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Pathology > Neoplasia, TBP > Flashcards

Neoplasia, TBP Flashcards

1
Q

Neoplasm literally means

A

New growth

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2
Q

T/F: Neoplams refers to a malignancy

A

F

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3
Q

Benign neoplasm from glandular cells

A

Adenoma

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4
Q

Malignant neoplasm from epithelial cells

A

Carcinoma

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5
Q

Malignant neoplasm from mesenchymal cells

A

Sarcoma

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6
Q

Mesenchymal cells (2)

A

1) Fat
2) Muscle
3) Bone

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7
Q

Malignant neoplasm from lymphocytes

A

Lymphoma

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8
Q

Malignant neoplasm from melanocytes

A

Melanoma

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9
Q

Malignant neoplasm derived from germ cells

A

Germ cell tumor

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10
Q

Benign neoplasm of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyoma

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11
Q

T/F: Hepatoma is a benign neoplasm of the liver

A

F

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12
Q

T/F Mesothelioma is benign

A

F

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13
Q

Malignant germ cell neoplasm of testis

A

Seminoma

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14
Q

Malignant neoplasm of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyosarcoma

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15
Q

Characteristic feature of a well or moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

A

Keratin pearl

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16
Q

Refers to how histologically similar to the normal tissue the neoplasm is

A

Differentiation

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17
Q

Refers to lack of differentiation

A

Anaplasia

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18
Q

Refers to disordered growth of epithelium

A

Dysplasia

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19
Q

T/F Dysplasia is a precursor to malignancy

A

T

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20
Q

T/F Dysplasia always progresses to a malignancy

A

F

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21
Q

T/F Dysplasia is reversible

A

T

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22
Q

Refers to full-thickness dysplasia of epithelium

A

Carcinoma in situ

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23
Q

Refers to a disorganized collection of tissue, with the tissue composing the mass being tissue that is normally found in the organ in which the mass occurred

A

Hamartoma

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24
Q

T/F A hamartoma is a neoplasm

A

F

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25
Q

Refers to a mass composed of ectopic tissue and is not a neoplasm

A

Choristoma

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26
Q

A mass projecting from a mucosal surface

A

Polyp

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27
Q

T/F A polyp may or may not be a neoplasm

A

T

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28
Q

Histologic features of malignancy (4)

A

1) Pleomorphism
2) Abnormal and increased mitotic figures
3) Hyperchromasia
4) Hypercellularity with loss of normal polarity

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29
Q

Hyperchromasia refers to

A

Refers to increased basophilia of nucleus

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30
Q

Refers to the proportion of neoplastic cells in the proliferative phase

A

Growth fraction

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31
Q

At the point when most malignant tumours are clinically detected, the growth fraction is usually

A

20%

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32
Q

Single most important feature distinguishing benign from malignant
Source: Robbins

A

Metastasis

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33
Q

Through which sarcomas metastasize

A

Blood

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34
Q

Throuch which carcinomas metastasize

A

Lymphatics

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35
Q

Malignancies that do not metastasise but invade (2)

A

1) Gliomas

2) Basal cell carcinoma of skin

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36
Q

___% of malignant solid tumours have metastases at the time of clinical detection

A

30%

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37
Q

Cells that initiate and sustain a neoplasm

A

Cancer cells

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38
Q

Eradication of neoplasm requires

A

Removal of the stem cells

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39
Q

Most common cancer

A

Lung cancer

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40
Q

Second most common cancer

A

Breast cancer

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41
Q

Third most common cancer

A

Colorectal cancer

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42
Q

Fourth most common cancer

A

Prostate cancer

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43
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Lung

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44
Q

2nd most common cancer in men

A

Prostate

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45
Q

3rd most common cancer in men

A

Colorectal

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46
Q

Most common cancer in women

A

Breast

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47
Q

2nd most common cancer in women

A

Colorectal

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48
Q

3rd most common cancer in women

A

Lung

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49
Q

4th most common cancer in women

A

Cervical

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50
Q

Most common cause of cancer deaths in men and women

A

Lung CA

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51
Q

2nd most common causes of cancer deaths in men

A

Prostate and colon

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52
Q

2nd most common causes of cancer deaths in women

A

Breast and colon

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53
Q

T/F One mutation alone is enough to result in the development of a neoplasm

A

F

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54
Q

T/F Most familial neoplasms have identifiable inherited mutation

A

F

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55
Q

Features of a familial neoplasm (3)

A

1) Early onset
2) 2 or more close relatives
3) Multiple or bilateral tumors

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56
Q

Examples of familial neoplasms (3)

A

1) Breast
2) Colon
3) Ovarian

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57
Q

Genes associated with breast neoplasm (tumor suppressor genes)

