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Anatomy And Physiology > Nervous System > Flashcards

Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 basic fucntions of the nervous system

A

Sensory
Motor
Integration

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2
Q

What is the sensory function of the nervous system

A

Sensing changes from the internal or external environment and sending it to the spinal cord or brain

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3
Q

What is the integration function if the nervous system

A

Reviewing , analysing, and storing signals to integrate into a response

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4
Q

What is the motor function of the nervous system

A

The integrated response sent out to the body

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5
Q

What are neurons?

Aka nerve cells

A

The functional unit of nervous tissue

Transmits information throughout the nervous system

Monitors for changes, converts signals to impulses, send impulses to other neurons

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6
Q

What are neuroglia

Aka glia

A

Means “nerve glue”

Special nervous tissue that do not have axons

Substances that influence neuronal function are exchanged between extracellular space and neuroglial cells

Insulate, nourish, support and protects neurons

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7
Q

What are ganglion

A

Dense group of nerve-cell bodies in the PNS

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8
Q

What are the 3 basic parts of the neuron

A

Cell body
Dendrites
Axon

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9
Q

What is the cell body of a neuron

A

Inclused nucleus and cytoplasm and organelles

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10
Q

What are dendrites

A

Short, numerous highly branched processes that extend out from the cell body

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11
Q

What do dendrites do

A

Recieve impusles from other neurons or receptors that are stimulated by internal or external changes in the environment

Carry impulses TOWARDS the cell body

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12
Q

What are axons

A

A single process extending from the cell body

May be called a nerve fiber

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13
Q

What do axons do

A

Conduct impulses AWAY from the cell body to other cells

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14
Q

What are bundles of axons called in the CNS and outside of the CNS

A

Inside: Tracts
Outside: nerves

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15
Q

Axons are often myelinated, what are the myelinated cells called in the CNS and the PNS

A

CNS: oligodendrocytes

PNS: Schwann cells

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16
Q

What is myelin

A

An insulator that speeds the conduction of impusles along axons (white)

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17
Q

Nervous tissue that is myelinated is called

A

White matter

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18
Q

Nervous tissue that is not myelinated is called

A

Gray matter

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19
Q

Gray matter often contains

A

Cell bodies

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20
Q

White matter often contains

A

Myelinated axons

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21
Q

Sensory or afferent nerves

A

These affect the brain

These nerves conduct impulses from sensory receptors in the body TOWARDS the CNS

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22
Q

Motor or afferent nerves

A

Conduct nerve impusles AWAY from the CNS

these effect the body: control responses or skeletal maucle contraction

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23
Q

True or false

A nerve can be sensory, motor or both

A

True

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24
Q

What is the motor function of the somatic nervous system

A

Voluntary control of skeletal muscles (conscious movement)

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25
Q

What is the sensory fucntion of the somatic nervous system

A

Information that is consciously percieved (muscles, skin, eye, ear)

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26
Q

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system

A

Coordination of automatic (unconscious) body functions

Smooth and cardiac mucles, endocrine glands, heart rate, GI motility, homeostasis

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27
Q

True or false

Many fibers in the somatice nervous system are unmyelinated

A

FALSE

they are normally myelinated (rapid conduction)

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28
Q

True or false

Many fibers in the autonomic nervous system are unmulinated

A

TRUE

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29
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system divided into

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system

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30
Q

The sodium potassium pump maintains a higher concentration of sodium ions ____ the membrane and a higher concentration of potassium ion ____ the membrane

A

Outside

Inside

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31
Q

True or false

The sodium potassium pump moves more sodium out than potassium enters

A

True

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32
Q

True or false

There is a negative charge on the outside of the cell

A

FLASE

There is a negative charge on the INSIDE of the cell

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33
Q

Why is the cell considered polarized

A

Because of the difference in charges across the membrane

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34
Q

The difference in electrical charge across the membrane is called the

A

Resting membrane potential

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35
Q

True or flase

The sodium potassium pump is closed at rest

A

True

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36
Q

What happens during depolarization

A

Upon stimulation, sodium channels open allowing sodium to diffuse into the cell, and the influx of positive ions changes the charge inside the cell from negative to positive

