

A

Post synaptic

Reduction of the number of functional ACh receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Presynatic neuromuscular disorders usually cause what clinical sign?

A

Flaccid tetraparesis

Decreased Spinal reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are common clinical signs of muscle disorders?

A

Weakness

Stiff or stilted gait

Exercise intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where does the pelvic nerve originate from?

A

L5-L6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the pelvic nerve do during micturition?

A

Detects bladder fullness

Supplies PARAsympathetic innervation to the bladder - CAUSING DETRUSOR MUSCLE TO CONTRACT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What nerve controls the external urethral sphincter m allowing for conscious and reflex control?

A

Pudendal n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The hypogastric n supplies what?

A

SYMPATHETIC tone causing detrusor muscle relaxation and contraction of the internal urethral sphicter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What three nerves control micurition?

A

Pelvic - Parasympathetic

Pudendal - Somatic

Hypogastric - Sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does the hypogastric n arise from

A

Cranial to mid lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a LMN bladder?

A

Injury to the sacral spinal cord (pelvic and pudendal n) causing a large, flaccid bladder that is easily expressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an UMN bladder?

A

Spinal cord injury causing an enlarged bladder that is hard to express

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is reflex or automatic bladder?

A

5-10 days after acute UMN spinal cord injury, there might be reflex detrusor contraction causing spontaneous partial empyting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is detruser-urethral dyssynergia?

A

When there is a spinal lesion cranial to L5 causing diministed voluntary control and reflex hyperexcitability of the urethral sphincter. Causing involuntary contraction of the urtheral sphincter during detrusor contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between decerebrate and decerebellate rigidity?

A

Decerebrate - All four limbs are extended with an extended neck (MIDBRAIN LESION)

Decerebellate - Thoracic limbs are extended along with neck. Hips are flexed due to flexed iliopsoas. (ROSTRAL CEREBELLAR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Patellar reflex contains what n?

A

Femoral nerve

Spinal nerve L4, L5, L^

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pelvic limb withdrawal contains what nerves?

A

Sensory - Sciatic n (tibia and peroneal on the lateral), Femoral (saphenous on the medial)

Motor - Sciatic n (tibia (flexion of the digits) and peroneal (flexion of the tarsus)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the perineal reflex or bulbourethral reflex used to assess?

A

Pudendal n

S1-S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where does the lateral thoracic nerve come from and what does it do?

A

Lateral thoracic comes from C8-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is in control of pupil constriction?

A

CN3 Occulomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Complete external ophthalmoplegia is usually caused by?

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of strabimus is caused by CN3 damage?

A

Ventrolateral strabimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of strabimus is caused by CN4 damage?

A

Dorsolateral strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does CN5 (trigeminal n) innervate?

A

Sensory of the face, cornea, nasal septum, nasopharyngeal membrane, teeth and gingiva

Motor of the muscles of mastication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bilateral CN5 lesions cause?

A

Drop jaw and inability to close mouth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CN7 innervates what?

A

Muscles of the face

Seory of the rostral two thirds of the tongue and palate

Lacrimal glands and mandibular and sublingual salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CN9 innervates what?

A

motor to the pharynx and palate

Sensory to the caudal third of the tongue and pharynx

Parasympathetic to the parotid and zygomatic salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Vagus innervates?

A

Motor and sensory to the larynx, pharynx and esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How to test the parasympathetic portion of the vagus?

A

Push on the eyballs and see the bradycardia reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Differentials for peracute nerve dysfunction?

A

External trauma

Internal trauma (disc/fracture)

Hemorrhage

Infarct

Toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Differentials for subacute progressive nerve dysnfunction?

A

Infectious

Non-infectious

Rapidly growing tumors

Metabolic

Some toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

SRMA commonly has elevated serum and CSF what?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Risk factors for seizures in a myelogram?

A

Dogs over 29kg

Cisternal myelography

Two or more injections of contrast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What projections is the most benifical for describing where a lesion is on the myelogram?

A

Lateral… the VD says the same thing all the time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the most commonly biopsied nerves?

A

Common peroneal nerve and the ulnar n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Brainstem lesions commonly have these clinical signs?

A

Altered consciousness

CN deficity

UMN paresis

Ataxia

CP deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

List some metabolic encephalopathies?