A

BRCA-1 and BRCA-2

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58
Q

Virus-associated neoplasm: HTLV-1

A

Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma

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59
Q

Virus-associated neoplasm: HPV

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

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60
Q

Virus-associated neoplasm: EBV (5)

A

1) Burkitt lymphoma
2) Post-transplantation lymphoproliferative disorder
3) B-cell lymphomas in AIDS patients
4) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
5) Some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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61
Q

EBV initiate a neoplasm by binding to what receptor

A

CD21

62
Q

Virus-associated neoplasm: HBV

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

63
Q

HBV initiates a neoplasm through chronic inflammation and binding with

A

p53

64
Q

Virus-associated neoplasm: HHV-8 (2)

A

1) Kaposi sarcoma

2) Primary effusion lymphoma

65
Q

Refers to loss of body fat and muscle and weakness and anorexia associate with a neoplasm

A

Cachexia

66
Q

Refers to side effects of a neoplasm not attributable to functions normally associated with the cell type of origin or by location of the tumor

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome

67
Q

PTH-like protein is produced by these carcinomas resulting in hypercalcemia (3)

A

1) Squamous cell CA of lung
2) Breast CA
3) Renal cell CA

68
Q

ACTH-like protein is produced by these carcinomas resulting in Cushing syndrome (2)

A

1) Small cell lung CA

2) Pancreatic carcinoma

69
Q

ADH is produced by these neoplasms (2)

A

1) Small cell lung CA

2) Cerebral neoplasms

70
Q

EPO is produced by these carcinomas resulting in polycythemia (3)

A

1) Renal cell CA
2) Hepatocellular CA
3) Cerebellar hemangioblastoma

71
Q

A paraneoplastic syndrome in which a myasthenia gravis-like syndrome is produced due to antibodies against presynaptic Ca channels at the NMJ

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

72
Q

Lambert-Eaton syndrome is seen in what cancer

A

1) Thymoma

2) Small cell CA

73
Q

Most common malignant neoplasm of the liver

A

Metastasis

74
Q

Most common malignancy that metastasises to the liver

A 
Pulmonary neoplasm (TBP)
Colon > Stomach > Pancreas > Breast > Lung ("Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver" USMLE)
75
Q

Mutations are acquired through damage caused by ___

A

Initiators

76
Q

These cause cell growth through promotion of the cell cycle and thus cause the propagation of mutations induced by initiators

A

Promoters

77
Q

T/F: Initiators and promoters can cause neoplasia independent of each other

A

F

78
Q

Refers to genes commonly used during normal growth and development that have the potential to produce neoplasms through uncontrolled expression

A

Proto-oncogenes

79
Q

Most common means by which oncogenes cause unregulated cell growth

A

Promotion of cell division

80
Q

Refers to genes that function to help control cell growth, the loss of which results in uncontrolled cell growth

A

Tumor suppressor genes

81
Q

Syndrome-associated gene: Familial retinoblastoma

A

Rb

82
Q

Syndrome-associated gene: FAP

A

APC

83
Q

Syndrome-associated gene: Li-Fraumeni

A

p53

84
Q

Syndrome-associated gene: MEN 1

A

MEN1 (menin)

85
Q

Syndrome-associated gene: MEN 2a

A

RET

86
Q

Syndrome-associated gene: VHL

A

VHL

87
Q

Syndrome-associated neoplasms: Familial retinoblastoma (2)

A

1) Retinoblastoma

2) Osteosarcoma

88
Q

Syndrome-associated neoplasms: FAP

A

Colonic carcinoma

89
Q

Syndrome-associated neoplasms: Li-Fraumeni (2)

A

1) Sarcomas

2) Breast CA

90
Q

Syndrome-associated neoplasms: MEN 1 (3)

A

PPP

1) Pituitary adenomas
2) Parathyroid hyperplasia
3) Pancreatic endocrine neoplasia

91
Q

Syndrome-associated neoplasms: MEN 2a (2)

A

1) Medullary thyroid carcinoma

2) Pheochromocytoma

92
Q

Syndrome-associated neoplasms: VHL (2)

A

1) Cerebellar hemangioblastoma

2) Renal cell CA

93
Q

Inheritance pattern of hereditary non-polyposis colon CA

A

Autosomal dominant

94
Q

Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Hepatocellular CA

A

Cirrhosis (peristent regenaration and repair)

95
Q

Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Endometrial CA

A

Endometrial hyperplasia (hyperplastic process)

96
Q

Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: SCC of cervix

A

CIN (dysplastic process)

97
Q

Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Colonic adenocarcinoma

A

Adenomatous polyp (dysplastic process)

