Neonates Flashcards

1
Q

DDX of neurologic disorders in foals

A
  • Neonatal encephalopathy (NE) and Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy (HIE)
  • Sepsis-associated encephalopathy (SAE)
  • Seizure disorders
  • Bacterial meningitis (E. coli, Actinobacillus, Klebsiella, Strepto, Salmonella)
  • Trauma
  • Botulism (toxin types B and C) → inhibit the release of Ach
  • Tetanus (tetanospasmin) → inhibit the release of GABA (inhibitory neurons)
  • Metabolic encephalopathy
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2
Q

DDX metabolic encephalopathy in foals

A
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyponatremia → cerebral edema
  • Hypernatremia → osmotic demyelination syndrome
  • Hypocalcemia → tetany and seizures. May be due to primary hypoparathyroidism
  • Hyperbilirubinemia → kernicterus. May be due to neonatal isoerythrolysis
  • Hyperammonemia. May be due to :
    • Hepatic insufficiency
    • Portosystemic shunt
    • Intestinal production
    • Genetic defect in Morgan Foals
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3
Q

DDX congenital neurologic disorders in foals

A
  • Hydrocephalus (Friesian)
  • Occipitoatlantoaxial malformation (Arabian)
  • Cerebellar abiotrophy (Arabian) → autosomal recessive trait, generally detectable between 4 weeks to 6 months of age.
  • Juvenile idiopathic epilepsy (JIE) (Arabian of Egyptian lineage) → self-limiting and resolves by 1 to 2 years of age.
  • Narcolepsy and cataplexy (familial component)
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4
Q

DDX of respiratory disorders in foals

A
  • Neonatal Equine Respiratory Distress Syndrome (NERDS) : primary surfactant deficiency
  • Acute Lung Injury (ALI) and Acute RDS (ARDS) : syndromes associated with an exagerated inflammatory response → severe tissue damage within the lungs
  • Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn : pulmonary disease → hypoxia → sustained increase in the pulmonary vascular resistance → right-to-left shunt
  • Congenital upper respiratory tract disorders : wry nose, choanal atresia, cleft palate, subepiglottic cyst
  • Meconium aspiration : respiratory distress
  • Milk aspiration : secondary to generalized weakness or prematurity, or physical abnormalities of pharynx, larynx, or esophagus
  • Transient tachypnea with hyperthermia : idiopathic in hot, humid weather
  • Rib fractures : pneumothorax, hemothorax
  • Viral infections : EHV-1, EHV-4, EIV, EAV, EAdV
  • Fungal diseases : Histoplasma capsulatum, Candida spp, Pneumocystis carinii
  • Parasitic pneumonia : Parascaris equorum
  • Bacterial infections : Neonatal foal vs older foals
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5
Q

DDX of pulmonary viral infections in foals

A
  • EHV-1 : severe pneumonitis, icterus, marked neutropenia. Necrosis of the lymphoreticular tissues → liver, bone marrox, thymus
  • EHV-4 : rare → abortion, stillbirth
  • EIV : severe bronchointerstitiel pneumonia
  • EAV : severe interstitial pneumonia, enteritis
  • Equine Adenovirus (EAdV) : rare → immunocompromised foals (SCID in Arabian foals, Fell pony foals)
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6
Q

Newborn foal with fever, icterus and severe neutropenia +/- respiratory signs. Clinical hypothesis ?

A

EHV-1 infections

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7
Q

DDX of pulmonary fungal diseases in foals

A
  • Histoplasma capsulatum : in utero infection with placentitis → abortion or foals with granulomatous pneumonia
  • Candida spp : superficial or systemic (rare)
  • Pneumocystis carinii
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8
Q

DDX of pulmonary parasitic diseases in foals

A

Parascaris equorum : larvated eggs in the intestinal lumen → migrate through the liver and lungs → coughed up and reingested. Resistance to macrocyclic lactone (ivermectin)

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9
Q

DDX of pulmonary bacterial infections in foals

A

Neonatal foals : most often associated with hematogenous spread secondary to bacteremia.
Gram - > Gram + like in neonatal sepsis

Older foals : common pneumonia in foals from 1 to 6 months, most common cause of death
- Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus : most common etiologic agent of bacterial pneumonia. Normal URT organism → infection due to decreased maternal Ab, stress of weaning, sales, transport.
- Rhodococcus equi : facultative intracellular gram + coccobacillus with a plasmid encoding a virulence-associated protein VapA. Fever, lethargy, coughing, tachypnea, dyspnea. Extra-pulmonary disorders : diarrhea, ulcerative enterotyphlocolitis, immuno-mediated synovitis, intraabdominal lymphadenitis, or abscessation and uveitis.

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10
Q

What is the most common etiologic agent of bacterial pneumonia in foals of 3 months ?

A

Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus

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11
Q

What are the definitions of hypoxemia and hypercapnia ?

A

Hypoxemia : PaO2 < 60 mmHg

Hypercapnia : PaCO2 > 60 mmHg

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12
Q

Is the immunocrit method a reliable method to detect failure of passive immunity in newborn foals ?

A

The immunocrit test provides a quantitative, quick, inexpensive, reliable and objective method to detect failure of passive transfer of maternal immunity in newborn foals, which is easy to perform directly in horse farms, with minimum laboratory equipment.

Assessment of the immunocrit method to detect failure of passive immunity in newborn foals
Technical notes
evj 2020

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13
Q

Which of the following factors was identified as a significant risk factor for being blood culture positive in neonatal foals in the study?

A) Prematurity
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Maternal uterine infection
D) Hypothermia

A

Answer:
B) Hypoglycemia

Explanation:
The study found that hypoglycemia was a significant risk factor for bloodstream infection (BSI) in neonatal foals, with an adjusted odds ratio (OR) of 13.51 (P = 0.03). Other significant risk factors included umbilical disease and the combined presence of umbilical disease and low hematocrit.
Factors like prematurity, maternal uterine infection, and failure of passive transfer were not found to be significant risk factors for BSI in this study.

Factors associated with the risk of positive blood culture in neonatal foals presented to a referral center (2000-2014)
jvim 2020

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14
Q

What did the study conclude regarding bacteriological and antimicrobial susceptibility testing in foals with sepsis hospitalized for ≥48 hours?

A) Bacteria isolated after 48 hours of hospitalization showed increased susceptibility to all tested antimicrobial drugs.
B) The isolation frequency of certain bacteria, such as Acinetobacter spp. and Enterococcus spp., increased after ≥48 hours of hospitalization.
C) No changes in bacteriological culture results or antimicrobial susceptibility occurred after 48 hours of hospitalization.
D) Repeat bacteriological cultures are not necessary for foals hospitalized for more than 48 hours.

A

Answer:
B) The isolation frequency of certain bacteria, such as Acinetobacter spp. and Enterococcus spp., increased after ≥48 hours of hospitalization.

Explanation:
The study found that the relative isolation frequency of certain bacteria, including Acinetobacter, Enterococcus, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, and Serratia spp., significantly increased after ≥48 hours of hospitalization. Additionally, the bacteria isolated after this period were less susceptible to antimicrobial drugs, highlighting the importance of repeated bacteriological culture and susceptibility testing to adjust treatment strategies in hospitalized foals with sepsis.

Differences in isolation rate and antimicrobial susceptibility of bacteria isolated from foals with sepsis at admission and after ≥48 hours of hospitalization
jvim 2020

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15
Q

What was the key finding of the study comparing critically ill (CI) neonatal crias (llama’s baby) and foals in terms of mortality and disease manifestations?

A) Neonatal crias had a significantly higher survival rate to discharge compared to neonatal foals.
B) Lower respiratory disease was not associated with increased mortality in either species.
C) Euthanasia was more common in neonatal crias than in neonatal foals.
D) The overall survival rate to discharge was comparable between neonatal crias and foals, despite differences in disease prevalence.

A

Answer:
D) The overall survival rate to discharge was comparable between neonatal crias and foals, despite differences in disease prevalence.

Explanation:
The study found that, despite species-specific differences in disease prevalence (e.g., crias had more congenital defects and failure of transfer immunity, foals had more colic, diarrhea, septic arthritis, patent urachus and omphalitis), the overall survival rate to discharge was similar between neonatal crias (77.8%) and foals (82.1%).
The study also highlighted that lower respiratory disease and glucose or oxygen dysregulation were common factors increasing mortality in both species, while crias (54.2%) were more likely than foals (35%) to die naturally than undergo euthanasia.

Comparative evaluation of clinical findings and prognostic outcome parameters in hospitalized, critically ill neonatal foals and crias
J Vet Emerg Crit Care 2021

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16
Q

What did the study conclude about the diagnostic value of serum amyloid A (SAA) testing in newborn foals?

A) SAA testing is not useful in distinguishing between healthy and nonhealthy foals.
B) SAA testing has a high positive predictive value (PPV) compared to white blood cell (WBC) count and serum immunoglobulin G (IgG) concentration.
C) SAA testing is a reliable tool for detecting early-onset, acute-phase infections or noninfectious morbidities with an inflammatory component in newborn foals.
D) Serum IgG concentration was found to have the highest positive predictive value for detecting nonhealthy foals.

