GI TBP Flashcards

1
Q

2 main symptoms related to pathology of the GI tract

A

1) Abdominal pain

2) GI hemorrhage

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2
Q

Most frequent category/cause of chronic abdominal pain

A

Functional

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3
Q

Landmark that separates the upper GI tract from the lower GI tract

A

Ligament of Treitz

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4
Q

Pediatric congenital malformation that most commonly presents during adulthood or may remain asymptomatic throughout life

A

Meckel diverticulum

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5
Q

Congenital pyloric stenosis: Male vs female

A

Male

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6
Q

Congenital pyloric stenosis: Associated syndromes (2)

A

1) Turner

2) Trisomy 18

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7
Q

Congenital pyloric stenosis: Associated drug

A

Erythromycin

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8
Q

Duodenal atresia: Associated congenital anomaly

A

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

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9
Q

Duodenal atresia: Symptom

A

Bilious vomiting in the first 24 hours of life

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10
Q

Duodenal atresia: Appearance on plain film (2)

A

1) Double-bubble sign

2) Paucity of gas distal to duodenum

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11
Q

Hirschprung disease: Males vs females

A

Males

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12
Q

Hirschprung disease: Common associated congenital anomaly

A

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

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13
Q

Hirschprung disease: Pathogenesis

A

Aganglionosis of intestinal segment due to dysfunctional neural crest migration

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14
Q

Type of Hirschrpung that involves entire colon

A

Long-segment

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15
Q

Type of Hirschrpung that involves rectum and sigmoid

A

Short-segment

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16
Q

Hirschprung disease: Complication

A

Toxic megacolon

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17
Q

Intussusception: Triad

A

1) Colicky abdominal pain
2) Bilious vomiting
3) Currant jelly stools

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18
Q

Intussusception: PE

A

Sausage-shaped mass on the RUQ

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19
Q

Intussusception: Ultrasound

A

Target sign

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20
Q

Intussusception: Both a diagnostic and therapeutic intervention

A

Contrast enema

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21
Q

Meckel diverticulum: Persistent embryologic structure

A

Omphalomesenteric duct

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22
Q

Layers that are present in a true diverticulum

A

All layers of wall

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23
Q

T/F Most Meckel diverticula remain asymptomatic

A

T

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24
Q

Meckel diverticulum: Possible presentations

A

1) Intussusception
2) Obstruction
3) Bleeding (20%)

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25
Q

Muscle layer deficient in a false diverticulum

A

Muscularis propria

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26
Q

What herniates in a false diverticulum

A

Mucosa

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27
Q

Most common cause of hematochezia in patients >60 years old

A

Colonic diverticulum

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28
Q

T/F Most diverticular bleeds are self-limited

A

T

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29
Q

Massive bleeding from a colonic diverticulum is best managed by (diagnostic and therapeutic)

A

Mesenteric angiography

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30
Q

Important rule for Meckel diverticulum (5)

A

Rule of Two’s

1) 2% of the population
2) 2 inches long
3) 2 feet from ileocecal valve
4) Children younger than 2 y/o
5) 2 types of tissue (ectopic stomach or pancreas)

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31
Q

Grossly presents as white patches of hairy hyperkeratotic thickening on the lateral surface of the tongue

A

Hairy leukoplakia

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32
Q

Grossly presents as white patch on oral mucosa that cannot be scraped off

A

Leukoplakia

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33
Q

Microscopically, hyperparakeratosis, acanthosis, and “balloon cells” in the stratum spinosum

A

Hairy leukoplakia

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34
Q

Hairy leukoplakia vs leukoplakia vs SCC of oral cavity: Associated with immunosuppression

A

Hairy leukoplakia

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35
Q

Cause of hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV

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36
Q

80% of patients with hairy leukoplakia have this infection

A

HIV infection

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37
Q

T/F Leukoplakia can be premalignant

A

T

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38
Q

Major risk factor for leukoplakia

A

Tobacco use

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39
Q

Risk factor/s of SCC of oral cavity

A

Alcohol and tobacco use

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40
Q

Histology of 95% of head and neck tumors

A

SCC

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41
Q

T/F In salivary gland tumors, the larger the gland involved, the more likely it will be malignant

