Neoplasia, TBP Flashcards

1
Q

Neoplasm literally means

A

New growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: Neoplams refers to a malignancy

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Benign neoplasm from glandular cells

A

Adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Malignant neoplasm from epithelial cells

A

Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Malignant neoplasm from mesenchymal cells

A

Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mesenchymal cells (2)

A

1) Fat
2) Muscle
3) Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Malignant neoplasm from lymphocytes

A

Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Malignant neoplasm from melanocytes

A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Malignant neoplasm derived from germ cells

A

Germ cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Benign neoplasm of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F: Hepatoma is a benign neoplasm of the liver

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F Mesothelioma is benign

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Malignant germ cell neoplasm of testis

A

Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Malignant neoplasm of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Characteristic feature of a well or moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

A

Keratin pearl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Refers to how histologically similar to the normal tissue the neoplasm is

A

Differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Refers to lack of differentiation

A

Anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Refers to disordered growth of epithelium

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F Dysplasia is a precursor to malignancy

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F Dysplasia always progresses to a malignancy

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F Dysplasia is reversible

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Refers to full-thickness dysplasia of epithelium

A

Carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Refers to a disorganized collection of tissue, with the tissue composing the mass being tissue that is normally found in the organ in which the mass occurred

A

Hamartoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F A hamartoma is a neoplasm