A

Hyperosmolality

Hepatic encephalopathy

Hypoglycemia

Uremia

Electrolyte distrubances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

CPs are usually what with cerebellar diseases?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Reasons for ischemic strokes/clots that may not be on your radar?

A

Septic foci (endocarditis)

Primary/metastatic neoplasia

Vasculitis

HW

Cardiac disease.

Hypothyrodism/DM/Cushings and hyperlipidemia

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most common infarct location in dogs? Cats?

A

Cerebellar/Forebrain - Dog

Forebrain/brainstem - Cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Feline ischemic encephalopathy - what artery is most commonly affected?

A

Middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Feline ischemic encephalopathy - what time of year and place is it most common?

A

Summer - NE USA and outdoors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What pathology besides edema is common with cuterebra migration?

A

Infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What percentage of congenital hydrocephalus do not have symptomes until 2 years of age?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What dogs get lissencephaly?

A

Lhasa Apso

Wire Fox Terrier

Irish Setter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the most common non-infectious inflammatory brain disease in dogs?

A

Granulomatous meningoencephalitis (GME)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Neurodegeneration of the cerebellum in young dog (2-12 months)

There is adult onset in some breeds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a main differential for cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Neosporosis due to atrophy of the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What side effects are seen with KBr toxicity?

A

Dysphagia

Megaesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Repetitive episodes of autonomic signs (vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal discomfort, repetitive swallowing, licking or eating grass) could be a sign of?

A

FOCAL AUTONOMIC SEIZURE DISORDER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Sign of pheobarital responsive syndrome?

A

Drooling, reching, dysphagia, enlargement of the mandibular salivary glands with necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What percentage of dogs and cats have idiopathetic epilepsy?

A

25%-30% dogs

Rare in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What percentage of dogs and cats have intracranial causes?

A

35% - dogs

Most cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What coomon toxins cause seizures?

A

Strychinine

Metaldehyde (slug/snail/rat posison)

Mycotoxins

Chlorinated hdrocarbons (insecticides)

Organophosphates/Carbamates (INsecticides)

Lead

Ethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Scar tissue-related acquired epilepsy is seen as what on MRI?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is pendular nystamus and who is it common in?

A

Oscillatory movement with no slow or fast phase

Siamese, Birman and himalayan cats due to congenital abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Physiologic nystagmus is controlled by what reflex?

A

Oculocephalic reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What signs are the most consistent with Central vestibular disease?

A

Vertical nystagmus

UMN limb deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What CNs can be affected if lesions are at the cerebellomedullary angle?

A

CN5, CN7 and CN8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is paradoxical vestibular syndrome?

A

Where the lesion is in the caudal cerebellar peduncle or flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum

Causes head tilt on the contral lateral side

CP deficits on the ipslateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the difference between geriatric canine vestibular disease and feline idiopathic vestibular syndrome?

A

Feline idiopathic happens at any age…mid-atlantic… summer time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Most common aural tumors?

A

SCC

Ceruminous gland adenoma/adenocarcinoma

sebaceous adenoma/adenocarcinoma

Lymphoma

CN8 = neurofibroma, neurofibrsarcoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Differentials for peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Otitis media

Old dog

Polyps

idiopathic

trauma

neoplastic

Aminoglycoside

Congenital (3 months or less)

Hypothyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Differentials for central vestibular disease?

A

Inflammatory

Neoplasia

CVA - spaniels are predisposed

Acute idiopathic attacks

Metronidazole.

80
Q

Most common sign of meningitis?

A

Neck pain and fever

81
Q

SRMA is commonly seen in what age of dogs?

A

6-18mo

82
Q

SRMA may have what concurrent disease?

A

IMPA

83
Q

SRMA commonly is associated with what breed?

A

Beagles

Bernese Moutain Dogs

Boxers

German Shorthaired Pointers

Nova Scotia Duck Tolling Retrievers

84
Q

If not treated effectively and promptly dogs with SRMA can develop?

A

Spinal cord infarction and meningeal fibrosis

85
Q

What are the three forms of GME?

A

Focal - Space occupying mass

Ocular - optic neuritis

Disseminated - multifocal lesions

86
Q

GME commonly affects what type of dogs?

A

Young small dogs (2-6 yo)

87
Q

NME (necrotizing meningoencephalitis) is common in what two breeds?