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37
Q

What happens during repolarization

A

Rapidly after depolarization, the sodium channels close and potassium channels open, potassium moves OUT of the cell to reestablish a positive charge outside the cell and a negative charge inside the cell which restores resting membrane potential

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38
Q

The whole process in changes of charge is called an

A

Action potential

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39
Q

What is the difference between repolarization and resting state of a cell

A

Sodium ion concentration are now higher inside the cell and potassium ion concentration are higher outside the cell

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40
Q

What restores a normal resting state of a cell after repolarization

A

Active transport by the sodium potassium pump

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41
Q

What is absolute refractory period

A

Time when the neuron will NOT respond to a stimuli no matter what

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42
Q

What is relative refractory period

A

At the end of repolarization (neuron is almost back to resting) when the neuron WILL respond to a stimuli that is stronger than normal

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43
Q

Why can nerve impulses not be conducted backwards

A

Because of the refractory period

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44
Q

What is threshold

A

The change in membrane potential required to cause adjacent membrane to depolarize

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45
Q

What is the all or nothing principle

A

Either the neuron depolarizes significantly enough to depolarize the adjacent neuron or it is not sufficeint enough to carry on the impulse and the signal dies out

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46
Q

If the stimulus is too weak to cause a wave of depolarization, what may you see

A

A localized contraction or response but will not spread

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47
Q

How does the body speed up transmission of impulses

A

Myelinated axons

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48
Q

How does myelin speed up transmission of impulses

A

Myelin insulates the axons and prevents sodium movement in the areas covered

Depolarization only occurs at the gaps between the myeline

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49
Q

What is the rapid conduction of impulses in myelinated axons called

A

Saltatory conduction

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50
Q

What are the gaps in the myelin called

A

Nodes of ranvier

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51
Q

What is multiple sclerosis

A

Disease caused by degeneration of myelin sheaths, inhibiting conduction of nerve impulses

Affects the ability to see and coordinate movement

Vitamin D helps prevent this

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52
Q

What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)

A

A recording device that measures and records brain waves, helps diagnose some disorders

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53
Q

How do Local anesthetics like lidocaine work

A

The block sodium channels of the neuron and prevent depolarization. Impulses cannot be sent to the brain and therefore give no pain signal

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54
Q

What are synapses

A

The junction between two neurons (or a neuron and a target cell) because they do not touch

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55
Q

The gap between two neurons is called the

A

Synaptic cleft

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56
Q

True or false

Neurons can have up to thousands of synapses

A

True

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57
Q

The presynaptic neuron releases a neurotransmitter that is recieved by the

A

Postsynaptic neuron

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58
Q

The synaptic bulb is the end of the

A

Presynaptic axon/neuron

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59
Q

The synaptic bulb contains

A

Mitochondria

Neurotransmitters in vesicles

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60
Q

What causes the synaptic bulb on the presynaptic neuron to release neurotransmitter vesicles into the synaptic cleft

A

When depolarization causes calcium channels to open

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61
Q

What are the two types of neurotransmitters and what do they do

A

Inhibitory: increases polarization (hyperpolarize) and makes it less likely to depolarize (prevents the sodium channels from opening)

Excitatory: causes depolarization

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62
Q

What is summation

A

The process of adding up the effect of multiple stimuli that are individually sub-threshold in order to reach threshold

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63
Q

The relative balance of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters determines the overall effect on the

A

Postsynaptic membrane

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64
Q

What is a acetylcholine

A

Very common neurotransmitter

Can be excitatory (neuromuscular junctions)

Can be inhibitory (heart)

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65
Q

What are the 3 Catecholamine neurotransmitters

A

Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Dopamine

Associated with arousal and fight or flight reactions in the sympathetic NS. Stress hormones

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66
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Fight or flight response

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67
Q

Epinephrine

A

Fight or flight response

Is also secreted by adrenal medulla as a hormone

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68
Q

Dopamine

A

In the brain, important for autonomic functions and muscular control

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69
Q

What is Gamma-aminobutyric acid

A

GABBA

inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

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70
Q

What is glycine

A

Inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord

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71
Q

Some tranquilizers affect GABBA receptors to increase its ____ effect in the brain

A

Inhibitory

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72
Q

How do amphetamines affect neurotransmitters

A

Increases catecholamine release like dopamine

Stimulant

Causes schizophrenic episodes

Methamphetamine

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73
Q

What do antipsychotic drugs do

A

Block dopamine

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74
Q

What does cocaine do to neurotransmitters

A

Prevents normal reuptake of norepinephrine at synaptic bulb end

Stimulant

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75
Q

What does lithium carbonate do to neurotransmitters

A

Decreases norepinephrine release

Used to treat mania: slows processes, stabilizes mood and depression and anxiety disorder in pets

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76
Q

What do opiates do to neurotransmitters (heroine)

A

Binds receptors normally used by endorphins

Provides analgesia, improves mood/emotions

Euphoric (high)

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77
Q

What does alcohol, barbituates, benzodiazepines do to neurotransmitters

A

All effect GABBA: either promoting or imitating its effects

Therefore it is inhibitory (because GABBA is inhibitory)

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78
Q

How do toxins affect neurotransmitters

A

Different toxins either mimic excitatory receptors and cause over stimulation or blocking receptors and preventing stimulation or normal function

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79
Q

What does strychnine (poison) do to neurotransmitters

A

Binds irreversibly to inhibitory receptors (inactivates them)

Blocks GABBA
Overstimulation of CNS motor fibers

See convulsions

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80
Q

How are neurotransmitters recycled and reused

A

After release from the presynaptic membrane and binding with postsynaptic receptors, enzymes break down the neurotransmitters to remove it from the receptor to end the stimulus

The break down products are reabsorbed by the presynaptic membrane and reassembled to be used again

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81
Q

What is acetycholine broken down by

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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82
Q 
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) breaks down norepinephrine.
Many antidepressents inhibit MAO, why?
A

By inhibiting MAO, they prolong the excitatory action of norepinephrine, relieving anxiety

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83
Q

By knowing the areas of the brain, what does this help you do

A

Understand neurological diseases and medications that affect the CNS

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84
Q

What is the cerebrum

A

The largest part of the brain responsible for “higher order” behaviour such as learning, intelligence and awareness, thought and perception of sensation

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85
Q

What does the cerebrum do

A

Recieves and interprets info

Initiates skeletal muscle movement

In charge of emotions, learning, memory and recall

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86
Q

What is the cerebrum divided by

A

The median fissure or groove

Into two hemispheres

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87
Q

True or false

Each hemisphere of the cerebrum is connected to the same side of the body

A

FALSE

they are connected to the contralateral or opposite side if the body

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88
Q

The outer part or the cerebral cortext is ___ matter containing ____

A

Gray

Cell bodies

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89
Q

The inner part of the cerebrum is ____ matter and contains ___

A

White

Myelinated axons

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90
Q

Folds in the cerebrum (raised part) are called

A

Gyri

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91
Q

The grooves in the cerebrum separating the gyri are called

A

Sulci (shallow)

Fissures (deeper)

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92
Q

What are the lobes the cerebrum is divided in to? (5)

A

Frontal
Occipital
Temporal
Parietal

Ventral cerebrum

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93
Q

What is the frontal lobe of the cerebrum

A

Rostral part of the hemispheres

Motor area

94
Q

What is the occipital lobe of the cerebrum

A

Caudal area of the hemispheres

Centers for vision

95
Q

What is the temporal lobe of the cerebrum

A

At the side near the base if the ear

Hearing center

96
Q

What is the parietal lobe of the cerebrum

A

Between the frontal and occipital lobes

Area of temperature, pressure, touch and pain perception

97
Q

What is the ventral cerebrum

A

The olfactory bulb and tract

Centers for smell

98
Q

What is the result of drugs/cell damage/ NT imbalance causing sponanteous firing of the cerebrum

A

Spontaneous movements, seizures, abnormal behaviour, or hallucinations

99
Q

If the cerebrum becomes damaged from lack of oxygen, poison or bloot clots (stroke) the animal may lose what

A

Perception of sensations

voluntary movement

Ability to learn (retain and recall info)

100
Q

What is the cerebral cortex

A

A sheet if neural tissue that is the outermost layer of the brain

Associated with conciousness, thought, emotion, reasoning, language and memory

101
Q

What is the cerebellum

A

Second largest part of the brain

Allows coordination of movement, balance, posture, and complex reflexes

102
Q

What controls Proprioception

A

Controlled by the cerebellum

It compares the intended movement of the brain with the actual position of the muscles, determines if the intensions of cerebral cortex is being cardied out

103
Q

What is proprioception

A

The sense of knowing your own body’s position

104
Q

If the cerebellum determines the movements of the cerebral cortex are not being carried out what does it do?

A

The cerebellum stimulates or inhibits the muscles to fine tune the movement

105
Q

Damage or disease to the cerebellum results in

A

Hypermetria (movements become exaggerated and jerky)

106
Q

What is a common example of hypermetria

A

Kittens have it if their mother was infected with feline panleukopenia during gestation

107
Q

What structures make the diencephalon

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland

108
Q

What does the thalamus do

A

Central relay center for sensory impulses to the cerebral cortex and all senses except smell come to the to the thalamus and gets sent to the appropriate lobe

Also interprets pain, touch, temperature

109
Q

What is the hypothalamus

A

Interface between nervous and endocrine system (communicates between pituitary gland and brain centers) controls and regulates the autonomic system

Single most important area controlling the internal environment

110
Q

Diseases and drugs that affect the hypothalamus may result in

A

Fever or compulsive eating/drinking

111
Q

What is the pituitary gland

A

The endocrine “master gland” that controls hormone regulation throughout the body

112
Q

What is the brainstem and what structures make it

A

The connection between the brain and spinal cord

Made of the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata

113
Q

What is the brain stem responsible for

A

Responsible for maitenance of basic support functions of life in the body

Operates subconsciously

114
Q

What are the 3 vital reflexes controlled by the brain stem

A

Cardiac center: rate and contractility

Vasomotor center: diameter of blood vessels (blood pressure)

Respiratory center: rhythm of breathing

115
Q

What are the non-vital reflexes controlled in the brain stem

A

Cough
Sneeze
Swallowing
Vomiting

116
Q

True or false

Many cranial nerves originate from the brain stem

A

True

117
Q

Why is it important to not go too deep with anesthesia

A

Dont want to go too deep to affect the brainstem and inhibit essential functions /reflexes

118
Q

What are the meninges, what are the 3 layers

A

Connective tissue membranes that surround, support and protect the brain and spinal cord

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

119
Q

In what order are the 3 layers of meninges

A

Dura mater is the tough outer membrane (separated from the arachnoid mater by the subdural space)

Arachnoid mater: second later that has a web like structure (cavities in the arachnoid layer hold CSF)
The have a subarachnoid space

Pia mater: inner most layer, tight to the surface if the CNS only separated by a thin layer of neuroglial

120
Q

The meninges carry a complex network of blood vessels and supply

A

Nutrients and oxygen to superficial tissues of the brain and spinal cord

121
Q

Meningitis

A

Inflammation of the meningeal membranes from a virus or bacterial infection

122
Q

In the distal spinal cord, dura mater is separated from the vertebrae, what does this allow

A

Epidurals are given in the space between the dura and vertebrae to block sensation on the spinal cord

123
Q

What is cerebrospinal fluid

A

Fluid that bathes and protects the brain and spinal cord

Formed by filtration and secretion from capillary networks called the choroid plexus in the ventricles of the brain

124
Q

True or false

Epidural space have NO cerebrospinal fluid and subarachnoid space has LOTS

A

True

125
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through

A

Cavities in the brain and spinal cord to enter pores to the subarachnoid space

126
Q

What does collection of cerebrospinal fluid sample help diagnose

A

Changes in cell composition to detect disease

127
Q

You can inject contrast media into the spinal canal to look for

A

Spinal cord compression (ex. Intervertebral disc disease)

128
Q

What is intervertebral disc disease

A

Prolapse of disk material into the vertebral canal and causes compression of the spinal cord

Most common in chondrodystrophic breeds (short legs)

Signs: lumbar pain and hind limb ataxia

129
Q

What is hydrocephalus

A

Excess accumulation of CSF

Causes expansion of ventricles and bulging of the brain

Signs: seizures, dome shaped skulls, lateral deviation of the eyes

Common in dome-skulled dogs like chihuahuas

130
Q

What is the blood brain barrier

A

A functional barrier separating the capillaries in the brain from the nervous tissue

Capillary walls are relatively impermeable (tightly aligned with brain and covered in neuroglia)

131
Q

What is the point of the blood brain barrier

A

To prevent drugs, proteins, ions and other molecules from passing into the brain from blood

132
Q

How does ivermectin work and why is it used in heartworm prevention

A

Ivermectin attacks receptors in the brain, worms dont have a blood brain barrier so easily kills the worms but has no effect on the aimal at therapeutic doses

133
Q

Why is difficult to treat meningitis it meningoencephalitis

A

Because the blood brain barrier makes it difficult for antibiotics and anti inflammatories to penetrate the brain

134
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brain

A

On On On They Travelled And Found Voldemort Guarding Very Ancient Horcruxes

135
Q

What is the first cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Olfactory : smell (sensory)

136
Q

What is the second cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Optic : vision (sensory)

137
Q

What is the third cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Oculomotor : eye movements, pupil size, focusing lens (motor)

138
Q

What is the fourth cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Trochlear : eye movement (motor)

139
Q

What is the fifth cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Trigeminal : sensations from the head/teeth, motor chewing (both)

140
Q

What is the sixth cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Abducens: eye movement (motor)

141
Q

What is the seventh cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Facial: muscles of facial expression, salivation and tears (motor)

142
Q

What is the eighth cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Vestibulocochlear: hearing and balance (sensory)

143
Q

What is the ninth cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Glossophartngeal: tongue movement, swallowing, taste, salivation (both)

144
Q

What is the tenth cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Vagus: sensory from gastrointestinal, respiratory system, motor to larynx/pharynx, parasympathetic (motor to abdominal and thoracic organs)runs next to the jugular vein and carotid artery (both)

145
Q

What is the eleventh cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Accessory: head movement (motor)

146
Q

What is the twelfth cranial nerve and what is is responsible for

A

Hypoglossal: tongue movement (motor)

147
Q

Why are there areas of enlargement at the caudal cervical and midlumbar regions

A

Accomodation for the nerve of the limbs

148
Q

True or false

White and gray matter of the spinal cord are the same as in the brain

A

FALSE

The spinal cord is gray matter surrounded by white matter (the brain is white matter surround by gray matter)

149
Q

Spinal nerves emerge from

A

The intervertebral foramen between adjacent vertebrae of the spine

150
Q

What is the dorsal root of spinal nerves

A

Carries sensory info from the body to the spinal cord

151
Q

What is the ventral root of the spinal nerve

A

Cardies motor information from the spinal cord to the body

152
Q

How are spinal nerves names

A

Named and numbered the same as the vertebrae they emerged from (thoracic, lumbar and sacrum)

153
Q

In the cervical region there are ___ nerves

A

8 (one extra than the vertebrae)

154
Q

True or false

There are fewer coccygeal spinal nerves than coccygeal vertebrae

A

True

155
Q

Spinal nerves that emerge from the spinal cord go to ___ structures

A

Somatic

156
Q

Spinal nerves that go to appendages initially form braid like arrangements known as

A

Plexuses

157
Q

The brachial plexus

A

Innervates the thoracic limbs from last 3-4 C and 1-2 T spinal nerves

Radial nerve: most cranial (damage causes paw to drag)

Median nerve: middle nerve

Ulnar nerve: most caudal (funny bone)

158
Q

What is the lumbosacral plexus

A

Innervates the pelvic limbs from last 3-5 L and first 1-3 S spinal nerves

159
Q

What happens with injury ti the facial nerve

A

Halter or lateral recumbency on the facial nerve causes dropping of the lip, ear, and nostril on that side of the face (common in horses)

160
Q

What happens with damage to the vagal nerve

A

Laryngeal paresis: muscular weakness caused by nerve damage (in horses)

161
Q

Femoral nerve

A

On medial surface of the thigh next to femoral artery and vein

Motor to muscles of the thigh and sensory to skin

162
Q

What can be damaged during birth if hind limbs are under strong traction (foals and calves)

A

The femoral nerve

163
Q

Sciatic nerve

A

On lateral thigh between bicep femoris muscle

Motor to flexors of stifle and digits

164
Q

How can the sciatic nerve be damaged

A

Pelvic or femur fractures or improper IM injections

165
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system divided into

A

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

166
Q

Sympathetic nerves come off the spinal cord in the thoracic and lumbar regions, so it is called the

A

Thoracolumbar system

167
Q

parasympathetic nerves come off the brain and sacral regions of the spinal cord so it is called the

A

Craniosacral system

168
Q

The first neuron in sequence is called the ____ and the second neuron in sequence is called the ___

A

Preganglionic neuron and the postganglionic neuron

169
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, preganglionic neurons are ___ and post ganglionic neurons are ____

A

SHORT

LONG

170
Q

What is the sympathetic ganglion chain

A

Preganglionic neurons synapse with many other neurons (to have generalized effects) in a chain of ganglia

Found in a line near the spinal cord on either side of the vertebral column

171
Q

Changes in the sympathetic nervous system often affect

A

Many organs at the same time

172
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system preganglionic neurons are ___ and they synapse with ___ postganglionic neurons

A

LONG

Very short

173
Q

General functions of the sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight)

A 
Bronchodilatiom 
Increased HR and strength 
Vasodilation to muscles
Vasoconstriction to skin, GI tract, kidneys 
Pupil dilation

These organs can die in shock due ti no stimulation

174
Q

General functions of the parasympathetic nervous system (rest and restore)

A 
Decrease bronchodilatoon 
Decreases HR and strength 
Decreases vascular changes 
Increase GI activity
Pupil constriction
175
Q

True or false

ALL preganglionic nerve fibers use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter

A

True

176
Q

In the sympathetic NS, the primary neurotransmitter used in postganglionic neurons is

A

Norepinephrine
Releases neurons called adrenergic neurons
The adrenal medulla act like a cluster if adrenergic neurons (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

177
Q

What are the adrenergic receptors in The sympathetic NS

A

Alpha 1: in blood vessels

Beta 1: in heart

Beta 2: in bronchi

(Respond to adrenergic neurons and had sympathetic NS responses depending on which one is stimulated)

178
Q

True or false

The ultimate effect of sympathetic and parasympathetic systems is determined by their postganglionic neurons

A

True

179
Q

True or false

The parasympathetic NS uses acetylcholine at the NT at both the pre and postganglionic neurons

A

True

180
Q

What receptors does the parasympathtic NS have

A

Muscarinic (on target organs)

nicotinic (on postganglionic neurons of both the parasympathetic and sympathetic NS) (and voluntary muscle motor neurons)

181
Q

What happens with stimulation of muscarinic receptors

A

Increases salivation, increased GI motility, decrease HR and constrict pupils

182
Q

Why is stimulation of the muscarinic undesirable during surgery

A

Because we dont wanr a decrease in HR or increase in GI motility

183
Q

What does atropine do

A

Blocks muscarinic receptors (antagonist)
To reduce salivation and GI motility during surgery