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Refers to a mass composed of ectopic tissue and is not a neoplasm
Choristoma
26
A mass projecting from a mucosal surface
Polyp
27
T/F A polyp may or may not be a neoplasm
T
28
Histologic features of malignancy (4)
1) Pleomorphism 2) Abnormal and increased mitotic figures 3) Hyperchromasia 4) Hypercellularity with loss of normal polarity
29
Hyperchromasia refers to
Refers to increased basophilia of nucleus
30
Refers to the proportion of neoplastic cells in the proliferative phase
Growth fraction
31
At the point when most malignant tumours are clinically detected, the growth fraction is usually
20%
32
Single most important feature distinguishing benign from malignant Source: Robbins
Metastasis
33
Through which sarcomas metastasize
Blood
34
Throuch which carcinomas metastasize
Lymphatics
35
Malignancies that do not metastasise but invade (2)
1) Gliomas | 2) Basal cell carcinoma of skin
36
___% of malignant solid tumours have metastases at the time of clinical detection
30%
37
Cells that initiate and sustain a neoplasm
Cancer cells
38
Eradication of neoplasm requires
Removal of the stem cells
39
Most common cancer
Lung cancer
40
Second most common cancer
Breast cancer
41
Third most common cancer
Colorectal cancer
42
Fourth most common cancer
Prostate cancer
43
Most common cancer in men
Lung
44
2nd most common cancer in men
Prostate
45
3rd most common cancer in men
Colorectal
46
Most common cancer in women
Breast
47
2nd most common cancer in women
Colorectal
48
3rd most common cancer in women
Lung
49
4th most common cancer in women
Cervical
50
Most common cause of cancer deaths in men and women
Lung CA
51
2nd most common causes of cancer deaths in men
Prostate and colon
52
2nd most common causes of cancer deaths in women
Breast and colon
53
T/F One mutation alone is enough to result in the development of a neoplasm
F
54
T/F Most familial neoplasms have identifiable inherited mutation
F
55
Features of a familial neoplasm (3)
1) Early onset 2) 2 or more close relatives 3) Multiple or bilateral tumors
56
Examples of familial neoplasms (3)
1) Breast 2) Colon 3) Ovarian
57
Genes associated with breast neoplasm (tumor suppressor genes)
BRCA-1 and BRCA-2
58
Virus-associated neoplasm: HTLV-1
Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma
59
Virus-associated neoplasm: HPV
Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix
60
Virus-associated neoplasm: EBV (5)
1) Burkitt lymphoma 2) Post-transplantation lymphoproliferative disorder 3) B-cell lymphomas in AIDS patients 4) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 5) Some cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma
61
EBV initiate a neoplasm by binding to what receptor
CD21
62
Virus-associated neoplasm: HBV
Hepatocellular carcinoma
63
HBV initiates a neoplasm through chronic inflammation and binding with
p53
64
Virus-associated neoplasm: HHV-8 (2)
1) Kaposi sarcoma | 2) Primary effusion lymphoma
65
Refers to loss of body fat and muscle and weakness and anorexia associate with a neoplasm
Cachexia
66
Refers to side effects of a neoplasm not attributable to functions normally associated with the cell type of origin or by location of the tumor
Paraneoplastic syndrome
67
PTH-like protein is produced by these carcinomas resulting in hypercalcemia (3)
1) Squamous cell CA of lung 2) Breast CA 3) Renal cell CA
68
ACTH-like protein is produced by these carcinomas resulting in Cushing syndrome (2)
1) Small cell lung CA | 2) Pancreatic carcinoma
69
ADH is produced by these neoplasms (2)
1) Small cell lung CA | 2) Cerebral neoplasms
70
EPO is produced by these carcinomas resulting in polycythemia (3)
1) Renal cell CA 2) Hepatocellular CA 3) Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
71
A paraneoplastic syndrome in which a myasthenia gravis-like syndrome is produced due to antibodies against presynaptic Ca channels at the NMJ
Lambert-Eaton syndrome
72
Lambert-Eaton syndrome is seen in what cancer
1) Thymoma | 2) Small cell CA
73
Most common malignant neoplasm of the liver
Metastasis
74
Most common malignancy that metastasises to the liver
``` Pulmonary neoplasm (TBP) Colon > Stomach > Pancreas > Breast > Lung ("Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver" USMLE) ```
75
Mutations are acquired through damage caused by ___
Initiators
76
These cause cell growth through promotion of the cell cycle and thus cause the propagation of mutations induced by initiators
Promoters
77
T/F: Initiators and promoters can cause neoplasia independent of each other
F
78
Refers to genes commonly used during normal growth and development that have the potential to produce neoplasms through uncontrolled expression
Proto-oncogenes
79
Most common means by which oncogenes cause unregulated cell growth
Promotion of cell division
80
Refers to genes that function to help control cell growth, the loss of which results in uncontrolled cell growth
Tumor suppressor genes
81
Syndrome-associated gene: Familial retinoblastoma
Rb
82
Syndrome-associated gene: FAP
APC
83
Syndrome-associated gene: Li-Fraumeni
p53
84
Syndrome-associated gene: MEN 1
MEN1 (menin)
85
Syndrome-associated gene: MEN 2a
RET
86
Syndrome-associated gene: VHL
VHL
87
Syndrome-associated neoplasms: Familial retinoblastoma (2)
1) Retinoblastoma | 2) Osteosarcoma
88
Syndrome-associated neoplasms: FAP
Colonic carcinoma
89
Syndrome-associated neoplasms: Li-Fraumeni (2)
1) Sarcomas | 2) Breast CA
90
Syndrome-associated neoplasms: MEN 1 (3)
PPP 1) Pituitary adenomas 2) Parathyroid hyperplasia 3) Pancreatic endocrine neoplasia