A

Pugs - Younger onset - FEMALES

Maltese

88
Q

NME MRI findings are commonly what?

A

White matter lesions just lateral to the ventricles

Grey-white matter junction causing LOSS OF NORMAL SHARP DEMARCATION!!!

89
Q

GME focal lesion is indistinguishable from what?

A

NEOPLASIA

90
Q

GME commonly involves?

A

BOTH the gray and white matter

91
Q

Clinically important MRI finding for meningoencephalitis?

A

Well defined, T2 hyperintense, T1 hypointense regions consistent with necrotizing areas

92
Q

NLE is commonly associated with what breed?

A

Yorkies***

Frenchies

93
Q

Caniine eosinophilic meningitis is commonly associated with what two etiologies?

A

Idiopathic

Fungal/protozoal/helminth

94
Q

Caniine eosinophilic meningitis is commonly associated with what type of dog?

A

Young and large

95
Q

What rickettsial diseases can cause meningoencephaltis?

A

E. canis

E. Ewingii

RMSF E. rickettsii

A. Phagocytophilum

96
Q

Systemic neospora can cause?

A

fever

pneumonia

hepatitis

pancreatitis

Esophagitis

Pyogran dermatitis.

97
Q

Neospora commonly affects very young dogs due to what?

A

Its predominant transplacental route of transmission

6wks- 6mon

98
Q

Common MRI finding for neospora?

A

Cerebellar hypotrophy.

99
Q

Can lyme’s disease cause encephalitis?

A

Yes

100
Q

What fungus commonly infects only the CNS due to its predilection for the CNS of dogs and cats?

A

Cryptococcus

101
Q

“Lil white shaker syndrome” aka?

A

Canine steroid responsive tremor syndrome

Westies and Maltese

102
Q

Feline polioencephalitis is like what?

A

GME, NME or NLE in cats

103
Q

Can FIV cause neurologic abnormalities?

A

YES.. Feline immunodeficiency virus encephalopathy.

104
Q

Bacterial infections of the CNS is commonly associated with what in dogs and cats?

A

Direct extension or hematogenous spread.

105
Q

What type of bacterial meningitis has a good success rate?

A

Otogenic intracranial infections

106
Q

What age is distemper commonly seen?

A

12-16 weeks

107
Q

What are the clinical signs of distemper?

A

Ocular and nasal discharge

Diarrhea

Hyperkeratosis of the foot and nose

Moist otitis externa

1-3 wks later = neuro signs.

108
Q

What is the difference between chronic and acute distemper findings on MRI?

A

Acute = Gray matter only - temporal lobes

Chronic= White matter at the frontal and parital lobes

109
Q

What is the incubation time for rabies?

A

1 week to 8 months

110
Q

Toxoplasmosis in adults are resulted from what?

A

Reactivation of a chronic encysted infection

111
Q

Common infection sites include:

A

Lung, CNS, MSK, ocular - dog and cat

Liver pancreas and heart - cat

112
Q

What is seen on MRI usually with toxo?

A

MSK and CNS signs

113
Q

LMN lesions commonly show what type of gait vs UMN?

A

LMN = choppy gait

UMN = swinging or floating gait.

114
Q

Lesions only involving the central cord at C6-T2 will show more pronounced what?

A

LMN than UMN.

115
Q

Horner’s syndrome is seen when what part of the spinal cord is affected?

A

T1-T2

116
Q

Loss of cutaneous trunci is seen when what part of the spinal cord is affected?

A

C8-T1

117
Q

The phrenic nerve originates from where in the spinal cord?

A

C5-C7

118
Q

The cervical intumescenece is located at what vertebrae?

A

C4-T2

119
Q

The lumbar intumescenece is located at what vertebrae?

A

L3-L5 in dogs

L3-L6 in cats

120
Q

The spinal cord ends where for cats and dogs?

A

Cat- L7

Dogs - L6

121
Q

When is a vertebral fracture considered unstable?

A

When two of the three compartments are damaged or displaced.

122
Q

When does ascending myelomalacia occur?

A

First 5 days after a disc protrusion.

123
Q

Where in the spinal cord is FCE commonly located?

A

TL or LS in big dogs

Cervical in little dogs

124
Q

What breed is associated with young age FCE?