A

F

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42
Q

Most common parotid gland tumor

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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43
Q

Risk factor for pleomorphic adenoma

A

Radiation

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44
Q

3 components of pleomorphic adenoma (microscopic)

A

1) Ductal cells
2) Myoepithelial cells
3) Matrix (myxoid, hyaline, chondroid)

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45
Q

Clinical presentation of pleomorphic adenoma

A

1) Slow-growing

2) Painless

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46
Q

Benign vs malignant: Pleomorphic adenoma

A

Benign

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47
Q

Important surgical consideration for pleomorphic adenoma

A

High rate of recurrence if excised with no margins of neoplastic tissue

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48
Q

Carcinoma that can arise within a pleomorphic adenoma

A

Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma

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49
Q

High vs poor: Survival rate in patients with carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma

A

Poor

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50
Q

Most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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51
Q

65% of mucoepidermoid CA are found in what gland

A

Parotid

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52
Q

Condition whereby there is increased tone of the LES with subsequent failure to relax

A

Achalasia

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53
Q

In achalasia, there is loss of

A

VIP and NO inhibitory innervation of the LES

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54
Q

Secondary achalasia may arise from

A

1) Chagas disease
2) Malignancy
3) Sarcoidosis

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55
Q

Classic “bird’s beak” appearance

A

Achalasia

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56
Q

Dysphagia initially to solids then progressing to liquids indicates

A

Mechanical problem

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57
Q

Dysphagia initially to liquids and then to solids indicates

A

Functional/motility problem

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58
Q

2 non-neoplastic disorders of the oesophagus associated with alcohol use

A

1) Mallory-Weiss tears

2) Esophageal varices

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59
Q

Risk factors for Mallory-Weiss tears (2)

A

1) Alcoholism

2) Hiatal hernia

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60
Q

Syndrome resulting from Mallory-Weiss laceration characterised by complete rupture of the esophagus

A

Boerhaave syndrome

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61
Q

Clinically presents as hematemesis after prolonged vomiting

A

Mallory-Weiss tears

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62
Q

Veins vs arteries: Esophageal varices

A

Veins

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63
Q

Mucosal vs submucosal: Esophageal varices

A

Submucosal

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64
Q

Refers to inflammation of the esophageal mucosa as a result of reflux of stomach contents

A

Reflux esophagitis or GERD

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65
Q

Complication of GERD that provides resultant risk of adenocarcinoma

A

Barrett esophagus or glandular metaplasia

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66
Q

Columnar glandular epithelium with goblet cells found in the esophagus

A

Barrett esophagus

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67
Q

Eosinophils, basal zone hyperplasia, and elongation of lamina propria papilla

A

GERD

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68
Q

Most common nonbacterial causes of esophagitis

A

1) CMV
2) HSV
3) Candida albicans

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69
Q

Common risk factor present in patients who have nonbacterial esophagitis

A

Decreased immune function

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70
Q

CMV vs HSV vs Candida albicans: Linear ulcers

A

CMV

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71
Q

CMV vs HSV vs Candida albicans: Punched out ulcers

A

HSV

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72
Q

CMV vs HSV vs Candida albicans: White plaque

A

Candida albicans

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73
Q

Glandular metaplasia that occurs in the distal esophagus as a result of chronic reflux of gastric acid into esophagus

A

Barrett esophagus

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74
Q

T/F: Glandular metaplasia in the oesophagus may be reversible

A

T

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75
Q

Lifetime risk for development of oesophageal adenoma in patients with Barrett esophagus

A

10%

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76
Q

Nonbacterial esophagitis seen microscopically as squamous cells with intranuclear inclusions with a clear halo

A

HSV

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77
Q

Microscopic finding in HSV infection described as squamous cells with intranuclear inclusions with a clear halo

A

Cowdry type A HSV inclusions

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78
Q

T/F Esophageal webs are always congenital

A

F

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79
Q

Syndrome associated with esophageal webs

A

Plummer-Vinson

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80
Q

Tetrad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

1) Esophageal webs
2) IDA
3) Glossitis
4) Cheilosis

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81
Q

T/F Plummer-Vinson syndrome carries a risk for malignancy

A

T

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82
Q

Esophageal ring located above the squamocolumnar junction

A

Type A

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83
Q

Type B esophageal ring is also known as

A

Schatzki ring

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84
Q

Esophageal ring located at the squamocolumnar junction

A

Type B

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85
Q

Clinical presentation of webs and rings

A

Intermittent dysphagia

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86
Q

Type of false esophageal diverticula: Located at the proximal esophagus

A

Zenker

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87
Q

Type of true esophageal diverticula: Located at mid esophagus

A

Traction

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88
Q

Type of true esophageal diverticula: Located near the GE junction

A

Epiphrenic

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89
Q

Autoimmune disease that can cause oesophageal stenosis

A

Scleroderma

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90
Q

Most common type of esophageal CA worldwide

A

SCC

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91
Q

Male vs female: SCC of esophagus

A

Male

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92
Q

SCC of esophagus: Most common location

A

Middle 3rd (Robbin’s)

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93
Q

SCC of esophagus: Risk factors

A

1) Smoking and alcohol use
2) Dysphagia
3) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
4) Vitamin A deficiency

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94
Q

SCC of esophagus: Upper third SCC spreads to

A

Cervical LN

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95
Q

SCC of esophagus: Middle 3rd SCC spreads to

A

Mediastinal, paratracheal, and tracheobronchial LN

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96
Q

SCC of esophagus: Lower 3rd SCC spreads to

A

Gastric and celiac LN

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97
Q

AdenoCA of esophagus: Male vs female

A

Male

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98
Q

AdenoCA of esophagus: Whites vs African Americans

A

Whites

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99
Q

SCC of esophagus: Whites vs African Americans

A

African Americans

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100
Q

AdenoCA of esophagus: Occurs almost exclusively with

A

Barrett esophagus

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101
Q

AdenoCA of esophagus: Most common location

A

Distal esophagus

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102
Q

AdenoCA of esophagus: Rare source

A

Submucosal glands

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103
Q

T/F In esophageal neoplasms, by the time symptoms are present, most tumours are incurable

A

T

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104
Q

Role of prostaglandin in gastric mucosal integrity

A

1) Mucus production

2) Bicarbonate secretion

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105
Q

2 main type of chronic gastritis

A

1) Type A or fundal

2) Type B or antral

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106
Q

Etiology of fundal chronic gastritis

A

Autoimmune disease

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107
Q

Etiology of antral chronic gastritis

A

H. pylori

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108
Q

Mechanisms by which H. pylori damages gastric mucosa

A

1) IL-8 (chemotaxin)
2) Urease (urea->ammonia->buffers HCl)
3) Enhancement of gastric acid and impairment of HCO3
4) Epithelial adherence and secretion of phospholipases and proteases
5) VacA (passive urea transporter causing vacuolization)

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109
Q

In H. pylori infection, VacA requires the presence of

A

CagA gene

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110
Q

Extensive loss of parietal cells: H. pylori gastritis vs autoimmune gastritis

A

Autoimmune

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111
Q

Achlorhydria: H. pylori gastritis vs autoimmune gastritis

A

Autoimmune

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112
Q

Noninvasive testing for H. pylori (3)

A

1) Serology
2) Urea breath test
3) Stool Ag test

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113
Q

Invasive testing for H. pylori

A

1) Biopsy urease test
2) Culture
3) Histology

114
Q

Other names for autoimmune gastritis (2)

A

1) Atrophic gastritic

2) Pernicious anemia

115
Q

Mechanism of autoimmune gastritis

A

Antibodies to parietal cells results in decreased gastric acid secretion and IF production

116
Q

Anemia associated with autoimmune gastritis

A

Megaloblastic

117
Q

Vitamin deficiency associated with autoimmune gastritis

A

Vitamin B12

118
Q

Autoimmune disorder associated with autoimmune gastritis

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

119
Q

Storage disorder that may cause chronic gastritis

A

Amyloidosis

120
Q

Most common cause of gastric and duodenal ulcers

A

H. pylori infection

121
Q

Second most common cause of gastric peptic ulcers

A

NSAIDs

122
Q

Most common complication of PUD

A

GI bleeding

123
Q

T/F Most patients with peptic ulcers have normal acid secretion

A

T

124
Q

Syndrome associated with gastrin-secreting tumor

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

125
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome: Location of tumor

A

Gastrinoma triangle, at the 2nd and 3rd portions of duodenum, at the junction of the head and neck of the pancreas, and the cystic duct

126
Q

Most gastrin-secreting tumors are: Sporadic vs component of MEN 1

A

Sporadic

127
Q

PUD vs gastric adenoCA ulcer: Punched out, edges not piled up

A

PUD

128
Q

PUD vs gastric adenoCA ulcer: Heaped up edges

A

Gastric adenoCA

129
Q

Acute gastric ulcer caused by severe stress

A

Cushing ulcer

130
Q

Acute gastric ulcer caused by burns

A

Curling ulcers

131
Q

Cause of acute gastric ulcer in patients with head trauma

A

Increased ICP produces increased vagal stimulation resulting in excess gastric acid production

132
Q

Cause of acute gastric ulcer in shock and septic patients

A

Reperfusion injury due to greater than physiologic amounts of nitric oxide

133
Q

Most common gastric neoplasms

A

AdenoCA

134
Q

Most common type of gastric polyps: Hyperplastic vs adenomatous

A

Hyperplastic

135
Q

2 types of gastric adenocarcinoma under the Lauren classification

A

1) Intestinal

2) Diffuse

136
Q

Intestinal gastric adneocarcinoma: Male vs female

A

Male

137
Q

Intestinal gastric adenocarinoma: Greater vs less than 50 y/o

A

Greater

138
Q

Intestinal vs diffuse gastric adenoma: Arises from a precursor lesion, eg intestinal metaplasia in the background of chronic gastritis

A

Intestinal

139
Q

Intestinal gastric adenoCA: Risk factors

A

1) Nitrites
2) Cigarette smoke
3) Chronic gastritis with intestinal metaplasia

140
Q

Intestinal vs diffuse gastric adenoCA: Depth of invasion into the wall is vital to staging

A

Intestinal

141
Q

Early gastric adenoCA invades

A

Submucosa

142
Q

Late gastric adenoCA invades

A

Muscular wall

143
Q

Diffuse gastric adenoCA is aka

A

Signet-ring cell type

144
Q

Diffuse gastric adenoCA: Male vs female

A

No preponderance

145
Q

Diffuse gastric adenoCA: Younger vs older than 50 y/o

A

Younger

146
Q

Diffuse gastric adenoCA: Risk factors

A

Unknown

147
Q

Diffuse gastric adenoCA: Gross finding

A

Linitis plastica or thickening of wall

148
Q

Diffuse gastric adenoCA: Microscopic finding

A

Signet-ring cell (eccentric nucleus with vacuole)

149
Q

Refers to gastric adenoCA metastasis to supraclavicular LN

A

Virchow’s node

150
Q

Refers to gastric adenoCA metastasis to periumbilical nodule

A

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

151
Q

GISTs are derived from

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

152
Q

Increase in stool mass, frequency, or fluidity

A

Diarrhea

153
Q

In diarrhea, stool weight exceeds:

A

200g within 24h

154
Q

Low volume, painful, bloody diarrhea often due to infectious organisms

A

Dysentery

155
Q

Causative entities: Secretory diarrhea (3)

A

1) Rotavirus
2) Norwalk virus
3) Vibrio cholerae
4) Bacillus cereus
5) Giardia lamblia

156
Q

Causative entities: Osmotic (2)

A

1) Disaccharidase deficiency

2) Lactulose therapy

157
Q

Causative entities: Exudative (4)

A

1) Shigella
2) Salmonella
3) Campylobacter
4) IBD

158
Q

Causative entities: Malabsorption (2)

A

1) Celiac sprue

2) IBD

159
Q

Causative entities: Altered motility (2)

A

1) DM

2) Hyperthyroidism

160
Q

Type of diarrhea: Isotonic fluid secretion that persists with fasting

A

Secretory

161
Q

Type of diarrhea: Solutes in the bowel draw fluid to lumen

A

Osmotic diarrhea

162
Q

Type of diarrhea: Damage to epithelial layer by cytotoxins or invasion of mucosa usually caused by bacterial organisms

A

Exudative diarrhea

163
Q

Type of diarrhea: Due to a defect in digestion (absence of enzyme or decreased surface area) increases osmolality of luminal contents, thereby drawing water into the bowel

A

Malabsorption

164
Q

Type of diarrhea: Improves with fasting

A

Osmotic diarrhea

165
Q

Amount of stool in high output secretory diarrhea

A

> 1L per day

166
Q

Stool osmotic gap in high output secretory diarrhea

A

Minimal (

167
Q

Stool osmotic gap in osmotic diarrhea

A

Elevated

168
Q

Diarrheal complication occurring from drinking nonsterilized water from creeks and streams

A

Giradiasis

169
Q

Complications-associated diarrhea: Metabolic acidosis, dehydration

A

Secretory

170
Q

Complications-associated diarrhea: Dehydration, sepsis, perforation

A

Exudative

171
Q

Duration: Acute diarrhea

A
172
Q

Duration: Chronic diarrhea

A

> 4 months

173
Q

Proximal vs distal intestinal disease: Large volume

A

Proximal

174
Q

Proximal vs distal intestinal disease: Urgency

A

Distal

175
Q

Organism that affects the distal colon, causing inflammation, erosions, exudates, and ulcers

A

Shigella

176
Q

Organism that affects the ileum and colon, causing oval-shaped ulcers along the axis

A

Salmonella

177
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis: Organism

A

C. difficile

178
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis: Pathogenesis

A

Antibiotic use kills normal gut flora allowing normal inhabitant, C. difficile, to proliferate and produce toxin

179
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis: Onset

A

1 week after initiation of antibiotic therapy

180
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis: Diagnosis (2)

A

1) C. difficile antigen in stool

2) Endoscopy and biopsy

181
Q

Other causes of pseudomembranes (3)

A

1) Ischemia
2) Staph
3) Shigella

182
Q

Entamoeba histolytica infection: Mechanism

A

Crypt invasion into submucosa

183
Q

Entamoeba histolytica infection: Complication

A

Invade into portal vessels and embolize liver, lung, heart, brain, and kidneys

184
Q

Entamoeba histolytica infection: Gross (2)

A

1) Flask-shaped ulcer in colon

2) Anchovy paste-like mass in liver

185
Q

Entamoeba histolytica infection: Microscopic

A

Amoebae with engulfed RBCs

186
Q

Characteristic of entamoeba that confirms pathogenicity

A

Engulfed RBCs

187
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis: Gross

A

Adherent green-tan membranes on mucosal surface of colon

188
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis: Components of pseudomembrane

A

1) Epithelial cells
2) Inflammatory cells
3) Fibrin

189
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Pancreatic insufficiency, defective blue secretion

