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Anatomy EK Separated, and some extras > My Public Health > Flashcards

My Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 domains of public health?

A 
Health protection (infectious diseases, chemicals and poisons, pollution, radiation,
emergency response)

Improving services (clinical effectiveness, efficiency, service planning, equity)

Health improvement (lifestyles, family & community, education, employment,
housing, surveillance and monitoring)

Addressing the wider determinants of health (seeing the big picture - making sense
of data)

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2
Q

Define Demography

A

the study of statistics such as births, deaths, income, or the incidence of disease, which illustrate the changing structure of human populations, or the study of the compostion of a particular population

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3
Q

Define Prevalence

A

Proportion of of a population affected, overall burden , affected by incidence and rate of cure/death

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4
Q

Define Incidence

A

How many new cases of something in a year

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5
Q

Define Burden of Disease

A

how something/to what extent does a disease affect your life

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6
Q

What is said to be the main determinant of population health?

A

Income division - the wider the gap, the worse the health of the population is

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7
Q

What is the Gini Coeffeient?

A

a Statistical representation of a nation’s income distribution
The lower the coefficient, the greater the equality
UK has high inequality coefficient compared to Scandinavian countries

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8
Q

What things does social class measure?

A

Occupation
Stratification (ones hierarchical rank in society
Social position
Access to power and resources

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9
Q

What are the 3 main notifiable diseases?

(Diseases you need to report to public health doctors/WHO upon suspicion or diagnosis?

A

Plague
Cholera
Yellow fever

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10
Q

what happens when a country reaches a certain income threshold?

A

When a country reaches a certain income threshold;
Disease stops being due to poverty
Become degenerative disease
Then income has no effect on the health of a nation

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11
Q

Define Disease.

A

technical malfunction or deviation from the norm which is scientifically diagnosed

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12
Q

Define illness

A

the social, lived experience of symptoms and suffering

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13
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A

That a large number of people with a small risk of a disease may contribute to more cases of a disease than a small group with an individually larger risk

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14
Q

Give an example of a health promotion campaign

A 
Change 4 Life
Stoptober
Promoting screening and immunisations
Cervical smear screening
MMR vaccine
Smoking ban – population approach to secondary prevention
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15
Q

What is primary prevention

A

Prevention of disease who have not been diagnosed as having the disease, includes promoting health

Intent is to reduce/eliminate causative risk factors

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16
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

An intervention implemented after a disease has begun, but before it is symptomatic.

Intent is to identify early and minimise risks

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17
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Intervention implemented after a disease is established

Intent is to stop bad things getting worse

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18
Q

What is the stages in the Nuffield Ladder of intervention?

A

Do nothing (just monitor)
Provide information (so people are informed and educated)
Enable choice (Enable people to change their behaviours)
Guide choice through changing the default
Guide choice through incentives
Guiding choice through disincentives
Restrict choice ( Regulate options available)
eliminate choice

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19
Q

Give an example of an intervnetial method

A 
Motivational interviewing 
Social marketing 
Nudge theory – changing the environment to make the healthy option the easiest
Mindspace
Financial incentives
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20
Q

List some reasons why people may be resisitant to change

A 
Health beliefs
Situational rationality
Culture variability
Socioeconomic factors
Stress
Age

unrealistic optimism -
Individuals continue to practice health damaging behaviour due to inaccurate perceptions of risk and susceptibility, eg nothings bad has happened with me smoking so far

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21
Q

What is the transtheoretical model of change?

A

Not thinking (pre-contemplation)

Thinking about changing (contemplation)

Preparing to change

Action

Maintenance

Stable changed

lifestyle/relapse

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22
Q

Outline the health belief model of change, by Becker 1974

A 
Individuals must believe;
They are susceptible to the condition
It has serious consequences
That taking action reduces their risks
That the benefits of taking action outweigh the costs
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23
Q

name some of the key actors in global health

A 
United Nations and their agencies 
(UNICEF/UNAIDS/WHO)
Multilateral Developmental Banks 
(The World Bank/Asian Development Bank)
Bilateral agencies 
(USAID/CIDA/DFID)
Private foundations 
(Rockefeller Foundation/Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation)
Non-governmental organisations 
(Doctors Without Borders/Save The Children
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24
Q

What are the 3 leading causes of death of children in developing countries?

A

Pneumonia
Diarrhoea
Malaria

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25
Q

List some global population trends over the last 80 years.

A

World’s population is increasing
Births per woman; decreasing in less developed countries, remains stable in developed countries
World’s fertility is generally decreasing
Population is aging, especially in middle class
High population of under 15’s

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26
Q

Name some Global health issues that can arise as a consequence of climate change

A

Heatwaves – bacteria friendly environment
Sea levels rise
New diseases
Scarcity of resources

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27
Q

What are some health challenges commonly faced in the poorest countries in the world?

