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B2 > NBS Microbiology- Immunology > Flashcards

NBS Microbiology- Immunology Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is a phagocytic cell of the immune system?
A. Basophil
B. Mast cell
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophil
A

Neutrophil

  • 3 main phagocytic cells are monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils
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2
Q 
Which cells would degranulate in response to an allergy?
A. Basophil
B. Mast cell
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophil
A

mast cells

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3
Q 
Which cell acts as a antigen presenting cell to T cells?
A. Basophil
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
D. IL-6
A

Macrophage

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4
Q 
Which of the following can inactivate the pathogen?
A. Macrophage
B. Neutrophil
C. NK cell
D. Basophil
A

NK cell

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5
Q

How many types of T cells are there?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2

A

3

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6
Q 
Which of the following triggers target cells to commit suicide?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. Macrophages
A

Killer T cells

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7
Q 
This deals with antigen recognition and regulation; it also secretes a protein molecule (cytokine)?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. NK cell
A

Helper T cell

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8
Q 
Histocompatibility complex protein 1 would be scanned for what is inside by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. NK cell
A

Killer T cell

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9
Q 
Histocompatibility complex protein 2 would be scanned for whats on the outside by\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
A. Regulatory T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Killer T cells
D. NK cell
A

Helper T cells

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10
Q 
An Antibody binds to the part of the antigen called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
A. Fragment
B. Complex zone
C. Epitope
D. Cytokine
A

Epitope

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11
Q 
Which cells would produce cytokines and help to activate Helper T and Cytotoxic T cells?
A. Dendritic cell
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
D. Mast cells
A

Macrophage

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12
Q 
Which of the following presents the antigen for T cells to see?
A. Mast cell
B. IgE
C. Neutrophil
D. Histocompatibility complex protein
A

Histocompatibility complex protein

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13
Q

T/F: An Antibody killed the antigen

A

False

it simply tags it for death aka the kiss of death

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14
Q 
How many proteins are a part of the complement system?
A. 20
B. 15
C. 21
D. 25
A

20

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15
Q 
Where are the proteins of the complement system made?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Adrenal Gland
D. Heart
A

Liver

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16
Q

T/F: The complement system is slow

A

False

its super duper fast

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17
Q 
Which of the following is antibody independent?
A. Lectin activation pathway
B. Classical pathway
C. Alternative pathway
D. Type 1 hypersensitivity
A

Alternative pathway

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18
Q 
During the lectin activation pathway \_\_\_\_\_\_\_binds to lectin and lectin binds to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on the pathogen.
A. Maltose, Lipid molecule
B. Maltose, Carbohydrate molecule
C. Mannose, Carbohydrate molecule
D. Glucose, Carbohydrate molecule
A

C

mannose, Carb molecule on pathogen

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19
Q 
Which of the following depends on an antibody for activation?
A. Lectin activation pathway
B. Classical pathway
C. Alternative pathway
D. Type 2 hypersensitivity
A

Classical pathway

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20
Q 
If you were dealing with the process of neutralizing antibodies, you most likely are:
A. reducing the antigen
B. oxidizing the antigen
C. killing the antigen
D. eating the antigen
A

oxidizing the antigen

this is your prepare to EAT stage

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21
Q 
The lectin activation pathway triggers inflammation after binding to the carbohydrate molecule on the antigen. This chemotactically attracts \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to infection.
A. Helper T cells
B. mast cells
C. Phagocytes
D. Basophils
A

Phagocytes

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22
Q

The lectin pathway signals B-lymphocytes causing lysis of gram ________ bacteria and foreign epitopes.
A. Negative
B. Positive

A

Negative

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23
Q 
Which type of hypersensitivity would be antibody mediated?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2
A

Type 2

I AM IT

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24
Q 
IgE would be the main responding antibody to which of the following hypersensitivities?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2
A