A

Wolfhounds

125
Q

What are the most common infectious inflammatory disease in the spine?

A

Canine distemper

RMSF

Neosporosis

FIP in cats

126
Q

Discospondyltitis has a prediclect for what sex?

A

Males

127
Q

When looking for showering of emboli think of?

A

Urine culture

Prostate

Endocarditits

128
Q

Most common tumors affecting the spinal cord of dogs?

A

Extradural tumors arising from the vertebral bodies. (bone tumors, mets and round cell tumors)

129
Q

Most common intradural extramedullary tumor in dogs?

A

Meningiomas

Neuroepithelioma (neuroblastoma)

Nerve sheath tumors

130
Q

Most common spinal tumor in cats?

A

Lymphoma

131
Q

Neuroepithelioma is common where in the spinal cord?

A

T10-L1 in GSD and goldens

132
Q

Differentials for peripheral vestibular disease includes all except:

a. Otitis media-interna
b. Geriatric vestibular disease
c. Chemical ototoxicity
d. Metronidazole toxicity

A

D

133
Q

Most common primary aural tumors include:

a. SCC, ceruminous gland & sebaceous adenoma/adenocarcinoma, lymphoma
b. Lymphoma, metastatic, primary bone tumors, carcinoma
c. Sarcoma, SCC, ceruminous gland & sebaceous adenoma/adenocarcinoma
d. Lymphoma, primary bone tumors, SCC

A

A

134
Q

True or False: The presence of cranial nerve deficits usually indicates peripheral vestibular disease

A

False

135
Q

All the following diseases can cause central vestibular disease except:

a. FIP
b. MUE
c. Primary or metastatic neoplasia
d. Infarctions
e. All of these may cause central vestibular sign

A

A

136
Q

Which intracranial tumors tend to develop in the cerebellopontomedullary region making central vestibular signs common:

a. Gliomas, metastatic
b. Meningiomas, choroid plexus
c. Meningiomas, gliomas
d. Metastatic, choroid plexus

A

B

137
Q

True or False: Anatomical structures that can cause neck pain include: meninges, increased intracranial pressure, nerve roots, joints, bones, spinal cord, and muscles

A

F - spinal cord does not

138
Q

All of these statements regarding SRMA are true, except for:

a. Breed associated include: beagles, bernese mountain dogs, boxers, german shorthaired pointers
b. Affected dogs are usually juvenile to young adults (6m-18moths)
c. Some dogs may have concurrent IMPA
d. The vast majority of dogs with SRMA are presented for a fever, have normal neurologic exam and reveal no cervical spine pain.

A

D = they usually have cervical pain

139
Q

Since Distemper can affect both young and mature animals, MRI findings vary according to chronicity. Briefly describe and distinguish how acute vs chronic meningoencepahalitis would look on MRI

A

a. Acute: Gray matter, large area
b. Chronic: White matter, can be patchy, atrophy

140
Q

What is this?

A

Look for tracting. Parasitic migration.

141
Q

Which of these statements is correct regarding the cervical and lumbar intumescence:

a. Spinal cord segments of the cervical intumescence are located within C6-T2 ; spinal cord segments of the lumbar intumescence are located within L3-L5 (dogs and cats).
b. Spinal cord segments of the cervical intumescence are located within C4-T2 ; spinal cord segments of the lumbar intumescence are located within L3-L5 (dogs) L3-L6 (cats).
c. Spinal cord segments of the cervical intumescence are located within C6-T2 ; spinal cord segments of the lumbar intumescence are located within L3-L5 (dogs) L3-L6 (cats).

A

B

142
Q

What are the most common organisms that have been isolated with discospondylitis:

a. Streptococus, Staphylococcus, E. coli, Brucella.
b. Listeria, streptococcus,e coli
c. Brucella, listeria, clostridium

A

A

143
Q

What are the most common place in the spine where articular facet aplasia/hypoplasia occurs?

a. Thorax
b. Cranial lumbar
c. Caudal thorax and cranial lumbar
d. Lumbar

A

C

144
Q

True or False: The most common spinal tumors affecting the spine in the dog are extradural tumors (primary bone or soft tissue)

A

T

145
Q

Why are limb deficits worse in the hind limbs when a patient is suffering from a compressive cervical lesion?