98
Q

Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Gastric adenoCA

A

Atrophic gastritis (chronic inflammation)

99
Q

Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Colonic adenocarcinoma

A

UC (chronic inflammation)

100
Q

T/F Chronic pancreatitis is premalignant

A

F

101
Q

T/F Conversion of 1 of 2 allelic genes from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene is sufficient to promote neoplasia

A

T

102
Q

T/F Loss of 1 of 2 tumor suppressor genes is sufficient to promote neoplasia

A

F (two-hit hypothesis)

103
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Aflatoxin

A

Hepatocellular CA

104
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Thorotrast

A

Angiosarcoma of liver

105
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Vinyl-chloride

A

Angiosarcoma of liver

106
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Asbestos (2)

A

1) Mesothelioma

2) Bronchogenic carcinoma

107
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Arsenic

A

SCC of liver

108
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Aniline dyes

A

Transitional cell CA of bladder

109
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Nitrosamines

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

110
Q

Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Polycyclic hydrocarbons

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

111
Q

Growth factor produced by glioblastomas

A

PDGF

112
Q

Growth factor receptor-associated cancer: RET receptor

A

Medullary and papillary thyroid CA (MEN syndrome)

113
Q

Growth factor receptor-associated cancer: ERB B1 (an EGF receptor)

A

1) SCC of lung

2) Glioma

114
Q

Growth factor receptor-associated cancer: ERB B2 (an EGF receptor)

A

1) Breast CA

2) Ovarian

115
Q

RAS gene mutation is seen in 90% of what neoplasm

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

116
Q

Neoplasms associated with mutations of MYC gene (4)

A

1) Burkitt lymphoma
2) Breast CA
3) Lung CA
4) Colon CA

117
Q

The most common tumor suppressor genes with mutations within neoplasms (2)

A

1) Retinoblastoma (RB)

2) p53

118
Q

Mutation of this tumor suppressor gene is found in >70% of tumors

A

p53

119
Q

Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: PSA

A

Prostatic adenoCA

120
Q

Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: CEA

A

1) Colonic CA

2) Pancreatic CA

121
Q

Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: AFP

A

1) Hepatocellular CA

2) Yolk sac tumors

122
Q

Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: b-HCG

A

Choriocarcinoma

123
Q

Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: Tartrate-resistant ACP

A

Hairy cell leukemia

124
Q

Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: CA-125

A

Ovarian CA

125
Q

Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: ALP

A

Bony metastases

126
Q

Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Pancreatic cancer

A

TGF-b

127
Q

Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Neurofibromas and malignant nerves sheath tumors

A

NF-1

128
Q

Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Renal cell CA

A

VHL

129
Q

Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Endomterial CA

A

PTEN

130
Q

Syndrome associated with PTEN

A

Cowden syndrome

131
Q

Gene that is an inhibitor of apoptosis

A

Bcl-2

132
Q

Bcl-2 is associated with what neoplasm

A

Follicular lymphoma

133
Q

Gene that is a promoter of apoptosis

A

p53

134
Q

Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: Cytokeratin

A

Carcinomas

135
Q

Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: Desmin

A

Benign and malignant neoplasms of smooth and skeletal muscles

136
Q

Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: GFAP

A

Astrocytomas

137
Q

Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: HMB-45

A

Melanoma

138
Q

Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: AFP

A

1) Hepatocellular CA

2) Yolk sac tumor

139
Q

Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: Chromogranin A

A

Small cell CA

140
Q

General method of migration of timor cells

A

Increased expression of CD44 adhesion molecule used by T lymphocytes to migrate to lymph nodes

141
Q

Microscopic characteristics of dysplastic cells

A

1) Disorganized growth
2) Hyperchromasia
3) Mitotic figures
4) Increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio

142
Q

Differentiation of a timor as determined by the pathologist

A

Grade

143
Q

Refers to how similar the tumour cells look when compared with the cell type of origin

A

Differentiation

144
Q

Refers to the extent of the tumor based upon both objective pathologic and objective clinical criteria

A

Stage

145
Q

Most common system used in staging

A

TNM

146
Q

Grade vs stage: Good prognostic value

A

Stage

147
Q

Most common sites of cancer metastasis

Source: National Cancer Institute

A

1) Bone
2) Liver
3) Lung

148
Q

The only primary cancer that does not metastasise to the liver
Source: www.myvmc.com

A

Brain

149
Q

Normal nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio

Source: Robbins

A

1:6 to 1:4

150
Q

Known as guardian of the genome

Source: Robbins

A

p53

151
Q

Most common GI malignancy

Source: Robbins

A

Colon adenocarcinoma

Pathology (16 decks)

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