Type 1

Type 4 also but not as prevalent, bc type 4 is delayed

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25
Q 
Type 2 Hypersensitivity would be associated with:
A. IgA and IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE and IgA
D. IgG and IgM
A

D

IgG and IgM

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26
Q 
Type 3 Hypersensitivity would be associated with:
A. IgA and IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE and IgA
D. IgG and IgM
A

IgG

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27
Q 
Which hypersensitivity would you find myanstania gravis and pernicious anemia occurring?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2
A

Type 2

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28
Q 
Which hypersensitivity would involve a rejection of a tissue graft?
A. Type 2
B. Type 4
C. Type 3
D. Type 1
A

Type 4

it may take a while (delayed) to reject it

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29
Q 
Which hypersensitivity is immune complex mediated?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2
A

Type 3

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30
Q 
Which hypersensitivity would be T cell mediated?
A. Type 3
B. Type 4
C. Type 1
D. Type 2
A

Type 4

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31
Q 
If your child was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus you would expect which of the following:
A. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex hypersensitivity
D. T cell mediated hypersensitivity
A

Immune complex hypersensitivity

aka Type 3

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32
Q 
You have a patient come in with rheumatoid arthritis, this is an example of:  
A. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex hypersensitivity
D. T cell mediated hypersensitivity
A

Immune Complex hypersensitivity

aka Type 3

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33
Q 
Basophils and mast cells can be associated with:
A. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
B. Immediate hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex hypersensitivity
D. T cell mediated hypersensitivity
A

immediate hypersensitivity

type 1

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34
Q 
Which of the following could be associated with Immune Complex hypersensitivity?
A. Dermatitis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Blood group incompatibility 
D. Rheumatic fever
A

Rheumatic fever

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35
Q 
SARS had an outbreak in what country in 2002?
A. Chile
B. United States
C. Africa
D. Chine
A

China

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36
Q 
The Avian flu (bird flu) broke out in ASIA in what year?
A. 2003
B. 2004
C. 2000
D. 2001
A

2003

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37
Q 
As of 2013, which of the following was named the most common foodborne disease?
A. Hantavirus
B. Tuberculosis 
C. Norovirus
D. West Nile virus
A

Norovirus

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38
Q 
As of 2013, what is the 2nd most common foodborne disease?
A. Salmonella
B. Rotavirus
C. Norovirus
D. Pertusis
A

Samonella

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39
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is caused by proteins from mold or plant spores.
A. Asthma
B. SLE
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Hay fever
A

Hay fever

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40
Q 
Allergic individuals who produce more IgE antibodies are referred to as:
A. Atopic
B. Ectopic
C. Mellitus
D. Recipients
A

Atopic

41
Q 
What is caused by dust mites, cockroaches, rodents and household pets?
A. Asthma
B. Myasthenia Gravis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Hay fever
A

Asthma

42
Q 
Which of the following would attach to IgE antibodies?
A. Dendritic cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Monocytes
A

Basophils

43
Q 
These are involved with chronic allergic responses:
A. Mast cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Monocytes
A

Eosinophils

44
Q 
How long will IgE live in the blood?
A. several weeks
B. 1 week
C. 1 day
D. 1 year
A

1 day

45
Q 
How long wtih IgE live after it has been attaching to a Mast cell?
A. several weeks
B. 1 week
C. 1 day
D. 1 year
A

several weeks

46
Q

T/F: Being more susceptible to allergies can be hereditary

A

True

47
Q 
Which autoimmune disease would involve the myoneural junction causing double vision or a face drooping appearance?
A. SLE
B. Multiple Sclerosis
C. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
D. Myasthenia gravis
A

D

Myasthenia Gravis

48
Q 
Myasthenia gravis deals with self-reactive antibodies that bind to receptors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
A. Sodium
B. Ca++
C. Acetylcholine
D. Potassium
A

Acetylchloine

49
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?
A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. Canale- Smith Syndrome
E. Myasthenia Gravis
A

DiGeorge syndrome

*its an immunodeficiency

50
Q 
Which antibodies are most commonly found with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. IgE and IgA
B. IgA and IgG
C. IgM and IgG
D. IgA and IgM
A

IgM and IgG

51
Q

What do the antibodies in rheumatoid arthritis activate?