  1. Due to the Schiff Sherrington reflex and the lack of inhibition to the hind legs.
  2. Hind limb nerve tracts are more superficially located in the cord than the forelimbs
  3. Hind limb motor nuclei are present in the cervical region
  4. There is commonly another lesions further caudally affecting the hind limbs as well
A

B

146
Q

What area of the spine does the phrenic nerve originate from?

  1. C7-T2
  2. C3-C5
  3. C5-C7
  4. C4-C6
A

C

7,6,5 keeps the diaphragm alive

147
Q

Which statement is most true?

  1. Traction stabilization can improve all forms of cervical spondyomyolopathy
  2. Neruonal abiotrophies affecting the gray matter commonly cause UMN signs
  3. The alar ligaments maintain alignment of the atlantoaxial joint
  4. Hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum will commonly cause dorsal stenosis of the spinal canal.
A

D

Gray matter cause LMN signs

Transverse ligament maintains alignment

148
Q

What breed of cat is associated with spina bifida and what other disease is it associated with?

  1. DSH and capital physeal fractures
  2. Maine Coon and hip dysplasia
  3. Manx and caudal agenesis
  4. Persians and hydrocephalus
A

C

149
Q

A vertebral fracture is considered unstable when?

  1. The spinal canal is involved
  2. At least two of the three compartments are damaged
  3. The articular processes are involved.
  4. All fractures of the vertebral column are considered unstable.
A

B

150
Q
A
151
Q

Myasthenia gravis is a what kind of neuromuscular junction disease?

A

Post synaptic.

152
Q

Traumatic neuropathies are common in what nerves in the cat and dog?

A

radial n.

Brachial plexus

Sciatic n.

153
Q

Why is self mutilation occuring in regerative nerves?

A

Sensory n can cause abnormal sensation.

154
Q

Lack of improvement for motor function for how long warrants amputation?

A

1 month

155
Q

What are the most common nerves to get nerve shealth tumors?

A

C6-C8 and T1-T2

Trigeminal n.

156
Q

Tumors involving what nerves can cause ipsilateral Horner syndrome?

A

T1-T3

157
Q

Tumors involving the what nerves cause ipsilateral cutaneous trunci reflex?

A

C8-T1

158
Q

Big differentials for facial nerve paralysis?

A

Idiopathic (75% dogs - 25% cats)

Middle/inner ear disease

Traumatic

Hypothyroidism in dogs

159
Q

What is the clincal signs for trigeminal n paralysis?

A

Cannot close mouth.

160
Q

What percentage of dogs with CN5 paralysis does horners or facial n paralysis happen also?

A

8%

161
Q

Loss of sensory CN5 causes hyposensitization of the what?

A

Corneal surface - 30% of dogs.

162
Q

Causes for Trigmeinal paralysis?

A

idiopathic (dog thing)

Neospora

Idiopathic polyneuritis.

Infiltrative neoplasia (lymphoma/leukemia)

163
Q

What is hyperchylomicronemia?

A

Mutation causing delayed clearance of chylomicrons in the blood in cats

Causes lipid granulomas to form in skin and other tissues. This can cause mechanical compression of the nerves (Commonly the tibial and radial nerves)

164
Q

What type of neuropathy is caused by caudal aortic thromboembolism?

A

LMN due to ischemia.

165
Q

What type of neuropathy is congenital or inherited polyneuropathies?

A

LMN

166
Q

Endocrine diseases that cause acquired chronic polyneuropathies?

A

Diabetic

Hypothyroid

167
Q

Immune-mediated polyneuritis include (2)?

A

Primary immune

Systemic lupus erythematosus

168
Q

Paraneoplastic disorders that cause LMN paraesis in what type of tumor?

A

insulinoma.

169
Q

LMN disease (neruomuscular junction) etiologies?

A

Breed-associated degenerative neuropathies

Metabolic (hypothyroid, DM)

Paraneoplastic

Immune mediated (systemic lupus erythematosus)

Organophosphate

Acute

Coonhound paralysis - raccoon bite (acute polyradiculoneuritis) - Antibody deposition

Neospora polyradiculoneuritis

Tick paralysis

Botulism

M. Gravis

170
Q

Differentials for rapid onset of LMN disorder?

A

Acute polyradiculoneuritis

Tick paralysis

Botulism

171
Q

What diseases are associated with M. Gravis?