Ocular use: to dilate pupils

184
Q

What does stimulation of nicotinic receptors do

A

Stimulated by nicotine, stimulates parasympathetic activy and the brain

Used to be used at a dewormer in horses vecause it stimulates GI motility and make them defecate

185
Q

Reflexes

A

Rapid automatic responses meant to protect the body

186
Q

Basic reflexes

A

Unlearned and involintary “built in”

Example: patellar reflex

187
Q

Learned reflexes

A

Appear to be innate but occur only because a great deal of concious effort is put into them

(Reflex to catch a ball)

188
Q

Reflexes can be somatic or autonomic

A

Somatic: skeletal msucle contraction

Autonomic: smooth, cardia muscles and endocrine glands

189
Q

Explain the reflex arc

A

Sensory receptor detects a change

Sends signal along sensory neuron to gray matter of spinal cord or brainstem

Synapses with interneuron

Integrate info with ither sensory neurons

Reflex response sent out by motor neuron

Effect caused by the effector organ

190
Q

What can tiu use skeletal msucle reflexes to help

A

Identify, diagnose, locate and measure severity of spinal cord damage, nerve damage or muscle disease

191
Q

Stretch reflex (patellar reflex)

A

Stretch receptors in maucle detect change, sends signal to soinal cord and causes contraction

Another branch stinukate inhibitory motor neurons to the opposing muscle (to relax it)

Another branch tells the brain what happened and helps cerevellum coordinate the movement

192
Q

What is the withdrawal reflex

Ex. Flexor reflex

A 
Strong stimulus (pain) causes ralid withdrawal of the limb
Stinulates withdrawal muscles and inhibits opposing msucles

Limb is withdrawn BEFORE the brain receives the message of pain

193
Q

What is the crossed extensor reflex

A

Goes hand in hand with the wthdrawal reflex
Extension of contralateral leg ti the one that is witndrawn

Ex. Stepping on a taxk, withdrawing that limb and shifting weight ti the opposite limb

194
Q

True or false

Spinak reflexes dint require input from the brain

A

True

195
Q

True or false

Damage to the spinal cord at L1 or L2 would allow reflxes that are controlled at L3 or lower to happen

A

True

The brainwould just not recieve the sensory info through the damaged area

196
Q

What happens if the damagae ti the spinal cord is to T11 or 12

A

The reflexes would occur but response would become exaggerated (still would not feel it because of loss of signal transmission to the brain)

197
Q

Hyperreflexia

A

Occurs because normally the upper CNS would have inhibitory effect to modify the reflex, but modification cant occur with spinal cord damage

198
Q

Hyporeflexia

A

Can occur is the trauama ocxurs anywhere in the actual reflex arc (where it is mediated) including thenpart of the spinal cord involved

199
Q

Can use changes in intensity of reflexes to help

A

Localize lesions

200
Q

Babinski reflex

A

Scrape the pointy end of an instrument up the metacarpus/metatarsus

An abnormal response is if there is extension of the digits (damage to the spinal cord)

201
Q

Menace reflex

A

Move fingers toward patients eye: eye should blink

Involves optic and facial nerves

May nor be present in neonates

202
Q

Pupillary light reflex

A

Optic and oculomotor nerve

Must have direct and concensual response (construction in both eyes)

If they constrict, it does NOT mean the animal can see

Should NOT be present during surgery

203
Q

Palpebral reflex

A

When the median canthus of the eye is touched, the eye should close

Trigeminal and facial nerves

Monitors depth of anesthesia (if present they can stikl feel the surgery)!

