Nervous system 2 Flashcards

1
Q

CSF is produced by …….

A

choroid plexus of the ventricles

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2
Q

CSF if found between …. & ……

A

pia mater & arachnoid mater

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3
Q

Unlike the pia mater, arachnoid mater ….. sulci

A

passes over

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4
Q

Dura mater is two layers, …. & …..

Dural folds are ……

A
meningeal & periosteal 
folds of dura that extend into the septa
1. Falx cerebri
2. Falx cerebelli
3. Tentorium cerebelli
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5
Q

Falx cerebri & tentorium cerebelli separates the cranial cavity into ……….

A

two lateral chambers housing the cerebral hemispheres, and posterior chamber for the cerebellum & brainstem

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6
Q

Sella turcica is covered by …….

A

diaphragm sellae

* In the sphenoid bone

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7
Q

Venous sinuses are formed ……

A

between meningeal & periosteal layers of the dura mater

* Drain into the IJV

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8
Q

Emissary veins connect …….

A

the venous sinuses & the extracranial veins

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9
Q

Diploic veins are ….

A

veins between outer & inner tables of the skull. Connected to the emissary veins

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10
Q

The lateral ventricles are separated from each other by ……, and are connected to the third ventricle by ……..

A

septum pellucidum

foramen of Monro

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11
Q

The third ventricle is located in ……, and is connected to the fourth by …….

A

midline (diencephalon)
Sylvian duct (which passes through the midbrain)
* Blockage of Sylvian leads to hydrocephalus

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12
Q

The fourth ventricle is located between ……, and is connected to the SAS via …….

A

ventral of cerebellum, superior to the medulla, and dorsal to the pons

  • Two lateral foramen “Luschka” & one medial “Magendie”
    • The fourth is continuous with the canal of the medulla & spinal cord (they lack CSF)
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13
Q

The BBB is formed by ……..

The blood CSF barrier is formed by …..

A

capillary endothelium connected by tight junctions

* tight junctions along the choroid cells

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14
Q

In adults, the spinal cord ends at …….

A

L1 or L2

* Lumbar punctures are done at level of L4

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15
Q

Filum terminale is …….

A

a derivative of pia mater, extended below conus medullaris

  • Covered by dura mater at S2
  • At the coccyx, it is called the coccygeal ligament
  • Surrounded by cauda equina (roots of lumbar & sacral nerves)
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16
Q

L1 - S2 is called …… which forms ….. & innervates ….

A

lumbar enlargement
sacral plexus
legs

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17
Q

In humans, there are …… vertebra, while there are …….. spinal nerves

A

33
7, 12, 5, 5, 4
* There 31 nerves (8, 12, 5, 5, 1)
* Coccygeal & S5 nerves are unimportant

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18
Q

The gray matter contains …….

A

cell bodies & neuropil

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19
Q

The cell bodies of the general visceral efferent in the spinal cord are located at ……..

A

intermediolateral nucleus of the lateral horn (for pregan. sympathetic nervesو T1 - L2), and in lamina VII for pregan. parasympathetic nerves

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20
Q

Lamina IX is located at …… & contains …..

A

anterior horn

neurons for the general somatic efferent (alpha & gamma)

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21
Q

Afferent pathway of the spinal cord arises from ….

A

the DRG

* for both general visceral & & somatic

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22
Q

Renshaw cells are …….

A

interneurons that receives an afferent (collateral) like the one to the alpha neuron.

  • Causes inhibition of the alpha neuron and activate the antagonist muscle
  • Targeted by C. tetani antitoxin
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23
Q

Muscles involved in fine movement contain high number of ……..

A

muscle spindles

  • They monitor length & rate of change of length.
  • Responsible for stretch reflex
24
Q

The function of GTO is to monitor …….

A

the muscle tension

* They are encapsulated, connected in series

25
Q

Muscle tone is dependent on input from …… & output from ……

A

muscle spindles
alpha motor neurons
* Lesion in either the ventral root or the dorsal abolishes muscle tone

26
Q

The somatic nervous system has one neuron between the CNS & the muscle, called ……

A

LMN

* The ANS has 2 neurons (prega. lightly mylinated. Postga. unmylinated)

27
Q

The vagus supplies parasympathetic input to the viscera up to the ……..

A

splenic flexure

* From the splenic flexure down, the sacral division supplies the parasym. innervation

28
Q

SSA includes ……..
SVA includes …….
GSA includes …….
GVA includes …….

A

vision & hearing/balance
taste & smell
proprioception
general sensation

29
Q

Myelencephalon contains the nuclei of …….

while metencephalon contains ……….

A
  • 9,10,11,12

* 5,6,7,8

30
Q

The nuclei of ……. is in the telencephalon, while for CN II is in …….

A

CN I
diencephalon
* Note: 3,4 in mesencephalon

31
Q

Levator palpebrae superioris function is …..

A

elevation of the upper eyelid

* Innervated by CN III

32
Q

The white rami contains …….

A

preganglionic sympathetic GVA & GVE

* The gray rami contains GVE only

33
Q

The olfactory bulb is …….

A

an evagination of the telencephalon

34
Q

Compression of CN III causes ……

A

loss of parasymp. innervation first

* Vascular disease (i.e DM) causes loss of GSE only

35
Q

The trigeminal ganglion is located in …..

A

middle cranial fossa

* The ganglion contains cell bodies of all CN V afferents except proprioceptive (to the mesencephalic)

36
Q

Of the three division of the trigeminal N., the …… is the most affected with HZV

A

ophthalmic division

  • Note: the Maxillary division is most affected by trigeminal neuralgia
  • These two are pure sensory, the mand. branch is mixed
37
Q

The Mand. division relays sensory input from ……

A

the external ear, lower lip/teeth/gum, ant 2/3 of tongue, and chin

38
Q

Lesion of corticobulbar tract supplying the trigeminal causes …… of jaw jerk reflex

A

hyperactivity

39
Q

The sensory part of the facial N. carries …….

A

taste from ant. 2/3

cutaneous sensation from back of ear & external auditory meatus

40
Q

Edingar Westfal nucleus is located …. to the motor nucleus, while for the superior salivatory nucleus it is located ……. to the motor

A

medial

lateral

41
Q

The solitary nucleus (tract) receives ….

A

taste sensation SVA from 7,9,10

  • rostaral nucleus is the gustatory. Works with the 7, 9 &10 nerves (SVA)
  • Caudal portion deals with afferents from baroreceptors (GVA)
42
Q

The geniculate ganglion contains ……

A

cell bodies of the SVA only (pseudounipolar)

* Located in the facial canal

43
Q

The facial N. makes a loop around ……. called ……..

A

abducens N.

internal genu

44
Q

The 7th & 8th cranial nerves both pass through ……. to enter ……

A

internal auditory meatus

middle ear

45
Q

The motor portion of the facial N. leaves the skull through …….

A

the stylomastoid foramen

* The motor portion divides into branches in the parotid

46
Q

Loss of taste sensation in the ant 2/3 of tongue suggests ………

A

a lesion of the facial N. proximal to the stylomastoid foramen
* because the chorda joins the facial in the middle ear

47
Q

When the stapedius muscle is paralyzed, ……

A

individual experiences hyperacusis

* occurs with bell’s palsy

48
Q

Facial N. UMN lesions will affect ……..

A

contralateral lower face only

* LMN lesion affects ipsilateral upper & lower face

49
Q

The vestibular ganglion is located in ……, and contains ……
The central axons form ….., which ends in ….

A
inner ear
bipolar neurons
vestibular nerve
vestibular nuclei(some fibers end in flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum)
* The 8th nerve carries SSA afferents
50
Q

The cochlear nuclei are located at ……

A

the level of the lower peduncle (junction of pons & medulla)

* There is dorsal & ventral nuclei

51
Q

Nucleus ambiguus consists of …….

A
  1. rostral part: to stylopharyngeus through 9
  2. middle part: to muscle of larynx & pharynx through 10
  3. caudal part: to intrinsic laryngeal muscles, through the cranial part of 11 (later joins 10)
    * All SVE. Located in the medulla (reticular formation)
52
Q

The vagus N. exits the cranium via …….

A

the jugular foramen

* Same for Cn XI

53
Q

The spinal portion of the Cn XI is formed by …… , and it supplies …….

A

anterior gray horn of the first 5 cervical nerves

* SCM & trapezius

54
Q

Cn. XII supplies ….. fibers to all muscles of the tongue except ……
It exits the skull via …..

A

GSE
palatoglossus
hypoglossal foramen in the occipital bone

55
Q

UMN lesion of the hypoglossal causes ……

A

paralysis without fasciculation & atrophy (only happens in LMN lesions)
* UMN lesions causes contralateral defect

56
Q

Genioglossus contraction causes ……..

A

protrusion of the tongue

* It is the largest muscle

57
Q

Which artery is the most susceptible to rupture causing stroke??

A

The lenticulostriate artery (branch of middle cerebral artery)