A

Answer:
C) SAA testing is a reliable tool for detecting early-onset, acute-phase infections or noninfectious morbidities with an inflammatory component in newborn foals.

Explanation:
The study found that SAA testing was effective in distinguishing between healthy and nonhealthy foals, with elevated SAA values being associated with nonhealthy diagnoses. While the SAA test had a positive predictive value (PPV) of 55.6%, IgG and WBC counts had lower PPVs (16.7% and 23.3%, respectively). This indicates that SAA is a useful diagnostic tool for detecting early-onset infections or morbidities with an inflammatory component in newborn foals, particularly in comparison to other tests like IgG and WBC counts.

Comparison of the diagnostic predictability of serum amyloid A, white blood cell count and immunoglobulin G tests as indicators of early-onset, acute-phase morbidities in newborn foals
eve 2022

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17
Q

What was the conclusion of the study regarding the use of serum amyloid A (SAA) testing as a biomarker for sepsis in neonatal foals?

A) SAA testing is not useful for diagnosing sepsis in neonatal foals due to low sensitivity.
B) The SAA test showed high sensitivity, low specificity, and poor predictive values for diagnosing sepsis.
C) SAA testing is a useful diagnostic tool for sepsis in neonatal foals, with high specificity and good predictive values.
D) SAA testing is only useful for detecting sick foals, not for diagnosing sepsis specifically.

A

Answer:
C) SAA testing is a useful diagnostic tool for sepsis in neonatal foals, with high specificity and good predictive values.

Explanation:
The study found that SAA testing, with a diagnostic threshold of 100 µg/mL, had a sensitivity of 52.9%, specificity of 97.5%, positive predictive value of 75.0%, and negative predictive value of 93.7%.
These results indicate that SAA is a useful biomarker with high specificity for diagnosing sepsis in neonatal foals, aiding in early detection despite its moderate sensitivity. The study concluded that SAA testing is a valuable tool to help diagnose sepsis in neonatal foals, vs healthy and sick-non-septic foals.

Serum amyloid A as an aid in diagnosing sepsis in equine neonates
evj 2022

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18
Q

What was the primary conclusion of the study regarding the use of serum amyloid A (SAA) concentrations in neonatal foals?

A) SAA is a highly sensitive biomarker for detecting sepsis and predicting survival in neonatal foals.
B) SAA concentrations were higher in septic foals and nonsurviving foals, and it can be used to rule out sepsis and nonsurvival due to its good specificity.
C) SAA concentrations were not significantly different between septic and nonseptic foals.
D) The optimal SAA cutoff for predicting survival had high sensitivity and specificity, making it a reliable prognostic marker for foal survival.

A

Answer:
B) SAA concentrations were higher in septic foals and nonsurviving foals, and it can be used to rule out sepsis and nonsurvival due to its good specificity.

Explanation:
The study found that SAA concentrations were significantly higher in septic foals compared to sick but nonseptic foals, and in nonsurviving foals compared to those that survived.
While the sensitivity of SAA for detecting sepsis and predicting survival was relatively low, the specificity was high, making SAA a useful tool for ruling out sepsis and nonsurvival. The study concluded that SAA could help identify foals at lower risk, although it is not highly sensitive for detecting these conditions.

Serum amyloid A as a marker to detect sepsis and predict outcome in hospitalized neonatal foals
jvim 2022

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19
Q

What did the study conclude about the use of optical (OR) and digital (DR) refractometers for assessing colostrum quality in mares?

A) The refractometers were not reliable for detecting poor-quality colostrum in mares.
B) Both DR and OR refractometers had high sensitivity and specificity for detecting colostral IgG <60 g/L, with DR showing slightly better performance.
C) Only the DR refractometer was reliable for diagnosing poor-quality colostrum, while OR was ineffective.
D) The refractometers showed poor correlation with serum IgG concentrations in foals.

A

Answer:
B) Both DR and OR refractometers had high sensitivity and specificity for detecting colostral IgG < 60 g/L, with DR showing slightly better performance.

Explanation:
The study found that both the digital (DR) and optical (OR) refractometers were effective tools for diagnosing poor-quality colostrum, with DR having slightly better performance than OR. The DR had a sensitivity of 93.3% and specificity of 87.9%, while the OR had a sensitivity of 93.3% and specificity of 81.8%. Both methods had high negative predictive values, making them reliable for ruling out poor-quality colostrum.
A moderate correlation was observed between IgG concentrations measured by RID in sera and colostrum.

Diagnostic characteristics of refractometry cut- off points for the estimation of immunoglobulin G concentration in mare colostrum
evj 2022

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20
Q

What was the primary conclusion of the study regarding bacterial infections and antimicrobial resistance in equine neonates in the Midwestern United States?

A) Gram-negative bacterial infections were more common than gram-positive infections in neonatal foals.
B) Empirical antimicrobial treatment was not associated with survival outcomes in foals.
C) There was no significant difference in antibiotic susceptibility between the studied pathogens and previous reports.
D) The majority of foals were resistant to common antibiotics, making treatment difficult.

A

Answer:
B) Empirical antimicrobial treatment was not associated with survival outcomes in foals.

Explanation:
The study found that survival in neonatal foals was associated with a negative fluid culture, not with the choice of empirical antimicrobial treatment. This suggests that the empirical use of antibiotics did not have a significant impact on the survival rates of foals, and that other factors, such as the presence of infection, were more influential.
The study also found that gram-positive organisms were more common than gram-negative ones, and historical antimicrobial choices were supported by local antibiogram data, showing a higher prevalence of resistance in certain bacterial isolates compared to previous studies.

Antibiograms of field and hospital acquired equine neonatal bacterial fluid cultures in the Midwestern United States: 149 samples (2007-2018)
jvim 2023

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21
Q

What is the effect of plasma transfusion in FTPI foals on serum amyloid A concentration ?

A

Administration of hyperimmune fresh frozen plasma to newborn foals was not associated with changes in SAA concentration.

Effect of plasma transfusion on serum amyloid A concentration in healthy neonatal foals and foals with failure of transfer of passive immunity
jvim 2023

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22
Q

What is the normal variation of SAA in newborn foals ?

A

SAA increases from foaling to 24h, after colostrum consumption and remains constant between 24h and 72h.

Effect of plasma transfusion on serum amyloid A concentration in healthy neonatal foals and foals with failure of transfer of passive immunity
jvim 2023

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23
Q

Which sentence is correct regarding Red cell distribution width (RDW) values and red cell distribution width-to-platelet ratio (RPR) in foals ?
A) Increased RPR correlated with at-risk foals
B) Decreased RPR correlated with at-risk foals
C) Increased RDW correlated with at-risk foals
D) Decreased RDW correlated with at-risk foals

A

Answer A
RPR index was higher for at-risk than for healthy foals.
RPR might be a promising early indicator of disease for the field triage of neonatal foal.

Red cell distribution width values and red cell distribution width-to-platelet ratio in Thoroughbred foals in the first 24 hours of life
J Vet Emerg Crit Care. 2023

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24
Q

What was the main finding of the study regarding the use of the red blood cell distribution width to platelet ratio (RPR) in diagnosing sepsis in neonatal foals?

A) RPR was not significantly different between septic and nonseptic foals, making it unsuitable for diagnosing sepsis.
B) RPR was significantly higher in septic foals compared to nonseptic and healthy foals, and it was able to predict sepsis with high accuracy.
C) The study found that RPR was a poor predictor of sepsis, with low sensitivity and specificity.
D) RPR was only useful for estimating the survival outcomes of foals, not for diagnosing sepsis.

A

Answer:
B) RPR was significantly higher in septic foals compared to nonseptic and healthy foals, and it was able to predict sepsis with high accuracy.

Explanation:
The study found that the red blood cell distribution width to platelet ratio (RPR) was significantly higher in septic foals than in nonseptic and healthy foals.
It was shown to have high accuracy in predicting sepsis.
The optimal cutoff for diagnosing sepsis was determined to be 0.09, making RPR a useful and inexpensive marker for sepsis diagnosis and prognosis in neonatal foals, based on a complete blood count (CBC).

Red blood cell distribution width to platelet ratio in neonatal foals with sepsis
jvim 2023

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25
Q

What was the median Neutrophil-to-Lymphocyte Ratio (NLR) for septic foals?
A) 6.61
B) 3.55
C) 2.00
D) 1.47

A

Answer: C) 2.00

Association of the neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio with
outcome in sick hospitalized neonatal foals. J Vet Intern Med. 2024

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26
Q

Which of the following statements about Neutrophil-to-Lymphocyte Ratio (NLR) in this study is FALSE?
A) NLR was lower in nonsurviving foals compared to surviving foals
B) Septic foals had a higher NLR than sick nonseptic foals
C) A NLR <3.06 was associated with increased odds of nonsurvival
D) The lowest NLR was observed in nonsurviving septic foals

A

Answer: B) Septic foals had a higher NLR than sick nonseptic foals.
Septic foals had the lowest NLR vs sick nonseptic and healthy.
The NLR was lower in nonsurviving compared with surviving foals.