A

Macrophages

52
Q

Which of the following best describes Canale-smith syndrome:
A. Organ specific immune disease targeting B cells
B. Destruction of the myelin sheath
C. Repeatedly stimulated lymphocytes and swollen nodes
D. Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage

A

C

Canale- Smith lymph is swollll

53
Q

Which of the following best describes Multiple Sclerosis:
A. Organ specific immune disease targeting B cells
B. Destruction of the myelin sheath
C. Repeatedly stimulated lymphocytes and swollen nodes
D. Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage

A

B

Destruction of the myelin sheath

54
Q

Which of the following best describes Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
A. Organ specific immune disease targeting B cells
B. Destruction of the myelin sheath
C. Repeatedly stimulated lymphocytes and swollen nodes
D. Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis, kidney damage

A

D

Inflammation of the lungs, arthritis and kidney damage

55
Q 
Red facial rash or a malar butterfly rash is seen with which disease?
A. Rhematoid Arthritis 
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Myasthenia Gravis
A

C

SLE

56
Q 
This disease is caused by the breakdown of B and T cells that make IgG antibodies?
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Canale- Smith Syndrome
D. Myasthenia Gravis
A

A

SLE

57
Q

Multiple Scleosis effects primarily the ________?
A. CNS
B. PNS

A

CNS

58
Q 
This disease deals with self active T cells that can cross the blood brain barrier?
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Myasthenia Gravis
A

Multiple Sclerosis

59
Q 
Which disease is more prevalent in women and can result in hair loss, paralysis and convulsions?
A. Rhematoid Arthritis 
B. DiGeorge Syndrome
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Myasthenia Gravis
A

C

SLE

60
Q

Which disease deals with absent or severely reduced Thymic tissue and NO t cells?
A. AIDS
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. Karposi Sarcoma

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

61
Q

You are born with no B or T cells. wWhat would you have?
A. AIDS
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. Karposi Sarcoma

A

B
Severe combines immunodeficiency syndrome

*REALLY BAD

62
Q 
Kaposi Sarcoma is associated with:
A. AIDS
B. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
C. DiGeorge Syndrome
D. SLE
A

AIDS

63
Q 
Which causative agent is associated with AID and HIV?
A. Pneumocystic Carnii
B. Polio virus 
C. Norovirus
D. Coxsackie virus
A

A

Pneumocystic Carnii

64
Q

This is an example of a live attenuated virus?
A. Salk
B. Sabin

A

Sabin

65
Q

Salk treated polio virus with formaldehyde to ______ the virus.
A. Enchance
B. Kill

A

Kill

salK - Kills

66
Q 
AIDS is caused by:
A. HIV-3
B. HPV-1
C. HIV-2
D HIV-1
A

D

HIV-1

67
Q

Noninfectious vaccines help to generate all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Memory B cells
B. Memory T helper cells
C. Memory T killer cells

A

Memory T Killer

68
Q 
What type of vaccine uses a weakened form of the microbe?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine
A

Attenuated Vaccine

69
Q

Attenuated vaccines help to generate which of the following?
A. Memory B cells
B. Memory T helper cells
C. Memory T killer cells

A

Memory T killer

70
Q 
The vaccine for rubella, mumps, and measles is an example of:
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine
A

Attenuated Vaccine

71
Q 
This type of vaccine is genetically engineered and introduces a single gene from pathogenic microbe into a virus?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine
A

Carrier Virus

72
Q

T/F: Does a carrier vaccine cause disease

A

False

73
Q 
What type of vaccine is referred to as "the trojan horse"?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine
A