204
Q

Corneal reflex

A

Trigeminal and facial nerve

Touch the cornea to result in blink

Reflex dimishes with anesthesia (danger of corneal damage) and used to help pronounce death

205
Q

Neurons are ___ of mitosis and therefore the body ___ replace nerve cells lost to injury/disease

A

Incapable

Cant

206
Q

If the cell body survives injury/disease then the axons

A

Can regenerate

Usually does not result in full recovery of function

207
Q

Whether a nerve recovers from damage depends on

A

How close the i jury is to the cell body

Whether the nerve sheath is damaged

208
Q

Minor injuries to nerves can regenerate

A

2-4 mm per day

209
Q

The neurological exam

A 
History
Observation 
Palpation 
Postural reactions and reflexes 
Localize the lesion 
Determine cause
210
Q

Epilepsy has a higher frequency in

A

Beagles German Shepards and cockers

211
Q

Kind charles spaniels are know for syringimyelia

A

“Fly biting”
Fluid containing cavities in the soinal cord and cerebelluk pished out foramen magnum due to flat head (herniation)
Causes hallucinations

212
Q

Wobbler syndrome seen in

A

Compression of the spinal cord in the neck

Dobermans, great danes and thoroughbred horses

213
Q

Congentital and hereditary disease are iften odserved in animals before 2 years of age

A
214
Q

Behavioural abnormalities are often due to

A

Lesions of the cerebrum, thalamus or hypothalamus

215
Q

Involuntary head tilt due to

A

Vestibular disease

216
Q

Head tilt or compulsive rolling/curcling without head tilt are often because of

A

Lesions if the cerebrum thalamus or hypothalamus

217
Q

Ataxia bobbing and tremors result frim

A

Cerebellar dysfunction

218
Q

Cerebellar abiotrophy

A

Failure to form the cerebellum

219
Q

Nystagmus

A

Rhythmic predictable movements of the eye at rest witha fast and slow ohase usualky in the horizontal plane

220
Q

Spinal accessory nerve test

A

Atrophy of the sternocephalicus muscle

221
Q

Hypoglossal nerve test

A

Atrophy if the tongue

222
Q

Testing for proprioception

A

Knucking (paw is set on dorsal surface, should immediately be corrected)

Hopping (held on 1 limb and moved laterally)

Extensor postral thurst (lowered to rhe ground, hind limbs should extend)

223
Q

Perineal/anal reflex

A

Touch the perineum and the anus should wink

224
Q

Cutaneous trunci reflex

A

Blunt object run along the skin lateral to the spinous process and thw skin should contract

225
Q

Rabies

A

Virus that affects the CNS

signs: behavioural changes, tremors, hyperesthesia (excessive response), loval area of paralysis (face/limb)

Dead in 10 days of start if signs

Always consider in causes of progressing CNS disease

226
Q

Epilepsy

A

Functional disease if the brain

May have hereditary factor or be idiopathic

Seizures are often seen for the first time when you ger than 2 years

Seizures are 1-2 minutes

Starts with a “gaze”, lateral recumbency, rapid convulsions, urinate and defecate, returns to consciousness but may he disoriented

Seen in older dogs and often with neoplasia

227
Q

Facial paralysis

A

Nerve damage to the facial nerve

Signs:
No palpebral reflex 
Immobility of ear
Facial deviation 
Eyelid may droop (bovine/equine) 
Menance test: 3rd eyelid with flick and eye retract instead of a blink (dogs/cats) 
Pendulous lip
228
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A

Neurological disorder of the eye and facial msucles caused by dusfunction of the sympathetic NS

“Tree falling syndrome” in cats
Can because by ear infections in dogs

Signs: 
retraction of eye and protrusion of 3rd eyelid 
Ptosis (dropping) of eye 
Constructed pupil 
Unequal eye sizes 
Sweating in horses

Called tequila sunrise syndrome

229
Q

Guttural pouch mycosis in horses

A

Fungal infection in the guttural pouch of horses (in eustachian tube)

The fungal infection affects the internal carotid artery, and adjacent nerves (causes laryngeal and pharyngeal paralysis)

Major signs: dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and aspiration pneumonia

230
Q

Intervertebral disc disease

A

Most common neurological disorder of dogs

Prolapse of disc material into vertebral canal which compresses the soinal cord

Common in chondrodystrophic breeds (short legs) and obese dogs

Signs: tetraplegia (paralysis of all 4 limbs), reluctance to moce and pain

Anatomy And Physiology (8 decks)

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