A

Impaired intraluminal digestion

190
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Lactose intolerance

A

Primary mucosal cell abnormality

191
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Bacterial overgrowth

A

Primary mucosal cell abnormality

192
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Celiac sprue

A

Reduced surface area

193
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: IBD

A

Reduced surface area

194
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Lymphoma

A

Lymphatic obstruction

195
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Tuberculosis

A

Lymphatic obstruction

196
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Enterocolitis

A

Infections

197
Q

Causes of malabsorption-associated mechanism: Crohn’s disease

A

Reduced surface area

198
Q

Malabsorption clinically presenting as bloating and soft diarrheal movements

A

Carbohydrate malabsorption

199
Q

Presence of D-xylose in urine indicates

A

Adequate intestinal transport and surface area

200
Q

Normal D-xylose test warrants

A

Other tests of malabsorption

201
Q

Abnormal D-xylose test warrants

A

Intestinal biopsy

202
Q

Schilling test is for the diagnosis of

A

Vitamin B12 deificiency

203
Q

Substances administered in Schilling test

A

1) Radioactive vitamin B12
2) Oral IF
3) Antibiotics
4) Pancreatic enzymes

204
Q

Where radioactive vitamin B12 is measured in Schilling test

A

Urine

205
Q

Diagnosis if deficiency is corrected with administration of oral IF

A

Pernicious anemia

206
Q

Diagnosis if deficiency is corrected with administration of antibiotics

A

Bacterial overgrowth

207
Q

Diagnosis if deficiency is corrected with administration of pancreatic enzymes

A

Pancreatic insufficiency

208
Q

Pathogenesis-associated cause of malabsorption: Gluten hypersensitivity

A

Celiac sprue

209
Q

Pathogenesis-associated cause of malabsorption: Disaccharidase deficiency

A

Lactose intolerance

210
Q

Pathogenesis-associated cause of malabsorption: Possible dysfunction of immune response toward normal intestinal flora

A

IBD

211
Q

Pathogenesis-associated cause of malabsorption: G+ Tropheryma whippelii

A

Whipple’s disease

212
Q

Celiac sprue is associated with the development of what neoplasms

A

1) SCC of esophagus
2) Small intestinal adenoCA
3) Intestinal T-cell lymphoma

213
Q

Disease entity associated with overgrowth of E. coli or haemophilus involving the entire small intestine

A

Tropical sprue

214
Q

T/F Tropical sprue carries a risk for developing lymphoma

A

F

215
Q

Malabsorptive diseases associated with flattened villi, lymphocytic infiltrates, and crypt hyperplasia in the small intestine

A

Celiac sprue

216
Q

Tropical vs celiac sprue: Changes worse in the duodenum and proximal SI

A

Celiac sprue

217
Q

T/F Extraintestinal manifestations are common in celiac sprue

A

T

218
Q

Classic extra intestinal manifestations of celiac sprue (2)

A

1) Dermatitis herpetiformis

2) Prupritic papular and vesicular rash on EXTENSOR surfaces and buttocks

219
Q

Lactose intolerance: Asians vs Americans

A

Asians

220
Q

Lactose intolerance: Childhood vs adulthood

A

Adulthood

221
Q

Lactose intolerance: Byproduct of lactose breakdown (gas)

A

Hydrogen

222
Q

UC vs CD: Confined to mucosa

A

UC

223
Q

UC vs CD: Transmural

A

CD

224
Q

UC vs CD: Higher risk of colonic adenoCA

A

UC

225
Q

Most common extra intestinal manifestation of Crohn disease

A

Migratory polyarthritis

226
Q

Urinary crystals associated with CD

A

Calcium oxalate

227
Q

Form of UC NOT associated with increased risk for carcinoma

A

Proctitis

228
Q

UC vs CD: Serpentine ulcers

A

CD

229
Q

UC vs CD: Crypt abscesses

A

UC

230
Q

UC in barium enema

A

Loss of haustra

231
Q

CD in barium enema

A

String sign

232
Q

Whipple disease: Male vs female

A

Male

233
Q

Whipple disease: Primary organs affected (3)

A

1) Intestines
2) CNS
3) Joints

234
Q

Whipple disease: Microscopic

A

PAS-positive macrophages in lamina propria

235
Q

T/F: Whipple disease may cause blindness

A

T

236
Q

Compressed by volvulus: Venous drainage vs arterial supply

A

Venous drainage

237
Q

Transmural vs mural vs mucosal infarct: Ischemic bowel due to occlusion of vessel