Association of the neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio with
outcome in sick hospitalized neonatal foals. J Vet Intern Med. 2024

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27
Q

What was the sensitivity and specificity of NLR <3.9 for predicting nonsurvival in septic foals?
A) 72% sensitivity, 90% specificity
B) 86% sensitivity, 86% specificity
C) 82.8% sensitivity, 74.8% specificity
D) 68% sensitivity, 70% specificity

A

Answer: B) 86% sensitivity, 86% specificity

Association of the neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio with
outcome in sick hospitalized neonatal foals. J Vet Intern Med. 2024

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28
Q

How does the association between NLR and disease severity in foals differ from that observed in humans, cats, and dogs?
A) In foals, a higher NLR indicates more severe disease
B) In foals, NLR is not associated with disease severity
C) In foals, a lower NLR indicates more severe disease
D) In foals, only the neutrophil count, not the NLR, indicates disease severity

A

Answer: C) In foals, a lower NLR indicates more severe disease

Association of the neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio with
outcome in sick hospitalized neonatal foals. J Vet Intern Med. 2024

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29
Q

Based on the study results, which of the following is the LEAST likely explanation for the low NLR observed in critically ill foals?
A) Increased lymphocyte count
B) Decreased neutrophil count
C) Altered neutrophil kinetics
D) Impaired bone marrow response

A

Answer: A) Increased lymphocyte count

Association of the neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio with outcome in sick hospitalized neonatal foals. J Vet Intern Med. 2024

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30
Q

What was the main conclusion of the study regarding Chlamydia psittaci infection in neonatal foals?

A) Chlamydia psittaci is a rare cause of neonatal respiratory disease but has a good prognosis with appropriate treatment.
B) Chlamydia psittaci infection should be considered a differential diagnosis for neonatal foals presenting with acute respiratory distress, and the infection is often fatal.
C) Chlamydia psittaci infection was found to be a common cause of neonatal respiratory distress in foals, with all foals recovering after treatment.
D) Chlamydia psittaci was not detected in any of the foals, and the study suggested a different cause for the respiratory distress.

A

Answer:
B) Chlamydia psittaci infection should be considered a differential diagnosis for neonatal foals presenting with acute respiratory distress, and the infection is often fatal.

Explanation:
The study found that Chlamydia psittaci infection was associated with severe systemic disease and acute respiratory distress (EqNARDS) in neonatal foals. Of the 15 foals affected, 13 died or were euthanized within 36 hours of hospitalization, while only 2 foals survived.
The study highlights the importance of considering C. psittaci as a potential cause of neonatal respiratory illness, particularly in foals with acute respiratory distress, given its severe and often fatal course. Detection of the pathogen was achieved through PCR testing of nasal secretions, rectal mucosa, and lung tissues, but the study’s findings were based on a small number of confirmed cases.

Chlamydia psittaci infection as a cause of respiratory disease in neonatal foals
evj 2020

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31
Q

What are the risks associated with Chlamydia psittaci infections in horses ?

A

Late term abortion in mares
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in foals
Rare respiratory disease in adult horses
Caution : zoonotic disease

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32
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in neonatal foals ?

A

Meconium impaction

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33
Q

What is the risk associated with the repeated use of sodium phosphate enemas in neonatal foals ?

A

Hyperphosphatemia

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34
Q

What is the most effective type of enema in foals?

A

Acetylcystein retention enema
Volume of 100 to 200 mL, left within the rectum for 30 à 45 min.

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35
Q

What are the most common congenital defects of the GIT in foals ?

A

Atresia of the colon, rectum, or anus

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36
Q

What is the congenital aganglionosis ?

A

Congenital aganglionosis, or overo lethal white syndrome, is a syndrome that affects white American Paint Horse foals born from overo-overo matings (homozygous for mutated endothelin receptor B gene EDNRB).
Affected foals suffered from aganglionosis of the distal small intestine and large intestine, which results in a lack of intestinal motility leading to colic.
Fatal condition

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37
Q

DDX of colic in foals

A
  • Meconium impaction
  • Parascaris equorum infestation +/- impaction
  • Congenital defects → atresia of the colon, rectum, or anus
  • Congenital aganglionosis
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38
Q

DDX of diarrhea in foals

A
  • Foal heat diarrhea → mild, 5-15 days of age
  • Perinatal asphyxia-associated GI dysfunction
  • Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) : intestinal necrosis → diagnosis through RX or US → intramural gas
  • Dietary intolerance : with milk replacers
  • Infectious causes of diarrhea :
    • Rotavirus
    • C. difficile : primary agent of antimicrobial-associated diarrhea (AAD)
    • C. perfringens : enterocolitis
    • Salmonella, E. coli, Enterococcus spp, Aeromonas spp, Bacteroides fragilis…
    • R. equi
    • Lawsonia intracellularis (Equine proliferative enteropathy)
    • Cryptosporidium
    • Strongyloides westeri
  • Gastric ulceration
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39
Q

What is the most common cause of infectious diarrhea in foals ?

A

Rotavirus : Foals 5-35 days
- Multiplication and destruction of the epithelial tips of the villi of small intestine → leads to malabsorption.
- Villous injury → decrease the production of lactase → diarrhea by osmotic mechanisms.
- Large group of foals, acute profuse watery diarrhea, hypoNa, hypoCl, metabolic acidosis.
- Highly contagious, persistent in the environment, resitant to disinfectants → maternal vaccination.
- Diagnosis by ELISA or RT-PCR on feces (or immunochromatography).

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40
Q

What is the most common cause of antimicrobial-associated diarrhea in foals ?

A

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD)
Or may be due to stress, hospitalization, starvation, transport…
Diarrhea watery or bloody.
Virulence = toxin A and toxin B +/- CDT (transferase)
ELISA or RT-PCR on feces

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41
Q

What is the dosing regimens of metronidazole in foals ?

A

Newborn foals : 10 mg/kg PO BID
Foals 10-12 day-old : 15 mg/kg PO BID
Foals > 12 day-old : 15 mg/kg PO TID

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42
Q

DDX of infectious diarrhea in foals

A
  • Rotavirus : Foals 5-35 days, acute profuse watery diarrhea.
  • C. difficile : primary agent of antimicrobial-associated diarrhea (AAD). Diarrhea watery or bloody, toxin A and toxin B +/- CDT. ELISA or RT-PCR on feces
  • C. perfringens : enterocolitis. Type A and type C → 4 enterotoxins (β-toxin and NetF). Diarrhea +/- bloody with severe enterotoxemia and shock.
  • Salmonella, E. coli, Enterococcus spp, Aeromonas spp, Bacteroides fragilis… → associated with sepsis.
  • R. equi : older foals. Diarrhea, ulcerative enterotyphlocolitis, and abscessation.
  • Lawsonia intracellularis : Equine proliferative enteropathy (EPE). Foals 2-8 months of age. Proliferation of the crypt epithelial cells → protein-losing enteropathy. Fecal PCR testing.
  • Cryptosporidium : watery diarrhea, self-limitng. Zoonotic potential. Fecal RT-PCR or immunofluorescence.
  • Strongyloides westeri : nematode transmitted to transmammary route. Clinical signs if very high numbers. TT = ivermectin adm° to the mare.
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43
Q

What is the gastroduodenal ulcer syndrome (GDUS) ?

A

Foals 2 to 6 months, small, unthrifty, pot-bellied appearance foals.
Gastric squamous and glandular ulceration, pyloric ulcer and stricture. Reflux esophagitis secondary to GDUS-induced delayed gastric emptying.

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44
Q

What are the congenital urogenital disorders in foals ?

A
  • Renal dysplasia or hypoplasia
  • Ectopic ureters
  • Umbilical hernias → < 3 cm, self-resolving
  • Inguinal hernias
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45
Q

What is the most common urogenital condition in young foals ?

A

Uroperitoneum due to bladder wall rupture ++, ureteral tears, urethral tears, or urachal rupture (infection and necrosis of umbilic).
Leads to azotemia, hyperK, hypoNa, hypoCl (dilutional effect) and metabolic acidosis.

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46
Q

What is the most common umbilical disorder in foals ?

A
  • Patent urachus ++
  • Urachitis, omphaloarteritis, omphalophlebitis
  • Infection of the external umbilical structures
47
Q

What are the causes of AKI in foals ?

A
  • Systemic disease → vasomotor nephropathy
  • Toxin exposure
  • Postrenal obstruction
  • Iatrogenic : aminoglycoside, oxytetracyclines, NSAIDs
  • Hb in neonatal isoerythrloysis, myoglobin in myopathies
  • Spurious hypercreatininemia : due to placental insufficiency or neonatal hypoxia
48
Q

What is spurious hypercreatininemia ?

A

Increased of serum creat due to placental insufficiency or neonatal hypoxia, resulting in creat accumulation in the fetus. Decrease of creat by 50% within 24h with renal elimination, and normalize by 72h.

49
Q

What is the clinical significance of GGT-to-creat ratio ?

A

urine GGT / urine creat x 100 < 25

If > 25 → proximal tubular injury

50
Q

Which clinical tests are available to assess the HPA axis in neonatal foals ?

A
  • NLR
  • basal serum cortisol
  • basal serum ACTH
  • ACTH/cortisol ratio
  • ACTH stimulation tests (low or high doses)
  • RDW-to-platelet ratio ?
51
Q

Which clinical tests are available to assess the HPT axis in neonatal foals ?

A
  • basal serum TSH
  • basal T3, T4, free T3, free T4, reverse T3
52
Q

Which conditions are associated with HPTA dysfunction in neonatal foals ?

A
  • Congenital hypothyroidism : iodine deficiency or excess of the mare, endophyte’s fescue intoxication, nitrate…
  • Prematurity
  • Systemic illness : sick thyroidal syndrome or non-thyroidal illness syndrome (NTIS)
53
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the findings of the study on cortisol and thyroid hormone concentrations in foals born from mares with placentitis?

A) Sick surviving foals had significantly lower T3 : cortisol and T4 : cortisol ratios compared to sick non-surviving foals, indicating a lack of prognostic value for these ratios in foals with placentitis.

B) Serum cortisol and thyroid hormone (TH) concentrations, including T3 and T4, were found to be higher in sick foals compared to healthy controls, suggesting that placental infections lead to an increase in both cortisol and TH concentrations.

C) The study found no difference in thyroid hormone concentrations between surviving and non-surviving foals, and cortisol levels were not associated with any clinical outcomes in foals born from mares with placentitis.

D) Sick non-surviving foals had significantly lower T3 : cortisol and T4 : cortisol ratios compared to sick surviving foals at 12, 24, and 48 hours of life, indicating that these ratios could be used as prognostic markers in foals with placental infections.

A

Answer D

A) Incorrect: The study found that sick non-surviving foals had lower T3 : cortisol and T4 : cortisol ratios compared to sick surviving foals, not the other way around.

B) Incorrect: Sick foals, particularly non-survivors, had lower thyroid hormone (T3, FT3, T4, FT4) concentrations compared to healthy foals. Cortisol levels increased, but TH levels decreased.

C) Incorrect: The study did find differences in hormone concentrations, with non-surviving foals having lower T3 and T4 concentrations. Additionally, T3 : cortisol and T4 : cortisol ratios were significant in differentiating between surviving and non-surviving foals.

D) Correct: Non-surviving foals had lower T3 : cortisol and T4 : cortisol ratios compared to surviving foals, suggesting these ratios could serve as useful prognostic markers for disease severity in foals with placental infections.
Sick non-surviving foals had lower T3 : cortisol ratio at 12, 24 and 48 hours of life when compared to Sick surviving foals and lower T4 : cortisol ratio at 12 and 24 hours after birth than Sick surviving foals

Serum cortisol and thyroid hormone concentrations and survival in foals born from mares with experimentally induced ascending placentitis.2020

54
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the findings and significance of the study on arginine-vasopressin (AVP) administration in neonatal foals?

A) The study showed that AVP administration in neonatal foals resulted in an increase in CRH levels, demonstrating AVP’s role as a primary stimulator of corticotropin-releasing hormone in foals.

B) The study concluded that AVP is ineffective at increasing cortisol levels in neonatal foals and suggested ACTH as a more potent stimulant of cortisol release.

C) The study demonstrated that AVP administration led to a dose-dependent increase in ACTH and cortisol concentrations in neonatal foals, with no change in CRH levels. AVP was shown to be a safe and effective diagnostic tool for hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis (HPAA) function, with a 5 IU dose recommended for assessing both pituitary and adrenal responses.

D) The results indicated that AVP administration caused a significant decrease in ACTH and cortisol concentrations, suggesting that AVP suppresses HPAA function in neonatal foals, with notable adverse effects observed during the study.

A

correct C.

A) Incorrect: no change in CRH levels was observed after AVP administration, indicating that AVP had no direct effect on CRH release in foals.

B) Incorrect: The study found that AVP effectively increased both ACTH and cortisol levels, showing its potential as a potent stimulant of these hormones.
“All doses of AVP resulted in a significant increase in cortisol concentration over time, and a dose-dependent increase in ACTH concentration.”

C) Correct: significant, dose-dependent rise in ACTH and cortisol levels after AVP administration, with no effect on CRH levels. Additionally, AVP was found to be a safe and effective tool for assessing HPAA function in foals, with the 5 IU dose recommended for this purpose.

D) Incorrect: The study found the opposite, with AVP causing a significant increase in both ACTH and cortisol concentrations. There were also no major adverse effects reported during the study.

2023-Assessment of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis function using a vasopressin stimulation test in neonatal foals JVIM

55
Q

What is the clinical effect of AVP administration in neonatal foals ? For what purpose ?

A

Administration of arginine-vasopressin (AVP) is safe and results in a significant rise in ACTH and cortisol in neonatal foals. A stimulation test with AVP (5 IU) can be considered for HPAA assessment in septic foals.

Assessment of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis function using a vasopressin stimulation test in neonatal foals
jvim 2023

56
Q

A 2-day-old hospitalized foal undergoes a stimulation test with 1 µg/kg of ovine corticotropin-releasing hormone (oCRH) to assess the function of its hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. What hormonal response would you expect in this foal following the administration?

A) Cortisol increases only in healthy foals, while ACTH remains unchanged in hospitalized foals.

B) ACTH and cortisol increase in hospitalized foals after 15 minutes, but endogenous CRH (eCRH) shows no change.

C) Cortisol increases in hospitalized foals, but ACTH and eCRH increase only after 30 minutes in healthy foals.

D) Cortisol, ACTH, and eCRH significantly increase in both healthy and hospitalized foals, with a dose-dependent response to oCRH.

A

Correct Answer: D

Justification:

Cortisol: Increased significantly in both hospitalized and healthy foals, particularly at 30 and 60 minutes after the administration of 1 µg/kg of oCRH​.

ACTH: Showed a dose-dependent increase in both groups, with significant increases at 30 and 60 minutes in healthy foals, and after 15 and 30 minutes in hospitalized foals​.

eCRH: Also increased significantly in both groups, with a peak at 30 minutes in healthy foals and after 15 and 30 minutes in hospitalized foals.

The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis response to ovine corticotropin-releasing-hormone stimulation tests in healthy and hospitalized foals 2022

57
Q

What are the dynamics of androgens in healthy and hospitalized newborn foals ?
A- Androgens were lower in hospitalized foals than healthy foals, and were not associated with the outcome.
B- Androgens were higher in hospitalized foals than healthy foals, and were not associated with the outcome.
C- Contrary to cortisol, androgens were lower in hospitalized foals than healthy foals, and were associated with the nonsurvival.
D- Similar to glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and progestagens, increased serum concentrations of androgens are associated with disease severity and nonsurvival in hospitalized newborn foals.

A

D- Similar to glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and progestagens, increased serum concentrations of androgens are associated with disease severity and nonsurvival in hospitalized newborn foals.

In healthy foals, androgens decrease over time, however, remain elevated longer in septic and non-surviving foals

Dynamics of androgens in healthy and hospitalized newborn foals
jvim 2021

58
Q

What is the major endocrine response to nursing in healthy neonatal foals ?
A- Nursing stimulated marked decreases in glucagon, insulin, and glucose concentrations, and decreased ACTH and cortisol concentrations.
B- Nursing stimulated marked decreases in glucagon, insulin, and glucose concentrations, and increased ACTH and cortisol concentrations.
C- Nursing stimulated marked increases in glucagon, insulin, and glucose concentrations, and decreased ACTH and cortisol concentrations.
D- Nursing stimulated marked increases in glucagon, insulin, and glucose concentrations, and did not alter ACTH and cortisol concentrations.

A

C- Nursing stimulated marked increases in glucagon, insulin, and glucose concentrations, and decreased ACTH and cortisol concentrations.

Glucagon, insulin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, and cortisol in response to carbohydrates and fasting in healthy neonatal foals
jvim 2021

59
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the results of the study comparing thiamine, ascorbic acid, and cortisol concentrations in healthy and ill foals?

A) Blood thiamine concentrations were higher in septic foals compared to healthy foals at 72 and 120 hours, while cortisol levels remained lower in both septic and SNS foals at admission.

B) Ascorbic acid levels were significantly higher in both septic and SNS foals compared to healthy foals at 72 and 120 hours after admission, but no significant differences were found in cortisol levels.

C) Cortisol concentrations were lower in septic foals compared to SNS and healthy foals at admission, while thiamine and ascorbic acid concentrations remained unchanged between the groups.

D) Blood thiamine and ascorbic acid concentrations were significantly lower in septic foals compared to healthy foals at 72 and 120 hours, while serum cortisol concentrations were significantly higher in septic foals compared to sick non-septic and healthy foals at admission.

A

Answer D

Justifications:
A) Incorrect: The study found that thiamine levels were significantly lower in septic foals compared to healthy foals at 72 and 120 hours, not higher. Cortisol levels were also higher, not lower, in septic foals at admission compared to SNS and healthy foals.

B) Incorrect: The study found that ascorbic acid levels were significantly lower in septic and SNS foals compared to healthy foals at 72 and 120 hours. This answer also incorrectly states that there were no significant differences in cortisol levels, which were actually higher in septic foals.

C) Incorrect: Cortisol concentrations were found to be higher in septic foals compared to SNS and healthy foals at admission. Additionally, thiamine and ascorbic acid concentrations were not unchanged; they were lower in ill foals, particularly in septic foals.

D) Correct. Thiamine and ascorbic acid concentrations were significantly lower in septic foals at 72 and 120 hours compared to healthy foals. Cortisol concentrations were significantly higher in septic foals at admission compared to SNS and healthy foals.
Thiamine lower in septic / Ascorbic lower in septic + sick non septic.

Blood thiamine (vitamin B1), ascorbic acid (vitamin C), and cortisol concentrations in healthy and ill neonatal foals. 2021 JVIM

60
Q

Which viral diseases cause abortion in mares?

A
  • EHV-1 and EHV-4 : vasculitis and transplacental spread → mid-to-late term abortion or perinatal death. Can occur without premonitory signs. IHC, VI, PCR.
  • EVA : transmission via respiratory or venereal routes → abortion from 2 to 10 months of gestation or neonatal death (severe interstitial pneumonia). Can occur without premonitory signs. IHC, VI, PCR
  • EIA : abortion or birth of foals that may or may not be seropositive. Possible routes of transmission : transplacental, via colostrum/milk or vectors (horseflies). Coggins (AGID) +/- ELISA in foal or mare.
61
Q

Which bacterial diseases cause abortion in mares?

A
  • Leptospirosis : Leptospira interrogans serovar Pomona, most common cause in USA. Abortion, stillbirth, +/- placentitis. Abortion 2 to 4 weeks after infection. Foals with icterus.
  • Potomac horse fever
  • Ascending placentitis : Bacteria → Streptococcus, E. coli, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas. Fungus → Aspergillus sp. Premature udder development and vaginal discharge.
  • Nocardioform placentitis : Actinomycetes
  • Rhodococcus equi : sporadic placentitis and mid-to-late term abortion.
  • Salmonella abortus equi : Salmonella enterica serovar abortus equi. Severe outbreaks with high foal mortality, in Asia and Africa.
62
Q

What is the diagnostic hypothesis in case of an abortion with a modification in the appearance of the placenta on the cervical star?

A

Ascending placentitis → culture, histology of the cervical star
Vs multifocal lesions → viral or systemic bacterial infection.
NB : EHV-1 → normal placenta (micro and macro)

63
Q

What are the clinical presentations of Rhodo equi in foals ?

A
  • Pulmonary
  • Abdominal
  • Polysynovitis
  • Ocular
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
    Other forms : mediastinal lymphadenopathy, pericarditis, subclinical granulomatous meningitis
64
Q

Are thoracic US pathognomonic for R. equi?

A

Thoracic US : superficial pulmonary abscesses and consolidations. Not pathognomonic for R. equi, Se 71%, Spe 85%

65
Q

What are the bloodwork results with R. equi?

A

Leukocytosis with mature neutrophilia and monocytosis + high fibrinogenemia and globulinemia.
SAA is not a reliable predictor but is useful to evaluate disease progression and response to TT

66
Q

Which foals are suspected of R equi?

A

Foals 2-6 months
+ clinical signs of pneumonia
+ high WBC >20.000 C/microL
+ high Fib >700 mg/dL
are likely to be infected by R equi (Spe 85%)

67
Q

Is qPCR VapA analysis in feces reliable for detecting R. equi ?

A

Not reliable as presence of virulent R.equi in manure of healthy and sub clinical foals

68
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of R. equi?

A

Definitive diagnosis : only by culture and cytology of TBA or culture of extra pulmonary site.

Or positive PCR for VapA and cytology consistent with suppurative inflammation

69
Q

Which foals require treatment for R. equi?

A

Foals with clinical signs of R equi should be treated.
Foals with subclinical disease and small lesions (median abscess score < 6-10 cm) -> antimicrobials do not accelerate lesion resolution.

70
Q

What is the R. equi treatment?
How long?

A

Combination of macrolide + rifampin
Macrolide :
- Clarithromycin
- Azithromycin
- Tulathromycin
- Gamithromycin: effective in monotherapy IM but sides effects (colics, lameness, local pain). IV ?
Doxy + azithro : similar therapeutic effect

Treatment for 4 to 8 weeks.

71
Q

What are the side effects associated with the use of macrolides?

A

Can cause mild diarrhea and hyperthermia in foals, due to drug-induced anhydrosis, until at least 3 weeks after discontinuation.

72
Q

What is the best current way to prevent Rhodo?

A
  • Foals are infected shortly after birth.
  • To date no commercially available vaccine.
  • 2L of R. equi-specific hyper immune plasma (Re-HIP) administered after birth -> less likely to develop clinical pneumonia and shed less virulent R. equi in manure
  • HIP raised against beta-1-6-poly N acetyl glucosamine (PNAG-HIP) is not superior to Re-HIP.
73
Q

In a retrospective study evaluating treatment protocols for Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in foals, what was the impact of altering the treatment criteria from 2008–2011 (abscess score > 4cm) to 2012–2016 (abscess score > 11.5 cm)?

A) The new treatment protocol significantly decreased mortality rates due to pneumonia.

B) The change in treatment criteria reduced the number of foals treated without increasing mortality from Rhodococcus equi pneumonia.

C) Antibiotic treatment was discontinued for all foals, leading to a significant increase in mortality.

D) There was no change in the abscess score between the two time periods.

A

Correct Answer:
B) The change in treatment criteria reduced the number of foals treated without increasing mortality from Rhodococcus equi pneumonia.

The revised treatment approach led to a reduction in antibiotic use while not significantly affecting foal mortality.

Changing policy to treat foals with Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in the later course of disease decreases antimicrobial usage without increasing mortality rate
evj 2020

74
Q

In a controlled, randomized, double-blinded clinical trial evaluating the treatment of R. equi bronchopneumonia in foals, what was the conclusion regarding the efficacy of azithromycin-doxycycline compared to azithromycin-rifampin?

A) Azithromycin-doxycycline was found to be superior to azithromycin-rifampin in treating bronchopneumonia in foals.

B) Azithromycin-doxycycline was noninferior to azithromycin-rifampin, with similar recovery rates in foals.

C) Azithromycin-doxycycline was less effective than azithromycin-rifampin, with a higher treatment failure rate.

D) There was no significant difference in recovery rates between treated foals and untreated controls.

A

Correct Answer:
B) Azithromycin-doxycycline was noninferior to azithromycin-rifampin, with similar recovery rates in foals.

Given the importance of rifampin in treatment protocols for tuberculosis in people, its use in veterinary medicine is under increasing scrutiny in some countries and alternatives might be needed in the near future.
The study found that azithromycin-doxycycline was as effective as azithromycin-rifampin for treating R. equi bronchopneumonia in foals, within the noninferiority margin set by the study.

Efficacy of the combination of doxycycline and azithromycin for the treatment of foals with mild to moderate bronchopneumonia
evj 2020

75
Q

In a study comparing soil concentrations of macrolide- and rifampicin-resistant Rhodococcus equi strains (MRRE) on horse-breeding farms, what was the main conclusion regarding farms that used thoracic ultrasonographic screening (TUS) with subsequent antimicrobial treatment?

A) Farms using TUS and antimicrobial treatment had significantly lower soil concentrations of MRRE compared to non-TUS farms.

B) Farms using TUS and antimicrobial treatment had significantly higher soil concentrations of MRRE, suggesting that the use of TUS may select for antimicrobial-resistant Rhodococcus equi strains.

C) There was no significant difference in soil concentrations of MRRE between TUS and non-TUS farms.

D) The study found that the use of TUS did not affect the soil concentrations of MRRE, but increased mortality in foals.

A

Correct Answer:
B) Farms using TUS and antimicrobial treatment had significantly higher soil concentrations of MRRE, suggesting that the use of TUS may select for antimicrobial-resistant Rhodococcus equi strains.

Our findings indicated that farms that use TUS to identify foals with subclinical pneumonia for antimicrobial treatment select for antimicrobial-resistant R equi strains. Because prognosis is worse for foals infected with resistant versus nonresistant strains of R equi, prudent use of antimicrobials to treat foals with subclinical pulmonary lesions attributed to R equi is recommended.

Association between antimicrobial treatment of subclinical pneumonia in foals and selection of macrolide- and rifampicin-resistant Rhodococcus equi strains at horse-breeding farms in central Kentucky
javma 2021

76
Q

In a randomized, controlled, blinded clinical trial comparing the efficacy of PNAG hyperimmune plasma (PNAG HIP) to Rhodococcus equi hyperimmune plasma (RE HIP) in protecting foals against R. equi pneumonia, what was the main result?

A) PNAG HIP was significantly more effective than RE HIP in preventing R. equi pneumonia in foals.

B) Foals receiving RE HIP had a significantly lower incidence of pneumonia compared to those receiving PNAG HIP.

C) PNAG HIP was less effective than RE HIP, and foals treated with PNAG HIP had a higher incidence of pneumonia.

D) PNAG HIP was equally effective as RE HIP in preventing R. equi pneumonia, with the same proportion of foals developing pneumonia in both groups.

A

Correct Answer:
D) PNAG HIP was equally effective as RE HIP in preventing R. equi pneumonia, with the same proportion of foals developing pneumonia in both groups.

Results indicate that PNAG HIP was not superior to a commercially available, United States Department of Agriculture-licensed RE HIP product for protecting foals against R equi pneumonia under field conditions.

Randomized, controlled trial comparing Rhodococcus equi and poly-N-acetyl glucosamine hyperimmune plasma to prevent R equi pneumonia in foals
jvim 2021

77
Q

In a study evaluating the diagnostic accuracy of qPCR on rectal swabs for detecting Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in foals, what was the main conclusion?

A) qPCR on rectal swabs was highly accurate and suitable for clinical use to diagnose Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in foals.

B) The qPCR test for Rhodococcus equi pneumonia had low sensitivity and specificity, making it ineffective for diagnosis.

C) qPCR on rectal swabs showed significant diagnostic potential, but its accuracy was insufficient for reliable clinical use.

D) The study found that fecal concentrations of Rhodococcus equi were lower in pneumonic foals compared to healthy foals.

A

Correct Answer:
C) qPCR on rectal swabs showed significant diagnostic potential, but its accuracy was insufficient for reliable clinical use.

Although fecal concentrations of virulent R. equi are significantly higher in pneumonic foals than healthy foals of similar age in the same environment, qPCR of rectal swabs as reported here lacks adequate diagnostic accuracy for clinical use.

Fecal concentration of Rhodococcus equi determined by quantitative polymerase chain reaction of rectal swab samples to differentiate foals with pneumonia from healthy foals
jvim 2022

78
Q

In a study evaluating the relationship between fecal concentrations of Rhodococcus equi and susceptibility to pneumonia in foals, what was the main conclusion?

A) Higher fecal concentrations of virulent Rhodococcus equi before intrabronchial infection were associated with a reduced risk of pneumonia, suggesting that natural ingestion of R. equi might protect foals from infection.

B) Natural ingestion of Rhodococcus equi does not affect foals’ susceptibility to pneumonia, as there was no significant difference in fecal concentrations between groups.

C) Foals that were gavaged with live Rhodococcus equi had significantly lower fecal concentrations of the bacteria, which increased their susceptibility to pneumonia.

D) The study found that the fecal concentrations of Rhodococcus equi were not correlated with the development of pneumonia, indicating that other factors influence susceptibility.

A

Correct Answer:
A) Higher fecal concentrations of virulent Rhodococcus equi before intrabronchial infection were associated with a reduced risk of pneumonia, suggesting that natural ingestion of R. equi might protect foals from infection.

Foals with higher fecal concentrations of virulent Rhodococcus equi (whether from natural ingestion or gavage) were less likely to develop pneumonia, indicating a potential protective effect.

79
Q

In a study evaluating the effectiveness of various antibiotic combinations against Rhodococcus equi, what was the main conclusion regarding dual therapy with clarithromycin?

A) Clarithromycin combined with rifampin was the most effective in reducing Rhodococcus equi growth, especially against resistant strains.

B) Clarithromycin and rifampin together were found to be ineffective against both susceptible and resistant Rhodococcus equi strains.

C) No antibiotic combination demonstrated significant synergy, and all combinations had similar efficacy in reducing Rhodococcus equi growth.

D) Clarithromycin combined with doxycycline or minocycline showed in vitro synergy and may help minimize the development of antimicrobial resistance in Rhodococcus equi.

A

Correct Answer:
D) Clarithromycin combined with doxycycline or minocycline showed in vitro synergy and may help minimize the development of antimicrobial resistance in Rhodococcus equi.

Clarithromycin, when used in combination with doxycycline or minocycline, exhibited synergistic effects in vitro and could potentially reduce the emergence of antimicrobial resistance.
Dual therapy combinations consisting of clarithromycin with doxycycline or minocycline merit consideration as a treatment protocol against R equi in foals due to in vitro synergy.

Synergistic combinations of clarithromycin with doxycycline or minocycline reduce the emergence of antimicrobial resistance in Rhodococcus equi
evj 2022

80
Q

In a study comparing the efficacy of rifampin/azithromycin versus rifampin/tulathromycin combinations for treating moderate to severe pneumonia in foals, what was the main conclusion?

A) Rifampin/azithromycin was significantly more effective than rifampin/tulathromycin in treating foals with pneumonia.

B) The rifampin/tulathromycin combination was more effective, with faster recovery rates than the rifampin/azithromycin combination.

C) Both rifampin/azithromycin and rifampin/tulathromycin combinations were equally effective, with similar recovery rates and a recovery time of approximately 3 weeks for both groups.

D) Both antibiotic combinations were ineffective, and foals required more than 3 weeks of treatment for recovery.

A

Correct Answer:
C) Both rifampin/azithromycin and rifampin/tulathromycin combinations were equally effective, with similar recovery rates and a recovery time of approximately 3 weeks for both groups.

Both antibiotic combinations were similarly effective in treating moderate to severe pneumonia in foals within a 3-week period.

Comparison of the ef cacy of rifampin/azithromycin and rifampin/tulathromycin for the treatment of foals affected with pneumonia
eve 2022

81
Q

In a study comparing the effect of different volumes of Rhodococcus equi hyperimmune plasma (REHIP) on the incidence of pneumonia in foals, what was the main conclusion?

A) Foals transfused with 2 L of REHIP had a significantly lower incidence of pneumonia compared to foals transfused with 1 L.

B) Transfusion of 1 L of REHIP was more effective than 2 L in reducing the incidence of pneumonia in foals.

C) The volume of REHIP transfused had no significant effect on the incidence of pneumonia in foals.

D) Foals born in April or May had a significantly lower incidence of pneumonia, regardless of the volume of REHIP transfused.

A

Correct Answer:
A) Foals transfused with 2 L of REHIP had a significantly lower incidence of pneumonia compared to foals transfused with 1 L.

Foals receiving 2 L of REHIP had a lower likelihood of developing pneumonia compared to those receiving 1 L, even after accounting for the effects of birth month.
The odds of pneumonia were 2.7-fold greater for foals born in April or May than for foals born before April.

Transfusion with 2 litres of hyperimmune plasma is superior to transfusion of 1 litre for protecting foals against pneumonia attributed to Rhodococcus equi
eve 2022

82
Q

In a study evaluating the efficacy of intra-rectal vaccination with Enterisol Ileitis® in foals against Lawsonia intracellularis, what was the main conclusion regarding seroconversion?

A) Seroconversion was observed in all vaccinated foals, indicating 100% protection against equine proliferative enteropathy (EPE).

B) Control foals had a higher rate of seroconversion compared to vaccinated foals, indicating a better immune response in the control group.

C) Single and double intra-rectal vaccination led to significantly more seroconversion than in non-vaccinated control foals, but serological testing shortly after vaccination did not reliably predict vaccine efficacy.

D) Seroconversion after vaccination was correlated with a 100% protection rate against EPE, as no vaccinated foals developed the disease.

A

Correct Answer:
C) Single and double intra-rectal vaccination led to significantly more seroconversion than in non-vaccinated control foals, but serological testing shortly after vaccination did not reliably predict vaccine efficacy.

Measurable Lawsonia intracellularis-antibodies can be detected after intra-rectal vaccination, but serological testing immediately following vaccination does not seem to be a reliable method to assess the efficacy of the vaccination.

Single and double vaccination against Lawsonia intracellularis in foals: Investigation of the humoral immune response following different vaccination protocols
eve 2023

83
Q

In a study characterizing the oxidative status in healthy equine neonates during the first week of life, what was the primary conclusion regarding the role of oxidative stress and antioxidant systems?

A) Lipid peroxidation and reactive oxygen species (ROS) levels were consistently low throughout the first week of life, suggesting a stable oxidative balance.

B) Antioxidant systems in foals were not activated until after 168 hours, leading to sustained high levels of ROS.

C) Bilirubin concentrations remained elevated throughout the first week of life, indicating a persistent oxidative stress response.

D) A pro-oxidant balance was observed during the first 168 hours of life, with increased lipid peroxidation at birth and activation of antioxidant systems, such as GPx and bilirubin, to reduce ROS levels.

A

Correct Answer:
D) A pro-oxidant balance was observed during the first 168 hours of life, with increased lipid peroxidation at birth and activation of antioxidant systems, such as GPx and bilirubin, to reduce ROS levels.

Lipid peroxidation at birth was high, suggesting an increase in ROS levels relating to physiological events in neonatal adaptation. Antioxidant systems, involving unconjugated bilirubin and GPx, were activated and these biomolecules act concomitantly to reduce ROS levels, thus maintaining oxidative homeostasis.
Overall, our results suggest a pro-oxidant balance during the first 168 hours after birth in equine neonates.

Oxidative state in equine neonates: Anti- and pro-oxidants
evj 2021

84
Q

What is the primary conclusion regarding ascorbic acid (AA) concentrations, plasma antioxidant capacity (PAC), and markers of oxidative stress in healthy foals during the first month of life?

A) Healthy foals have the highest plasma ascorbic acid concentrations shortly after birth, followed by a gradual decrease over the first month, alongside an increase in PAC and dROMs, suggesting a developing oxidative balance.

B) Ascorbic acid concentrations in foals are highest at 4 weeks of age, while PAC and dROMs steadily decrease over the first month of life.

C) Plasma ascorbic acid concentrations are lowest at birth and increase steadily through the first month of life, while PAC and dROMs remain stable.

D) There is no significant change in plasma AA, PAC, or dROMs during the first month of life in healthy foals.

A

Correct Answer:
A) Healthy foals have the highest plasma ascorbic acid concentrations shortly after birth, followed by a gradual decrease over the first month, alongside an increase in PAC and dROMs, suggesting a developing oxidative balance.

Healthy foals have higher plasma Ascorbic Acid concentrations shortly after birth, which then gradually decrease throughout the first month of life, suggesting that AA may represent a key antioxidant in the postnatal period.
The concurrent increase in PAC and dROMs suggests that dynamic development of oxidative balance occurs after birth in foals.

Plasma ascorbic acid, antioxidant capacity, and reactive oxygen species in healthy foals
AJVR 2022

85
Q

What was the primary conclusion regarding the normal regression of the internal umbilical remnants in foals?

A) The internal umbilical remnants (vein, arteries, and urachus) remained unchanged over the first 6 weeks of life, indicating no significant regression.

B) The internal umbilical remnants in foals regressed slowly over the first 6 weeks, with the most significant reduction occurring after 5 weeks of age.

C) The internal umbilical remnants (umbilical vein, arteries, and urachus) rapidly regressed during the first few weeks of life, with a significant reduction observed within the first week.

D) The diameter of the internal umbilical remnants increased progressively over the first 6 weeks of life.

A

Correct Answer:
C) The internal umbilical remnants (umbilical vein, arteries, and urachus) rapidly regressed during the first few weeks of life, with a significant reduction observed within the first week.

The umbilical remnants regressed rapidly during the first few weeks of life, with the most significant reduction occurring within the first week of life.
The median internal umbilical remnant diameters reported here are smaller than previously reported values, emphasising the importance of accounting for age when diagnosing umbilical abnormalities.
In a healthy Standardbred foal, normal structures are difficult to definitively identify via transcutaneous ultrasound by 5-6 weeks of age.

Normal regression of the internal umbilical remnant structures in Standardbred foals
evj 2020

86
Q

What were the key findings of the study investigating the effects of fetal exposure to enrofloxacin on foal cartilage and tendon strength?

A) Enrofloxacin administration at therapeutic and supratherapeutic doses caused significant cartilage and tendon lesions in foals by 5 weeks of age.
B) Enrofloxacin administration during late gestation did not result in macroscopic or microscopic lesions in foals’ cartilage or tendons, and tendon strength was unaffected.
C) Foals born to treated mares exhibited significantly weaker tendons compared to foals from untreated mares.
D) Only foals born from mares treated with supratherapeutic doses of enrofloxacin exhibited osteochondral changes by 5 weeks of age.

A

Answer:
B) Enrofloxacin administration during late gestation did not result in macroscopic or microscopic lesions in foals’ cartilage or tendons, and tendon strength was unaffected.

Ccl° : Short-term administration of enrofloxacin to late gestation mares did not result in macroscopic or microscopic lesions in the resulting foals by 5 weeks of age

Administration of enrofloxacin during late pregnancy failed to induce lesions in the resulting newborn foals
evj 2020

87
Q

What was the effect of post-natal enrofloxacin treatment on foals in the study?

A) Post-natal enrofloxacin treatment caused severe cartilage erosions, synovitis, and joint capsular thickening in foals by 30 days of age.

B) Foals treated post-natally with enrofloxacin showed improved cartilage health and stronger tendon strength compared to untreated foals.

C) Post-natal treatment with enrofloxacin had no effect on cartilage lesions or joint health, and no abnormalities were observed in post-natally treated foals.

D) Only foals treated post-natally with enrofloxacin showed detectable cartilage lesions, but these were more severe than in foals from mares treated during pregnancy.

A

Answer:
A) Post-natal enrofloxacin treatment caused severe cartilage erosions, synovitis, and joint capsular thickening in foals by 30 days of age.

Severe cartilage erosions, synovitis and joint capsular thickening were identified in foals treated with enrofloxacin post-natally.
In foals from treated mares, no differences were seen in advanced imaging, biomechanical testing or gene expression by 30 days of age, suggesting that enrofloxacin may be a safe and useful antibiotic for select bacterial infections in pregnant mares.

Fluoroquinolone exposure in utero did not affect articular cartilage of resulting foals
evj 2021

88
Q

What was a key finding regarding intragastric pH profiles in neonatal foals admitted to the ICU?

A) Foals with a history of placentitis had significantly lower mean pH and spent more time with a pH <4 compared to foals without placentitis.

B) Foals with diarrhea had a higher percentage of time with intragastric pH <4 compared to foals without diarrhea.

C) Foals with a pH >4 for more than 50% of the recording time had lower PaCO2 and higher PaO2 compared to those with pH < 4.

D) The majority of foals spent over 80% of the recording time with an intragastric pH < 4, suggesting a need for routine acid-suppressive therapy in the ICU.

A

Answer:
B) Foals with diarrhea had a higher percentage of time with intragastric pH <4 compared to foals without diarrhea.

  • Mean pH of foals was 5.5
  • A history of placentitis was associated with greater mean pH
  • Foals with diarrhea had a greater % time pH <4
  • Intragastric pH profiles were unpredictable and mostly >4 for >80% of the recording time.
  • This study does not support the indiscriminate administration of acid suppressive treatment.

Intragastric pH of foals admitted to the intensive care unit
jvim 2020

89
Q

Which clinical signs is associated with the isolation of Enterococcus durans in foals ?

A

Detection of E. durans was associated with
diarrhea in foals.
Detection of E. durans in foals was associated with detection of E. durans in broodmares.

Enterococcus durans infection and diarrhea in Thoroughbred foals
jvim 2022

90
Q

What did the study reveal about the fecal bacterial microbiota in healthy versus sick foals?

A) The diversity of the fecal microbiota was significantly higher in healthy foals compared to sick foals, indicating a more stable microbiota in healthy foals.

B) The diversity of the fecal microbiota was significantly lower in sick foals compared to healthy foals, suggesting a more stable and diverse microbial environment in sick foals.

C) The diversity of the fecal microbiota was significantly lower in healthy foals compared to sick foals, possibly due to a high exposure to environmental microorganisms or an unstable microbiota in sick foals.

D) There was no significant difference in the diversity of the fecal microbiota between healthy and sick foals, with both groups showing similar microbial diversity.

A

C) The diversity of the fecal microbiota was significantly lower in healthy foals compared to sick foals, possibly due to a high exposure to environmental microorganisms or an unstable microbiota in sick foals.

  • The presence of microorganisms causing bacteremia in foals in a high relative abundance in the feces of foals suggests the intestine might play an essential role in the causation of bacteremia in foals.
  • Despite differences in diversity, the bacterial membership and structure of the microbiota were not significantly different between healthy and sick foals.

The fecal bacterial microbiota of healthy and sick newborn foals
jvim 2023

91
Q

What was the main conclusion of the study comparing early castration (3 days) with traditional castration (18 months) in Welsh ponies?

A) Early castration at 3 days resulted in significant differences in physical development and temperament compared to traditional castration at 18 months.

B) Early castration at 3 days had no impact on the morphological or behavioural development of ponies, with no differences observed between early and traditional castration groups.

C) Ponies castrated at 3 days showed delayed physical development and more aggressive behaviour at 1 and 3 years of age compared to those castrated at 18 months.

D) Early castration at 3 days led to more rapid growth and better temperament in ponies compared to those castrated at 18 months.

A

B) Early castration at 3 days had no impact on the morphological or behavioural development of ponies, with no differences observed between early and traditional castration groups.

Early castration in foals: Consequences on physical and behavioural development
evj 2023

92
Q

What was the main finding of the study regarding the impact of recumbency at hospital admission on mare and foal survival following dystocia resolution?

A) Ambulatory mares had significantly higher odds of survival, and foals delivered from ambulatory mares also had higher odds of survival compared to those from recumbent mares.

B) Recumbent mares had significantly higher survival rates compared to ambulatory mares, and foals delivered from recumbent mares had a higher chance of survival.

C) Recumbent mares had no impact on the survival of foals, and mare fertility was significantly lower for recumbent mares following dystocia resolution.

D) Recumbent mares had a higher risk of post-dystocia fertility issues, but foal survival was unaffected by the mare’s ambulation status at admission.

A

A) Ambulatory mares had significantly higher odds of survival, and foals delivered from ambulatory mares also had higher odds of survival compared to those from recumbent mares.

  • Mare and foal survival was significantly decreased when mares with dystocia were recumbent at hospital admission.
  • Subsequent fertility, as defined for this study, of surviving mares was not affected by ambulation status at the time of
    dystocia resolution.

Recumbency decreases mare and foal survival following in-hospital dystocia management
evj 2024

93
Q

Can the intra-articular route be used for amikacin administration in newborn foals?

A

Not in neonates

Concurrent IV and IA administration of amikacin produces 30-minute plasma concentrations considered therapeutic in foals 14 to 23 days old, but concentrations observed in younger foals might be below.

Pharmacokinetics of amikacin after intravenous, intra-articular, and combined intravenous and intra-articular administration in healthy neonatal foals
jvim 2024

94
Q

What is the most common cause of icterus in newborn foals ?

A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

95
Q

DDX of hemolytic anemia in neonatal foals ?

A
  • NI
  • DIC associated with sepsis
  • Bacteria-induced hemolysis
  • Iatrogenic causes such as incompatible transfusion of blood or plasma
96
Q

What is the estimated quantity of IgG provided by 1L of hyperimmune plasma?

A

1L HI plasma → increases serum IgG concentration by ∼200 mg/dL

97
Q

What are the 2 genetic diseases associated with immunodeficiency in foals ?

A
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) in Arabian foals : failure to produce functional B and T lymphocytes → no adaptive immune response
  • Foal immunodeficiency syndrome in young Fell and Dales pony foals : anemia, immunodeficiency, peripheral ganglionopathy
98
Q

Which hepatic biochemical parameters shows the most striking elevations compared with adults ?

A

Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) → 10-fold greater in the first week of life, due to bone metabolism.

Liver specific serum enzymes : SDH, GLDH, and GGT do not differ significantly with age and are of greatest utility in evaluating the foal with hepatic dysfunction

GGT → liver and biliary tract specific
SDH, GGT → hepaocellular origin

99
Q

What is Tyzzer’s disease ?

A
  • Tyzzer’s disease is an enterohepatic syndrome affecting foals from 7 to 42 days of age, associated with the rapid onset of septic shock and death.
  • Paracute bacterial hepatitis
  • Caused by Clostridium piliform
100
Q

DDX of hepatic diseases in foals

A
  • Tyzzer’s disease
  • Bacterial hepatitis : due to sepsis. Actinobacillus, Strepto. equi zooepidemicus, Leptospira
  • EHV-1
  • Hepatic lipidosis
  • Neonatal isoerythrolysis
  • Iron toxicity : oral adm° of iron fumarate before colostrum ingestion
  • Inherited or congenital disorders
101
Q

DDX of congenital hepatic disorders in neonatal foals ?

A
  • Glycogen storage disease type IV : fatal recessive inherited deficiency of the glycogen branching enzyme (GBE) → QH foals. Mutation of GBE1 gene.
  • Persistent hyperammonemia : inherited disorder of hepatic ammonia (and other aa) metabolism, associated with encephalopathy in Morgan foals. Clinical signs after weaning → 4-7 months of age.
  • Congenital fibrosis : Swiss Franches-Montagnes. Ictere + encephalopathy
  • Portosystemic shunt : infrequent shunting of blood directly from the portal circulation to the systemic circulation. Located intra- or extra-hepatic. Clinical signs of encephalopathy with marked increased of serum ammonia (NH3)
102
Q

DDX of muscular disorders in foals

A
  • PSSM : QH, Paint, Appaloosa, Draft, WB… Incompletely penetrant autosomal dominant mutationGYS1 gene. Subclinical in foals.
  • Glycogen branchong enzyme deficiency : important cause of stillbirth or early neonatal death in QH and Paint. Autosomal recessive mutation of GBE1 gene → severe impairment of glucose homeostasis.
  • Nutritional myodegeneration (NMD) or White muscle disease : affects skeletal and cardiac muscles. Associated with low selenium and Vita E concentrations due to deficiency in the mare.
103
Q

A 24-hour-old Arabian foal of Egyptian lineage is presented in emergency with convulsive neurological disorders. What is your diagnostic hypothesis?

A
  • Lavender foal syndrome (LFS) is a rare inherited lethal disorder occurring in Arabian horses, particularly those of the Egyptian bloodline but also described in other bloodlines.
  • The phenotype of a homozygous recessive foal is marked by silver, pale pink or lavender coat colour, hence the name of the disease, also known as coat colour dilution lethal (CCDL).
  • The LFS newborn foal exhibits neurological abnormalities such as tetanic seizures with opisthotonic epilepsy, recumbent posture and reluctance to stand for nursing despite the presence of the suckling reflex.
  • Frequency of carriers → 16% ; allele frequency → 0.08
  • The observed frequency of heterozygotes suggests foals affected with LFS will be produced among Arabian horses in Egypt. Therefore, screening of the entire population for this mutation should be undertaken in the breeding program.

Evidence for origin of lavender foal syndrome among Egyptian Arabian horses in Egypt
evj 2023

104
Q

What is the clinical hypothesis of a Thoroughbred foals, presented with neurological tetany and seizures due to hypocalcemia ?

A

Equine familial isolated hypoparathyroidism (EFIH) : fatal condition in Thoroughbred foals, characterized by muscle contractions and seizures due to hypocalcemia.
Autosomal recessive
Allele frequency in TB → 1.8%

105
Q

A newborn WB foal presented with ligament hyperlaxity and numerous skin lesions. What is your clinical diagnosis? What other breeds are affected?

A

Fragile foal syndrome type 1 (FFS), formerly warmblood fragile foal syndrome (WFFS), is an inherited defect of connective tissue characterized by hyperextensible, abnormally thin, fragile skin and mucous membranes that are subject to open lesions.
Affected horses may also have hyperextensible limb joints, floppy ears, accumulation of fluid (hydrops), subcutaneous emphysema, hematomas, and premature birth.

The disease is present at birth and affected newborn foals are euthanized shortly after birth due to the poor prognosis of this untreatable condition.

Fragile foal syndrome type 1 is an autosomal recessive disease, mutation in the PLOD1 gene.

The FFS mutation has been reported in warmblood breeds and is at a low frequency in Thoroughbreds.

106
Q

What is the recommended dosage of TMPS for foals according to the study?
A) 15 mg/kg every 12 hours
B) 24 mg/kg every 12 hours
C) 30 mg/kg every 24 hours
D) 24 mg/kg every 24 hours

A

B) 24 mg/kg every 12 hours

2024 Trimethoprim-sulfonamide: a valid antimicrobial treatment in foals?

107
Q

Which of the following statements about TMPS administration is TRUE?
A) Intramuscular administration is preferred due to rapid absorption.
B) Oral administration maintains therapeutic levels longer than IV.
C) TMPS is not effective against purulent infections due to high tissue penetration.
D) TMPS should always be combined with rifampicin for enhanced efficacy.

A

B) Oral administration maintains therapeutic levels longer than IV.

2024 Trimethoprim-sulfonamide: a valid antimicrobial treatment in foals?

108
Q

In which scenario is TMPS NOT recommended according to the study?
A) Prophylactic use before elective surgeries
B) Treatment of sepsis with known susceptibility
C) Umbilical abscesses without surgical intervention
D) Long-term treatment on farms

A

C) Umbilical abscesses without surgical intervention

2024 Trimethoprim-sulfonamide: a valid antimicrobial treatment in foals?

109
Q

What is a significant concern when using TMPS with alpha-2 agonists?
A) Increased risk of gastrointestinal upset
B) Potential for severe reactions including arrhythmias
C) Reduced antimicrobial efficacy
D) Enhanced sedation effects

A

B) Potential for severe reactions including arrhythmias

2024 Trimethoprim-sulfonamide: a valid antimicrobial treatment in foals?

110
Q

ECEIM 2026
In critically ill foals, which of the following biomarkers showed the highest odds ratio for predicting nonsurvival when elevated?
A) Syndecan-1
B) Heparan sulfate
C) Angiopoietin-2
D) Atrial natriuretic peptide

A

Answer: D) Atrial natriuretic peptide (OR = 7.2 for plasma ANP >11.5 pg/mL)

2024 Endothelial glycocalyx degradation in critically ill foals

111
Q

ECEIM 2026
Which of the following statements about endothelial glycocalyx degradation in septic foals is FALSE?
A) It is associated with higher serum ANG-2 levels
B) It correlates with lower plasma ANP levels
C) It is linked to increased odds of nonsurvival
D) It may contribute to vasoplegia

A

Answer: B) It correlates with lower plasma ANP levels (The study found higher plasma ANP levels in septic and nonsurviving foals)

2024 Endothelial glycocalyx degradation in critically ill foals

112
Q

ECEIM 2026
Based on the study results, which combination of biomarkers would be most concerning for a critically ill foal’s prognosis?
A) Elevated SDC-1 and normal HS
B) Normal ANG-2 and elevated ALD
C) Elevated HS and elevated ANP
D) Normal SDC-1 and normal ANG-2

A

Answer: C) Elevated HS and elevated ANP (Both were associated with higher odds of nonsurvival)

2024 Endothelial glycocalyx degradation in critically ill foals

113
Q

ECEIM 2026
What is the clinical significance of finding a serum heparan sulfate level of 60 ng/mL in a hospitalized foal?
A) It indicates certain survival
B) It suggests a low risk of endothelial damage
C) It is associated with increased odds of nonsurvival
D) It has no prognostic value

A

Answer: C) It is associated with increased odds of nonsurvival (The study found that HS >58.7 ng/mL had higher odds of nonsurvival)

2024 Endothelial glycocalyx degradation in critically ill foals