Carrier vaccine

74
Q 
Injecting a flu virus gene would describe which vaccine?
A. DNA Vaccine
B. Carrier Vaccine
C. Attenuated Vaccine
D. Non-infectious Vaccine
A

DNA Vaccine

75
Q

This type of immunity is either attenuated or killed?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive-active immunity
C. Passive immunity

A

Active immunity

76
Q

The type of immunity would occur naturally and can be found in mothers milk or via administered preformed antibodies in immune globulins?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive-active immunity
C. Passive immunity

A

Passive immunity is natural

77
Q

Both immuno globulins (aka immunoglobulins, gamma globulins) & vaccines are associated with which type of immunity?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive-active immunity
C. Passive immunity

A

Passive-Active

78
Q 
Immunodiffusion testing is also called:
A. Immunoelectrophoresis
B. Ouchterlony test
C. Agglutination
D. Complement fixation test
A

B

Ouchterolony test

79
Q 
This type of testing separates the molecule in order to look for a particular class of antibodies?
A. Immunoelectrophoresis
B. Ouchterlony test
C. Agglutination
D. Complement fixation test
A

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

80
Q 
Multiple myeloma, AIDS and lyme disease (borrelia burgdorferi) can be detected using which type of test?
A. Complement Fixation test
B. ELISA
C. Western Blot
D. Immunoelectrophoresis
A

D

Immunoelectrophoresis

81
Q 
Which of the following would involve antigen-antibody mixed, insoluble, huge complex formed?
A. Precipitates
B. Immunodiffusion
C. Agglutination
D. ELISA
A

Precipitates

82
Q 
This Test is used for influenze and mononucleosis, it clumps red blood cells and is NOT an antibody-antigen reaction:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Viral Hemagglutination test
D. Viral Neutralizaton
A

C

Viral Hemaggulination test

83
Q 
This test uses a dye an is commonly used to detect syphillis and mycobacterium TB:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test
A

D

Fluorescent Antibody test

84
Q 
Western blot (aka imunnoblot) verifies the presence of antibodies against \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Fungal Antigens
B. HIV
C. Red Blood cells
D. Influenze
A

HIV

85
Q 
What Color will gram positive bacteria stain?
A. Red
B. Safranin
C. Purple
D. Blue
A

purple

86
Q 
This test detects the presence of specific antibodies in serum:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test
A

C

Complement Fixation test

87
Q

T/F: Rapid ELISAs are immunofiltration assays

A

True

88
Q 
Which of the following is actually an example of an electrophoresis test?
A. ELISA
B. Fluorescent antibody test
C. Western Blot
D. Viral Neutralization
A

C

Western Blot

89
Q 
This is used in pregnancy testing and blood typing?
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test
A

A

Agglutination

90
Q 
When assessing things like meningitis, gonorrhea, salmonellosis, brucellosis and thyphoid fever you would be using which of the following:
A. Agglutination
B. Western Blot test
C. Complement Fixation test
D. Fluorescent Antibody test
A

A

Agglutination

91
Q 
Which color would be seen in a counterstain?
A. Red
B. Safranin
C. Purple
D. Blue
A

Safranin

92
Q 
Which color would Gram negative stain?
A. Red
B. Safranin
C. Purple
D. Blue
A

Red

93
Q

What type of rinse would be used as a decolorizer?

A

alcohol rinse

94
Q

QUIZ: What would present antigen to T cell…..

A

Macrophage

95
Q

QUIZ: Analphylaxis is seen in what hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1- immediate

96
Q

QUIZ: You would find infections and dermatitis in which hypersensitivity?

A

Type 4- delayed (T cell mediated)

97
Q

QUIZ: What type of cells inactive pathogens?

A

NK cells

98
Q

QUIZ: This is the part of the antigen that the immune system recognizes…

A

Epitope

99
Q

What is nike’s logo?

A

Just do it

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