A 
Underweight/malnutrition
Unsafe Sex
Unsafe water and sanitation 
Zinc deficiency
Iron deficiency
Vitamin A deficiency
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28
Q

What are some health challenges commonly faced in the richest countries in the world?

A 
High blood pressure
Alcohol
High cholesterol
High BMI
Low fruit and vegetable intake
Physical inactivity
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29
Q

What 3 things make up the definition of a migrant?

A

Country of Birth
Country of nationality
Duration of stay

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30
Q

What are some causes of vulnerability that would cause migrants to come to the UK?

A

Persecution, war, political and social unrest
Exploitation, torture, rape, bereavement
Burden of disease and socioeconomic status

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31
Q

Where/what is Lampedusa? what is its significance?

A

Italian island
Closest European territory to the shores of Libya
Primary transit point for immigrants from Africa
Deadliest migrant route in the world

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32
Q

Give examples of different groups of people that could be defined as migrants

A 
Asylum seekers
Refugees
Economic migrants
Trafficked people
Migrant workers
Family workers
Family joiners
international students
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33
Q

Theories of Causation:

What is the Psychosocial theory

A

Stress results in inability to respond efficiently to body’s demands
Impact on BP, cortisol levels, and inflammatory and neuroendocrine markers

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34
Q

Theories of Causation: What is the Neo- material theory

A

More hierarchical societies are less willing to invest in provision of public goods
Poorer people have less material goods and of less quality

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35
Q

Theories of Causation: What is the life course theory

A

Combination of both psychosocial and neo-material explanations
Critical periods – possess greater impact at certain points in the life course e.g. childhood
Accumulation – hazards and their impacts add up
Interactions and pathways – sexual abuse in childhood leads to poor partner choice in adulthood

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36
Q

Theories of Causation: what is the Proportional Universalism theory

A

Focusing on the disadvantaged only will not help to reduce inequality
Action must be universal
Scaled to be intensity proportional to the disadvantaged
Fair distribution of wealth

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37
Q

Response to health inequalities - outline the work of Ignacz Semmelweis in 1847

A

Campaigned for hand washing

Found correlation between puerperal fever and dissection

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38
Q

Response to health inequalities - outline the work of the Black report in 1980

A

Material (environmental causes, might be mediated by behaviour)
i Artefact (an apparent product of how the inequality is measured)
ii Cultural/behavioural (poorer people behave in unhealthy ways)
iii Selection (sick people sink socially and economically)

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39
Q

Response to health inequalities - outline the work of The Acheson Report (1998)

A

Income inequality should be reduced

Give high priority to the health of families with children

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40
Q

Define opportunity cost

A

The cost of any decision measured in terms of the next best alternative that had to be sacrificed/forgone in the making of the decision
E.g. balancing time and money

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41
Q

Opportunity cost; what is the Loewy approach?

A

Select a few from all treatment options

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42
Q

Opportunity cost; what is the Efficiency approach?

A

; More from the cheapest areas, ignores expensive treatments

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43
Q

What is QUALYs? What is it used for?

A

QUALTIY ADJUSTED LIFE YEARS
Used in some economic evaluations to measure health
Combines length of life and quality of life
Allows one to compare interventions that have different types of effects
It makes funding decisions easier

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44
Q

Define equity

A

Equity is concerned with the fairness or justice of the distribution of costs and benefits

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45
Q

The sick role: what are the 4 components to the sick role?

A

Pt. exempt from normal social roles
Is not responsible for their condition
Should try to get well
Should seek help and cooperate with medical professionals

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46
Q

What makes up the beliefs of the biomedical model of health?

A

Down to physical and biological factors, so can be repaired

Only health professionals can practise it

Mind/body Dualism, suggests that they can be treated separately#

This privileges use of technological interventions
It neglects social and psychological dimensions of disease

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47
Q

What makes up the beliefs of the social model of health?

A

Gives thought to a wide range of factors

Focus on prevention

Wide range of people can practice it

Challenges mind/body dualism

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48
Q

What are the 3 theories of health?

A

Health as an Ideal State

Health as a state of social functioning

Health as a personal strength or ability

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49
Q

Theories of health: Outline the Health as an Ideal State theory.

What are its problems?

A

Goal of perfect well-being (WHO definition)
Disease, illness, and forms of handicap, along with social problems must be absent in order for health to be present

Problems;
Is anyone ever healthy?
What is complete well-being?
Can we ever attain this ideal state?
Misleading?
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50
Q

Theories of health: Outline the Health as a state of social functioning
theory.

What are its problems

A

Health is a means towards social functioning
All forms of disease and social handicap need to be removed
Can still be healthy (function socially) even when suffering with a chronic illness/disease
Problems;
Very narrow definition seeing health as the opposite of disease
Patients normal state may be unhealthy
Refusal of treatment might be seen as healthy

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51
Q

Theories of health: Outline the Health as a
personal strength or ability
theory.

What are its problems?