A

Transmural

238
Q

Transmural vs mural vs mucosal infarct: Ischemic bowel due to hypoperfusion

A

Mural and mucosal

239
Q

2 phases of hypoperfusion injury

A

1) Hypoxic injury

2) Reperfusion injury

240
Q

Phase of hypo perfusion injury in which most damage occurs

A

Reperfusion injury

241
Q

Characteristic symptom of patients with ischemic bowel disease

A

Abdominal pain out of proportion to PE findings

242
Q

Abdominal pain out of proportion to PE findings is due to

A

Mesenteric infarction

243
Q

Diagnosis of ischemic bowel disease is confirmed with

A

Angiography

244
Q

True vs false diverticulum: Meckel diverticulum

A

True

245
Q

Dilation of submucosal and mucosal blood vessels in elderly individuals that can cause massive painless hematochezia

A

Angiodysplasia

246
Q

Condition characterized by many diverticuli

A

Diverticulosis

247
Q

False diverticula of intestine is most commonly seen in which segment

A

Descending colon and rectum

248
Q

Causes of apple-core lesion on barium enema (2)

A

1) Adenocaricnoma of colon

2) Thickened false diverticulum

249
Q

Majority of intestinal obstructions are caused by (2)

A

1) Adhesions

2) Hernias

250
Q

Causes of pseudo-obstruction of intestines

A

1) Paralytic ileus

2) Ischemic bowel disease

251
Q

Tubular vs villous vs tubulovillous adenoma: More prone to malignant degeneration

A

Villous

252
Q

Hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine that include the muscular is mucosa

A

Peutz-Jeghers polyps

253
Q

Size of villous adenoma that has greatly increased risk of harbouring a malignant neoplasm

A

> 4.0 cm

254
Q

Disease entity characterised by the presence of hundreds of adenomas in the colon

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

255
Q

FAP: Gene mutation

A

APC gene

256
Q

Normal APC gene promotes

A

Degradation of b-catenin

257
Q

FAP: Inheritance pattern

A

Autosomal dominant

258
Q

FAP: Risk of progression to invasive adenoma by age 50

A

100%

259
Q

FAP: Treatment

A

Colectomy

260
Q

T/F HNPCC is characterised by increased number of polyps in the GIT

A

F

261
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Present sooner by causing more of an obstruction

A

Descending

262
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Present later because they do not cause an obstruction

A

Ascending

263
Q

T/F AdenoCA is common in the small intestine

A

F

264
Q

T/F Depth of invasion into the wall is not important in staging of adenoCA

A

F

265
Q

Most common site of metastasis of colon adenoCA

A

Liver

266
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Pain

A

Descending

267
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: IDA

A

Ascending

268
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Change in stool caliber

A

Descending

269
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Occult bleeding

A

Ascending

270
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Apple-cire on barium enema

A

Descending

271
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Exophytic mass

A

Ascending

272
Q

Ascending vs descending colon: Infiltrating mass

A

Descending

273
Q

Earliest sign of colonic adenoCA

A

Occult bleeding

274
Q

T/F All anemia patients >50 is considered colon CA until proven otherwise

A

T

275
Q

Carcinoid tumor: Location

A

1) Ileum
2) Appendix
3) Rectum
4) Bronchi

276
Q

Rule of carcinoid tumor

A

1/3

1) Metastasize
2) Present with a second malignancy
3) Have multiple tumors

277
Q

Carcinoid syndrome is produced by carcinoid tumour due to release of

A

Serotonin

278
Q

Carcinoid timor takes place when carcinoid timor metastasise to

A

Liver

279
Q

Most common valve involved in carcinoid synrome

A

Tricuspid

280
Q

T/F Carcinoid tumours are high grade

A

F

281
Q

Characteristic appearance of nucleus of cells in carcinoid tumors

A

Salt and pepper nucleus