91
Syndrome-associated neoplasms: MEN 2a (2)
1) Medullary thyroid carcinoma | 2) Pheochromocytoma
92
Syndrome-associated neoplasms: VHL (2)
1) Cerebellar hemangioblastoma | 2) Renal cell CA
93
Inheritance pattern of hereditary non-polyposis colon CA
Autosomal dominant
94
Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Hepatocellular CA
Cirrhosis (peristent regenaration and repair)
95
Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Endometrial CA
Endometrial hyperplasia (hyperplastic process)
96
Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: SCC of cervix
CIN (dysplastic process)
97
Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Colonic adenocarcinoma
Adenomatous polyp (dysplastic process)
98
Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Gastric adenoCA
Atrophic gastritis (chronic inflammation)
99
Cancer-associated preneoplastic condition: Colonic adenocarcinoma
UC (chronic inflammation)
100
T/F Chronic pancreatitis is premalignant
F
101
T/F Conversion of 1 of 2 allelic genes from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene is sufficient to promote neoplasia
T
102
T/F Loss of 1 of 2 tumor suppressor genes is sufficient to promote neoplasia
F (two-hit hypothesis)
103
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Aflatoxin
Hepatocellular CA
104
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Thorotrast
Angiosarcoma of liver
105
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Vinyl-chloride
Angiosarcoma of liver
106
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Asbestos (2)
1) Mesothelioma | 2) Bronchogenic carcinoma
107
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Arsenic
SCC of liver
108
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Aniline dyes
Transitional cell CA of bladder
109
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Nitrosamines
Gastric adenocarcinoma
110
Carcinogen-associated neoplasm: Polycyclic hydrocarbons
Bronchogenic carcinoma
111
Growth factor produced by glioblastomas
PDGF
112
Growth factor receptor-associated cancer: RET receptor
Medullary and papillary thyroid CA (MEN syndrome)
113
Growth factor receptor-associated cancer: ERB B1 (an EGF receptor)
1) SCC of lung | 2) Glioma
114
Growth factor receptor-associated cancer: ERB B2 (an EGF receptor)
1) Breast CA | 2) Ovarian
115
RAS gene mutation is seen in 90% of what neoplasm
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
116
Neoplasms associated with mutations of MYC gene (4)
1) Burkitt lymphoma 2) Breast CA 3) Lung CA 4) Colon CA
117
The most common tumor suppressor genes with mutations within neoplasms (2)
1) Retinoblastoma (RB) | 2) p53
118
Mutation of this tumor suppressor gene is found in >70% of tumors
p53
119
Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: PSA
Prostatic adenoCA
120
Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: CEA
1) Colonic CA | 2) Pancreatic CA
121
Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: AFP
1) Hepatocellular CA | 2) Yolk sac tumors
122
Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: b-HCG
Choriocarcinoma
123
Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: Tartrate-resistant ACP
Hairy cell leukemia
124
Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: CA-125
Ovarian CA
125
Tumor marker-associated neoplasm: ALP
Bony metastases
126
Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Pancreatic cancer
TGF-b
127
Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Neurofibromas and malignant nerves sheath tumors
NF-1
128
Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Renal cell CA
VHL
129
Cancer-associated tumor suppressor gene: Endomterial CA
PTEN
130
Syndrome associated with PTEN
Cowden syndrome
131
Gene that is an inhibitor of apoptosis
Bcl-2
132
Bcl-2 is associated with what neoplasm
Follicular lymphoma
133
Gene that is a promoter of apoptosis
p53
134
Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: Cytokeratin
Carcinomas
135
Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: Desmin
Benign and malignant neoplasms of smooth and skeletal muscles
136
Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: GFAP
Astrocytomas
137
Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: HMB-45
Melanoma
138
Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: AFP
1) Hepatocellular CA | 2) Yolk sac tumor
139
Immunohistochemical stain-associated neoplasm: Chromogranin A
Small cell CA
140
General method of migration of timor cells
Increased expression of CD44 adhesion molecule used by T lymphocytes to migrate to lymph nodes
141
Microscopic characteristics of dysplastic cells
1) Disorganized growth 2) Hyperchromasia 3) Mitotic figures 4) Increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
142
Differentiation of a timor as determined by the pathologist
Grade
143
Refers to how similar the tumour cells look when compared with the cell type of origin
Differentiation
144
Refers to the extent of the tumor based upon both objective pathologic and objective clinical criteria
Stage
145
Most common system used in staging
TNM
146
Grade vs stage: Good prognostic value
Stage
147
Most common sites of cancer metastasis | Source: National Cancer Institute
1) Bone 2) Liver 3) Lung
148
The only primary cancer that does not metastasise to the liver Source: www.myvmc.com
Brain
149
Normal nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio | Source: Robbins
1:6 to 1:4
150
Known as guardian of the genome | Source: Robbins
p53
151
Most common GI malignancy | Source: Robbins
Colon adenocarcinoma