A

Thymoma

Immune-mediated (hypothyroidism and hypoadrenocorticism)

Drug induced with methimazole

172
Q

M. Gravis is located where in the neuromuscular junction?

A

Incomplete disorder of the post-synaptic region.

173
Q

What test is used to test for congenital M. Gravis or if serum test is not yet available?

A

Tensilon - short acting anticholinesterase.

174
Q

What are the three forms of MG?

A

Generalized

Focal - just megaesophagus

Fulminating

175
Q

What is the difference of MG acquired and congenital?

A

Acquire = antibodies

Congenital = just inherited lack of AChR.

176
Q

What are the main feature of acute polyradiculoneuritis that differentiates it from Tick paralysis and botulism?

A

Hyperesthetic

177
Q

Masticatory myositis is an IgG response to what?

A

Unique myofiber Type 2M only found in the

178
Q

What type of dogs commonly get inflammatory myopahties?

A

Large breed dogs.

179
Q

Differentials for optic neuritis dogs? Cats?

A

Dog = GME, Distemper, Tick borne enceplalitis virus, Ehrlichia, Idiopathic

Cat = FIP, Toxo, Crypto, histo, systemic hypertension, lymphoma

180
Q

What breed is extraocular myositis common in, in dogs?

A

Goldens

181
Q

Common clincal signs for masticatory myositis and what other diffferentials are there for this sign?

A

Unable to open mouth.

DDx: Retrobulbar abscess, mass, dental disease, TMJ problems

Muscle atrophy:

Trigem disorder, Polyneuropathy, hypothroid, hyperadrenocorticim, cancer cachexia.

182
Q

Common clinical signs of extraocular myositis?

A

Acute exophthalmos

183
Q

What sex is predisposed to extraocular myositis?

A

Female…goldens.

184
Q

Polymyosistis in cats and dogs can cause what type of disorder in cats and dogs?

A

Megaesphagus.

185
Q

What are the ddx for polymyositis?

A

Idiopathic

Systemic immune mediated disease (systemic lupus erythematosus)

Toxo, neospora

Systemic neoplasia

Thought to be a “preneoplastic syndrom” due to 20% of boxers developinig lymphoma in few months of diagnosis… Liver, spleen and bone marrow apsirates are warrated.

186
Q

Dermatomyositis is seen in what breed of dogs?

A

Juvenile Collies

Megaesphogus can happen in this disease.

187
Q

Glucocorticoids myopathy is a degernative myopathy that can rarely manifest as what?

A

Myotonia-like disorder with limb rigidity, stiff gait and hyperextension of all four limbs.

188
Q

What cats are at risk for developing hypokalemic polymyopathy?

A

Acidiffying diets

Chronic renal disease

hyperthyroid

anorexia

Burmese kittens

189
Q

What is a common sign of hypokalemic polymyopathy in cats?

A

Ventroflexion of the neck.

190
Q

Inherited myopathies include?

A

Muscular dystrohy

Centronuclear myopathy of labs

Myotonia (involuntary muscle movement pst stimulation)

191
Q

Muscular dystrophy occurs due to abscene of what protein and is what type of gene?

A

Absence of cytoskeletal protein dystrophin caused by gene mutation

This gene is x-linked and therefore mostly seen in male dogs (XY) and not females.

192
Q

Muscular dystrophy occurs commonly in what breed?

A

Golden Retrievers.

193
Q

Inherited myopathies are commonly seen in what age of dog?

A

young… 1-6 months

Cats too!

194
Q

Myoclonus is defined as what and is commonly seen in what disease?

A

Rhythmic reptitive contraction of a portion of a muscle

Distemper.

195
Q

Pathophys of tetanus?

A

Spores coloinate a wound

Vegetative form produces toxin (tetanospasmin)

Toxin ascends peripheral nerves to spinal cord

Toxin blocks the release of inhibitory interneurons causing tetany.

5-18 days after infection.

196
Q

Muscular disorders of excerise intolerance or collapse?

A

Canine dyanmin-assoicated excerise-induced collapse in labs (7mo-2year, hyperthermia)

Border collie collapse (hyperhermia)

Scotty cramps (falling or somersaults)

Episodic falling in CKCS (3-7mo)

Internal Medicine (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions