Endocrine System Flashcards

1
Q

Name some examples of endocrine glands

A
Hypothalamus 
Anterior/posterior pituitary
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Adrenal cortex and medulla
Pineal gland
Testes/ovaries/placenta
Pancrease 
Kidneys/liver/GIT/thymus
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2
Q

True or false

The endocrine system has ducts

A

FALSE

the endocrine system is a group of ductless glands

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3
Q

What are the functions of the endocrine system

A

Maintaining homeostasis

Driving change (growth/lactation/pregnancy)

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4
Q

How does the endocrine system fulfill its functions

A

By releasing hormones

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5
Q

Endocrine glands ____, ___ and then ___ hormones directly into the bloodstream

A

Synthesize
Store
Secrete

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6
Q

What are hormones

A

Chemical messengers

Communication and control molecules

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7
Q

When are hormones secreted

A

In response to a stimulus

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8
Q

True or false

Any hormone can bind to any receptor

A

FALSE

hormones have specific receptors at specific target organs (these receptors only respond to their specific hormone)

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9
Q

Secretion of hormones is mainly controlled by

A

Negative feedback

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10
Q

What is negative feedback

A

A feedback mechanism resulting in the inhibition or slowing of a process

Ex. Signals are sent to stop or decrease production/release of hormones

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11
Q

What else can secretion of hormones be controlled by

A

Positive feedback

Nervous stimulation

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12
Q

What is positive feedback

A

Senses something which increases production/secretion

Ex. Nursing stimulates prolactin release with stimulates more milk production

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13
Q

What is nervous stimulation in hormone secretion

A

The sympathetic nervous system causes a release of adrenalin (epinephrine) during the fight or flight response

Or

Physical stimulation causes the release of a hormone (oxytocin)

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14
Q

What are some characteristics of the hypothalamus

A

Part of the base of the brain

Links the cerebrum to the endocrine
system (consciousness of hormones)

Regulates appetite, body temp, and sleep and wake cycles

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15
Q

How is the hypothalamus connected to the pituitary gland

A

The pituitary is a gland attached to the base of the hypothalamus by a thin stalk of nerves and blood vessels

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16
Q

What is the “master gland” of the endocrine system

A

The pituitary gland

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17
Q

The blood vessels form a portal system between the ____ pituitary and the hypothalamus

A

Anterior

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18
Q

Explain the portal system between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary

A

When the hypothalamus recieves a stimulus from the CNS it secretes hormones into its portal system to regulate pituitary hormone secretion

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19
Q

What is a portal system

A

Vessels that begin and end in the capillaries, a way to transport secretions directly from one tissue to another

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20
Q

The nervous connection between the posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus allows

A

Direct transport of oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

(These are made in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary and released on stimulation by nerve impulses from the hypothalamus)

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21
Q

What kind of hormones does the hypothalamus release

A

Releasing or inhibiting hormones that affect the secretion of another hormone

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22
Q

What are some characteristics of the pituitary gland (hypophysis)

A

Controls other endocrine glands

Size of a small pea/bean

Attached to hypothalamus by a stalk and seated in a pocket of the sphenoid bone of the skull

Has a glandular anterior portion and a nervous posterior portion

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23
Q

How many hormones does the anterior pituitary produce and what are they

A
7
Growth hormone 
Prolactin 
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) 
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 
Luteinizing hormone (LH) 
Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
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24
Q

The release of hormones from the anterior pituitary is controlled by what

A

The appropriate releasing or inhibiting hormone from the hypothalamus

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25
Q

What does growth hormone do (somatotropin or somatotropic hormone)

A

Promotes body growth in young animals (bone and muscle)

Regulates metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates and lipids

Anabolism of proteins for growth, regeneration and repair of tissue

Mobilization of lipids from storage and catabolism for energy

Promotes glycogenolysis and minimizes catabolism of glucose (promotes hyperglycemia)

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26
Q

What does a deficiency in growth hormone cause

A

Dwarfism
Alopecia
Thin skin
Secondary abnormalities of thyroid, adrenal and reproductive hormones

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27
Q

What is pituitary dwarfism

A

When dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone

Small body with regular proportions

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28
Q

What does an excess in growth hormone cause

A

Giantism: excess hormone WHILE GROWING (exaggerated bone growth)

Acromegally: excess hormone when MATURE (growth plates are closed so you see cartilage proliferation around joints and facial changes) see large noses, lips and forheads

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29
Q

What does supplementation of bovine somatotropin (BST) do in the US dairy industry
What are some side effects

A

Increases milk production by 10%

Side effects: increased body temp, reduced fertility, risk of mastitis and digestive disorders because nutrients are diverted to milk production

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30
Q

What is prolactin

A

Helps trigger and mantain lactation

Secretion of prolactin and lactation are maintained as long as physical stimulation of nursing or milking continues

Animals will “dry up” if it stops (weaning)

From the anterior pituitary

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31
Q

What is thyroid stimulating hormone (AKA: thyrotropin or TSH)

A

Stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones

Regulated by the hypothalamus which releases TSH-releasing hormone

Secreted from the anterior pituitary

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32
Q

What happens to thyroid stimulating hormone if thyroid levels drop

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone will increase

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33
Q

What happens if thyroid hormone levels rise

A

Negative feedback reduces TSH production to then decrease thyroid hormone

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34
Q

What is adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

Stimulates the adrenal cortex

Controlled by negative feedback

During stress, the CNS sends signals through the hypothalamus for the release of ACTH-RH which causes release of ACTH from anterior pituitary which then causes release of cortisol and other “stress” (steriod) hormones from the adrenal cortex

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35
Q

What is the folicle stimulating hormone’s (FSH) role in females

A

Stimulates growth and development of ovarian follicles and oocyte production. Also stimulates the follicle to release estrogen

Promotes physical and behavioural changes of estrus

Released from the anterior pituitary

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36
Q

What is the folicle stimulating hormone’s (FSH) role in males

A

Stimulates growth and development of sperm (spermatogenesis)

Also has a minor role in estrogen production

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37
Q

Why is FSH used in animal production

A

To increase the number of follicles that develop

Causes the release of more than one egg

Allows some to be harvested for freezing and/or embryo transfer

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38
Q

What is luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

Ripening hormone for the follicle

Estrogens feeback to the pituitary to eventually decrease FSH and increase LH (estrogens from the follicle)

Causes the final rupture and release of the egg from the follicle

Also maintains the corpus luteum

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39
Q

What happens after the egg is released

A

The cells of the empty follcile develop into the corpus luteum and release progestins (progesterone) to help maintain pregnancy

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40
Q

What is LH’s role in males

A

Can be called interstitial cell stimulating hormone

Encourages production of testosterone

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41
Q

What are FSH and LH examples of and why

A

Gonadotropins

They stimulate the development and growth of the gonads

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42
Q

What is melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

Uncertain role in most animals at normal levels

Can cause skin to darken at high levels

In reptiles/fish/amphibians it causes rapid changes in color

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43
Q

What are some characteristics of the posterior pituitary

A

Does NOT produce any hormones

Stores and releases 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus, they get to the posterior pituitary by transport down nerve fibers

Release is directed by the hypothalamus

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44
Q

What hormones does the posterior pituitary produce

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin

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45
Q

What does antidiuretic hormone do

A

Reduces urination and encourages conservation of water (prevents diuresis) by encouraging kidneys to increase absorption of water from the urine

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46
Q

By increasing water absorption from urine what happens to the urine

A

Urine becomes concentrated, darker and stronger smelling (less water)

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47
Q

When is ADH secreted

A

When the animal is dehydrated
And
When the hypothalamus senses hemoconcentration (more concentrated RBC in blood but a decrease in volume) which signals the pituitary to release the ADH which then affects the kidneys, this is to put for water in the vessels

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48
Q

How does caffine and alcohol affect thirst

A

These inhibit ADH (so increases urination) so they do not quench thirst

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49
Q

What does a deficiency of ADH cause

A

Diabetes insipidus

Animals become PU/PD because they can’t concentrate their urine

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50
Q

How do you treat a deficiency in ADH

A

ADH mimicking drugs

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51
Q

Difference between diabetes mellitus and insipidus

A
Diabetes mellitus
Hormonal deficiency:  insulin 
Glucose in urine: yes
Urine in specific gravity: high
Urine volume: increased
Diabetes insipidus
Hormonal deficiency: ADH
Glucose in urine: No
Urine in specific gravity: low
Urine volume: increased
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52
Q

What does oxytocin do

A

Causes contraction of the uterine muscles at breeding (moves sperm up to the oviduct) and parturition (helps deliver the fetus and placenta)

Used to promote bonding during fostering

Causes milk let down in lactating females (moves milk to the lower part of the mammary gland)

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53
Q

What is release of oxytocin stimulated by

A

Sensory stimulation of nursing, intromission or the fetus at birth

Can also be associated with moving into the milking barn

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54
Q

Why is oxytocin used as a drug

A

To promote delivery of the fetus, placenta or milk

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55
Q

What are some characteristics of the thyroid gland

A

Two lobes, sometimes connected

Located on either side and just below the larynx

Composed of thousands of tiny follicles (spheres of cells around a central area) containing the thyroid hormone precursor called colloid

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56
Q

What hormones does the thyroid gland produce

A

Thyroid hormone and calcitonin

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57
Q

Thyroid hormone is produced in 2 forms

A

T3 and T4

Named for how many iodine atoms they have per molecule of hormone

Produced in response to TSH from anterior pituitary

T4 is also called thyroxine, the main form produced by the gland

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58
Q

True or false

T3 is the more physiological active form of thyroid hormone and is produced from T4 in tissues

A

True

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59
Q

What are the 3 metabolic effects of thyroid hormone

A

Calorigenic effects
Effect on protein, carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
Cardiovascular effects

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60
Q

What is the calorigenic effect of thyroid hormone and when is production increased or decreased for these effects

A

Helps heat the body by increasing metabolic rate

Production is increased with exposure to cold

Production is decreased by emotional or physical stress (makes more susceptible to cold)

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61
Q

What is thyroid hormones effect on protein, carbohydrate and lipid metabolism

A

Stimulates protein anabolism if nutrition is adequate. Catabolism of proteins if the animals is starving and thyroid levels are high

Encourages lipid catabolism

Tends to cause hyperglycemia

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62
Q

What is the thyroid hormone’s cardiovascular effect

A

Increases heart rate

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63
Q

What are the developmental effects of thyroid hormone

A

Necessary for young growing animals

Helps maturation of CNS and growth and development of muscles and bones

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64
Q

What is a goiter (caused by thyroid hormone)

A

Non cancerous thyroid gland enlargement usually caused by iodine deficiency

Thyroid gland becomes hyperplastic, enlarged but there is still deficient amounts of T3 and T4 (hypothyroid)

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65
Q

Why does a deficiency in iodine cause goiters

A

Iodine is a component of thyroid hormones, therefore if it is deficient, the body cant make T3 or T4

This decreased T4 makes the pituitary increase TSH levels

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66
Q

How do you treat goiters

A

Diets supplemented with iodized salt or treat with betadine

67
Q

What is hypothyroidism (may or may not also have a goiter)

A

Most common in adult dogs (acquired)

Low levels of T3 and mainly T4

68
Q

What are the signs of hypothyroidism

A
Alopecia 
Dry skin
Lethargy
Weight gain
Heat seeking
Slow heart rate 

All related to decreased metabolic rate

69
Q

What happens if hypothyroidism occurs in young animals

A

Causes dwarfism or cretinism

Stunted growth, abnormal bone formation, mental retardation, sluggishness

70
Q

How do you treat hypothyroidism

A

Thyroid supplements

71
Q

What is hyperthyroidism

A

Most common in cats

High levels of T4 and T3

72
Q

What are the signs of hyperthyroidism

A
Nervousness
Irritability
Weight loss (but increased appetite) because of heat melting fat 
Fast heart rate 
Vomiting 
Diarrhea 
Polyuria/polydipsia
73
Q

How do you treat hyperthyroidism

A

Surgical removal of the gland

Medication to inhibit thyroid hormone production (often for life)

Radioactive iodine

74
Q

What is calcitonin and what does it do

A

Produced by C-cells found between the thyroid follicles

Functions to keep blood calcium levels from getting too high

Stimulates storage of excess blood calcium in the bones

Lowers blood calcium

75
Q

What are the characteristics of the parathyroid gland

A

Variable in appearance and location
Normally found on or near the thyroid

Paired, one pair on the surface of the thyroid, other within the thyroid

Appear as small pale nodules

Produces one hormone

76
Q

What is the parathyroid hormone

(AKA: PTH or parathormone) and what does it do

A

Functions to keep blood calcium levels from getting too low by increasing renal retention, intestinal absorption and bone calcium mobilization

(Increases blood calcium)

Also promotes the formation of the active form of Vit D in the kidneys

77
Q

What are some examples of when PTH is inadequate causing blood calcium levels to fall (life threatening) and how do you treat it

A

Milk fever in cattle (low calcium levels due to lactation) (muscle weakness and “downer cows”)

Low calcium causes Eclampsia in dogs/cats/humans (muscle tremors, spasms and seizures)

Treat with administration of IV calcium and continue with supplements after crisis

78
Q

What does chronic excessive PTH cause

A

Weakens bones (osteoporosis)

79
Q

What is nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Diet deficient in calcium causes low blood calcium levels and increases release of PTH to mobilize it from bones

Results in osteoporosis (weak bones) in adults

In growing animals it causes weak bones and deformities called Rickets

80
Q

What is nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism called in horses, what do you see and what is it from

A

Bighead disease or Bran disease

From being fed high cereal by products, bran diets, which are low in calcium

Bone that is reabsorbed is replaced by soft fibrous tissue

Most noticeable on the flat bones of the skull and mandible (often see a big head)

81
Q

What are some characteristics of the adrenal glands

A

Paired
Found near the cranial end of kidneys
Composed of an outer adrenal cortex and an inner adrenal medulla

82
Q

What is the adrenal cortex

A

The outer layer of the adrenal gland

Composed of typical glandular tissue

Makes 3 types of hormones collectively called steroid hormones

Makes Mineralocorticoid, glucocorticoid and sex hormones

83
Q

What are mineralocorticoid hormones (aldosterone)

A

Regulates mineral salt (electrolyte) levels

Increases blood sodium, decreases potassium and hydrogen ions through effects on the kidneys (effects the filtrate that will end up as urine)

84
Q

Release of mineralocorticoid hormones is stimulated by the renin-angiotensin system, what is this

A

When the macula densa senses decreased sodium concentration, and/or the juxtaglomerular apparatus senses decreased blood flow or pressure to the kidneys, it stimulates the release of renin from the juxtaglomerular apparatus

Renin catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1

Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2

Angiotensin 2 stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex

Aldosterone increases salt (and water) absorption from the kidneys and causes vasocontriction, all increases blood pressure and sodium concentrations

85
Q

What are ACE inhibitors

A

A class of heart medications used to decrease BP by inhibiting the angiotensin converting enzyme

Also used to treat chronic renal disease (improves renal blood flow as afferent arterioles are no longer constricted)

86
Q

What are glucocorticoid hormones

A

Increase blood glucose

Includes: cortisone, cortisol, corticosterone

Associated with stress responses

Helps maintain BP

Mobilizes proteins and fats and promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver

Has anti-inflammatory effects

87
Q

Drugs like prednisone, dexanethasone, triamcinolone and hydrocortisone mimic the effects of glucocorticoids. What are these often used for and what are the side effects of iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism

A

Used to control inflammation

Polyuria/polydipsia 
Immunosuppression
Altered WBC counts
Delayed wound healing
Catabolism of proteins (fading)
Abortion 
Hyperglycemia 
Suppresion of normal adrenal cortical secretions   

Mainly used in LA for affect in blood glucose, and SA for anti-inflammatory effects

88
Q

What can hypoadrenocorticism cause

A

Low sodium, high potassium, low HR and BP, weakness, and can be life threatening

Mainly due to a deficiency of mineralocorticoid hormones

89
Q

What sex hormones do the innermost layers of the adrenal cortex produce

A

Small amounts of androgens and estrogens with minimal systemic effects (not a major site of production)

May play a role in some tumors

90
Q

What is the adrenal medulla

A

Nervous tissue organ of the adrenal gland

Hormone secreting cells are modified neurons

Produces mainly epinephrine and some norepinephrines

Responds to sympathetic stimulation

Fight or flight response

91
Q

What are the effects of hormones and direct sympathetic NS stimulation during the stress response

A

Increased HR, cardiac output, BP, RR
dialted airways (bronchodilation)
Decreased GI motility
Increase blood glucose

92
Q

What are the characteristics of the pancreas

A

Long flat organ runs along the duodenum

Has both exocrine and endocrine functions

Exocrine: secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum

Endocrine: pancreatic islets: thousands of tiny clumps of cells scattered in the pancreas, called the islets of langerhans, 3 different islets produce its own distinct hormone

93
Q

What three hormones does the pancreas secrete

A

Insulin
Glucagon
Somatostatin

94
Q

What is insulin and what does it do

A

Vital to life

Allows cells to absorb glucose (by increasing transport proteins on the cell membrane)

Increases glycogen production in liver and muscles

Increases protein and fat synthesis

Primarily effect is to lower blood glucose

95
Q

What is glucagon and what does it do

A

Not as vital as insulin because other hormones have similar effects

Raises blood glucose

Stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

96
Q

What is somatostatin

A

Inhibits secretion of insulin, glucagon and growth hormone

Decreases GI motility

97
Q

What are some characteristics of the testes

A

Paired organs found in the scrotum

Mostly coiled seminiferous tubules -which continuously produce sperm

Between the tubules are interstitial cells (endocrine cells)

98
Q

What do the interstitial cells of the testes produce

A

Androgens -primarily testosterone

99
Q

What is testosterone important for

A

Important for development of male secondary sex characteristics (muscles, libido, accessory glands, growth of penis)

Maturation of sperm

Overal metabolic effect is anabolic (muscle formation)

Production stimulated by LH from anterior pituitary

100
Q

What are some characteristics of the ovaries and what do they produce

A

Paired organs found in the abdomen behind the kidneys

Have a cyclical production of hormones and ova controlled by FSH and LH

Produces Estrogens and progestins

101
Q

What is estrogen and what does it do (from the ovaries)

A

Mainly estradiol and estrone

Produced by developing follicle cells in response to FSH

Cause physical and behavioural changes of estrus (in prep for breeding and pregnancy)

ovulation occurs at/just after LH peak

102
Q

As levels of estrogen increase, they feedback to pituitary and ___ FSH and ____ LH

A

Decrease FSH

increase LH

103
Q

What are progestins and what do they do

A

Progesterone and related hormones

After ovulation, LH stimulates the empty follicle to develop into a corpus luteum

The corpus luteum produces progestins (like progesterone)

Important for maintaining pregnancy: prepares uterus for the egg and maintains ovum there once implanted

104
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum If an animal becomes pregnant, what if they dont become pregnant

A

Pregnant: Persist due to feedback from the uterus

Not: it will regress and allow another follicle to develop

105
Q

Why are progestins used as drugs

A

Supresses estrus
Synchronize estrus
Help maintain pregnancy (especially in mares)

106
Q

What does prostaglandin F2-alpha cause

A

Luteolysis, reduces progestins and is used to synchronize or abort animals (in animals and humans)

107
Q

What hormone does the kidney produce and what does it do

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

Stimulates RBC production in response to hypoxia

108
Q

Chronic renal failure is often accompanied by

A

Anemia due to decreased EPO production

May become life threatening (need a transfusion or EPO supplementation)

109
Q

What hormone does the stomach produce, what does it do and what stimulates secretion of it

A

Gastrin
Stimulates HCl and digestive enzyme production and muscular contraction

Gastrin is stimulated by the presence of food in the stomach

110
Q

What hormones does the small intestine produce and what stimulates secretion of them

A

Secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK)

Produced in response to entry of chyme from the stomach

111
Q

What does secretin do

A

Stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate to neutralize chyme

112
Q

What does cholecystokinin do

A

Inhibits gastric secretions and gastric motility (slows down movement)

Stimulates gall bladder to contract and release bile

113
Q

What is the main purpose of the placenta

A

Helps maintain pregnancy

114
Q

What hormones does the placenta release

A

Estrogen
Progesterone
Chorionic gonadotropin

115
Q

What is chorionic gonadotropin

A

Primarily in humans and horses

It is a LH like hormone that maintains the corpus luteum

It is used in some pregnancy tests

116
Q

Describe the thymus, its role in young and adult animals, and what hormones it secretes

A

Important in developing immunity in young animals

Shrinks to a remnant in adulthood

Involved in development of T-lymphocytes important for cell-mediated immunity

Hormones include thymosin and thymopoietin

117
Q

What hormone does the pineal body produce and what does it do

A

Melatonin
Affects sleep and wake cycles
May be linked to estrus

In fish/amphibians/repriles the pineal body is close enough to the thin skull top that it can respond to light (photosensitive)

In mammals, photoreceptors in the eyes relay info to the brain including the pineal body

118
Q

True or false

Light at night disturbs sleep

A

True

119
Q

What falls into the category of eicosanoids

A

Prostaglandins
Thromboxanes
Leukotrienes

120
Q

Why are eicosanoids considered autacoid or paracrine

A

Instead of secreting into the bloodstream, they act locally staying close to the place of production

121
Q

What are eicosanoids derived from

A

Unsaturated fatty acids

122
Q

What are leukotrienes

A

Produced by WBCs

Associates with inflammation (increased vascular permeability and airways constriction)

123
Q

What are thromboxanes important for

A

Blood clotting

124
Q

What are the effects of prostaglandins (vary depending on type)

A
Vasodilation (decreases BP)
GI smooth muscle contraction/relaxation 
Bronchoconstriction 
Renal blood flow and kidney function
Platelet aggregation and blood clotting 
Promotes inflammation (PGE)
Reproductive effects of PG
125
Q

What does PGF2-alpha cause

A

Luteolysis and can cause abortion in early pregnancy or be used for estrus synchronization in live stock

126
Q

What do NSAID typically block

A

Block production of leukotrienes/thromboxanes/prostaglandins

Ratio varies with the drug

127
Q

What is giantism

A

Excessive growth as a result of excess growth hormone during developments (pre puberty)

128
Q

What is acromegaly

What do you see

A

Excessive growth hormone when mature

Excess bone, cartilage and muscle growth

See enlarged skulls, hands and feet

129
Q

What is different about pituitary dwarfism

A

Children are small in size but have normal body proportions

130
Q

What is diabetes mellitus caused by

A

Insufficient insulin production by the pancreas leading to hyperglycemia

131
Q

What are the predisposing factors of diabetes mellitus

A

Obesity
Endocrine diseases such as: cushing’s disease (hyperadrenocorticism)

hyperthyroidism

(both of which increase blood glucose and therefore cause hyperglycemia and both wear out pancreatic islets due to constant production of insulin)

Hypothyroidism (immune malfunction)

132
Q

What are the clinical signs of diabetes mellitus

A

Polyuria/polydipsia

Increased appetite

Weightloss

Lethargy

Cataracts (after continuous exposure to high levels of glucose)

133
Q

How is diabetes mellitus diagnosed

A

Detection of elevated blood glucose and glucose in the urine

134
Q

How do you treat diabetes mellitus

A

Subcutaneous injections of insulin

Close monitoring of food intake, blood and urine glucose levels

Special diets may stabilize insulin levels and dosages

135
Q

What are some complications associated with diabetes mellitus

A

Ketoacidosis: without insulin the body breaks fown fats producing ketones (see hyperglycemia, glucose and ketons in urine, anorexia, dehydration, vomiting, depression and collapse)

Bacterial infections (conjunctivitis and UTIs)

Insulin induced hypoglycemia: see restlessness, ataxia, muscle twitching and seizures. May cause comas and death

136
Q

What is diabetes insipidus caused by

A

Failure of the kidneys to reabsorb water. Can be from a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone or failure of the renal collecting ducts to respond to ADH

137
Q

What are the clinical signs of diabetes insipidus

A

Polyuria and polydipsia

Very dilute urine

138
Q

How is diabetes insipidus diagnosed

A

By with holiding water and monitoring urine specific gravity

Administering a synthetic ADH and monitoring specific gravity of urine

139
Q

What causes cushing’s disease (HYPERadrenocorticism)

A

Excessive administration of steroids (iatrogenic) or

by an over production of steroids by the adrenal cortex (normally due to pituitary or adrenal neoplasia)

140
Q

What are the clinical signs of cushing’s disease

A

Polyuria and polydipsia

Increased appetite

Abdominal distension

Muscle atrophy and weakness

Lethargy

Thinning skin and alopecia

More susceptible to infections

141
Q

How is cushing’s disease diagnosed

A

Blood tests which involve taking a base line blood sample, injecting ACTH and/or dexamethasone and then taking timed blood samples to monitor for cortisol levels

142
Q

What happens in the most common form of cushing’s disease due to a pituitary tumor

A

The negative feeback system fails and the pituitary continues to produce ACTH despite the high cortisol levels in the blood

143
Q

What is addison’s disease (HYPOadrenocorticism) caused by

A

Caused by reduction or failure of steroid (aldosterone) production by the adrenal cortex. This can be from neoplasia, atrophy of the adrenal cortex or long term steroid administration (iatrogenic)

144
Q

What are the clinical signs of addison’s disease

A
Polyuria and polydipsia 
Anorexia
Vomiting and diarrhea 
Hypotension
Bradycardia and collapse
145
Q

How is addison’s disease diagnosed

A

Blood tests for electrolyte imbalances (low sodium and high potassium) and ACTH stimulation test

146
Q

What is the treatment for addison’s disease

A

Administration of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

147
Q

How does aldosterone affect the sodium potassium pumps

A

Inserts sodium potassium pumps into the lumen and activates the pump between the lumen and blood

148
Q

Describe hyperthyroidism, the clinical signs, who is is normally seen in and the treatment

A

Increases thyroid activity (too much thyroxine)

Mainly seen in middle aged cats

Signs: hyperactivity, increased metabolic rate, nervousness, excitability, tachycardia, polyphagia, polyuria and polydipsia, weight loss

Treatment: surgical removal of the thyroid, radioactive iodine, chemotherapy drugs for life, prescription diets

149
Q

Describe hypothyroidism, the clinical signs, who is is normally seen in and the treatment

A

Decreased thyroid activity (decreased thyroxine)

Mainly seen in middle aged dogs

Signs: letharygy, weakness, bradycardia, decreased metabolic rate, dermatological changes including alopecia, dry skin and hyperpigmentation, heat seeking

Treatment: thyroid hormone supplements for life

150
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism caused by

A

Excessive parathyroid hormone secretion due to neoplasia of the parathyroid gland (primary) or renal disease (secondary) or nutritional deficiencies (secondary)

151
Q

What does primary hyperparathyroidism cause and what are the signs

A

Increases blood calcium and tissue calcification

Signs: polyuria/polydipsia (due to renal damage from calcification), inappetance, lethargy and weakness

152
Q

What is secondary hyperparathyroidism generally from

A

Low blood calcium (for any reason) so PTH secretion increases to compensate

153
Q

Describe renal secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Low blood calcium due to kidney disease with insufficient renal production of calcitriol (active form of Vit D)

154
Q

Describe nutritional hyperparathyroidism, what are the signs

A

Inadequate calcium in the diet (fed mostly grain or meat)

Signs: due to excessive calcium resorption from bones (osteoporosis) including:
Rubber jaw, skeletal pain, pathological factors, limb deformities (rickets) if animal is growing, lameness, reluctance to move)

155
Q

What is the objective of a synchronization program in cattle

A

To manipulate the estrous cycle of normally cycling females so that a large percentage will exhibit estrus with normal fertility at a predetermined time

156
Q

Why does synchronization often go in hand with artificial insemination

A

To enhance genetic contribution using desirable steers

Or used to further enhance breeding/calving dates

157
Q

Why are synchronization programs most successful with heifers

A

Due to lack of interference from extraneous factors

158
Q

What are some factors that complicate or prolong synchronization processes

A

Lactation and the suckling stimulus prolong the postpartum period to first estrus

159
Q

What are the 4 common hormones used in synchronization programs

A

Prostaglandins
Estrogens
Progestogens
Gonadotropin releasing hormone

160
Q

What do prostaglandins do to aid synchronization

A

Causes regression of the corpus luteum (abortion) (F2-alpha) and allows the cow to return to heat

161
Q

What do estrogens do to aid synchronization

A

Stop FSH production

162
Q

What do progestogens do to aid synchronization

A

Given as a controlled internal drug release (CIDR) intravaginally to slowly release progesterone (or given by feeding) to suppress ovulation and estrus (follicles can still develop)

Puts the body in the progesterone phase

163
Q

What do gonadotropin releasing hormone do to aid synchronization

A

Stimulates the release of FSH and LH, and stimulates follicle maturation and ovulation