A

focus on how people respond to challenges
Health is a means to a greater end – responding positively to problems
Attempts to recover holistic ideas about health
Problems;
Vague
How can we intervene?
\

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52
Q

What are some structural determinants of health?

A 
Structural Determinants
Genetic
Constitutional (age/sex)
Culture
Lifestyle
Social/community networks
Living and working conditions
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53
Q

Determinants of health, what are some lifestyle barriers promoting mortality?

A 
Smoking
Obesity
Sedentary lifestyle
Excess alcohol
Poor diet
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54
Q

Smoking: What are the physiological effects of smoking?

How many people die a year

A

Activation of nicotinic ACh receptors in the brain
Dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens
Stimulant, tolerance, withdrawal

100,000 deaths a year

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55
Q

name some diseases associated with smoking

A

Associated health problems; Cancers, COPD, CHD, stomach ulcers, impotence, oral health, cataracts

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56
Q

Give some reasons for smoking

A 
Addiction
Coping with stress
Habit
Socialising
Fear of weight gain after cessation
Pleasure
Choice
Advertising 
Peer group/family
Signifier of cultural status
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57
Q

Apple the planned behaviour theory to smoking

A

Attitude - I do not think smoking is a good thing
Subjective norm – most people who are important to me want me to give up
Perceived behavioural control - I believe I have the ability to give up
Behavioural intention - I intend to give up

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58
Q

what was the law passed in 1908 in regards to smoking?

A

Children Act – Sale prohibited in U16s

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59
Q

what was the law passed in 1965 in regards to smoking?

A

– parliament bans cigarette advertisement on TV

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60
Q

what was the law passed in 2007 in regards to smoking?

A

smoking banned in public places and legal minimum raised to 18

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61
Q

What government intervention did the government do in 2016?

A

Standardised packaging required as of 2016 – ‘plain packaging protects’

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62
Q

Give some reasons as why someone would be reclutant to change a habit like smoking

A

Type A behaviour – hostility, competitiveness, impatience

Uncle Norman behaviour – smoked/drank and was obese all his life and died when he was 90, so I can do the same…

The last person behaviour – well he was fit and well and died suddenly, what benefit is this to me if he died…

Unrealistic optimism – tendency to perceive oneself of being at less risk of disease than other people of same age/sex

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63
Q

List some of the social implications of drinking

A

Violence
Rape
Depression/anxiety
Driving offences

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64
Q

How much alcohol is one unit?

A

A standard unit is 10 mL/8 g of ethanol

(% alcohol by volume x amount of liquid in mL)/
1000

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65
Q

What are the limits of alcohol consumption for men, women and weekly

A

Men = 3-4 units a day, 28 units a week (old recommendation)
Women = 2-3 units a day, 21 units a week (old recommendation)
NEW GUIDELINES SAY 14 UNITS/WEEK FOR MEN AND WOMEN

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66
Q

Name a sign of alcohol wihtdrawal

A 
Tremors
Activation syndrome (agitation, shakes, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure)
Seizures
Hallucinations
Delirium tremens
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67
Q

How much energy in 1g of of alcohol?

A

7kcal

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68
Q

name one of the 4 questions in the CAGE questionaire for alcohol dependancy.

A

Ever felt that you should cut down?
Been annoyed by people telling you to cut down?
Do you feel guilty about how much you drink?
Eye opener: ever had a drink first thing in the morning?

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69
Q

What is an associated disease with diarrhoea?

A

Dysentery
Typhoid
Hepatitis
Cholera

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70
Q

What would be a risk factor for infection?

A
  • low immunity, low white cell count, imbalance in normal flora, invasive
    procedures (64% of blood stream infections are directly related to IV devices in situ
    )
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71
Q

Define reservoir in the context of infection control

A

where the spread originates, patients, visitors, stuff, fomites

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72
Q

What are the 3 types of handwashing?

A

i Level 1: Routine handwash
ii Level 2: Hygienic hand antisepsis
iii Level 3: Surgical handscrub

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73
Q

Name one of the standard IPC precautions in hospitals

A

gloves and aprons, hand hygiene
• correct sharps manipulation
• correct clinical waste and linen handling

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74
Q

What does Alcohol gel destroy? What about antimicrobial liquid soap?

A

Alcohol gel - destroys most transient organisms (MRSA) but does not kill Norovirus or
Clostridium difficile
ii Antimicrobial Liquid Soap - removes all transient organisms

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75
Q

What are some of the challenges of having an increasingly aging population?

A

Strains on pensions and social security
Increasing demands for health care

Bigger need for trained health workforce
Increasing demand for long term care

Pervasive ageism that denies older people the rights and opportunities for other adults

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76
Q

What are the causes of an increase in the age of the population?

A

Improvement in sanitation, housing, nutrition, and medical interventions

Life expectancy is rising

Substantial falls in fertility
Decline in premature mortality

More people reaching old age whilst fewer children are born

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77
Q

What are the two reasons women tend to live longer than men?

A

Biological (20%) – premenopausal women are protected from heart disease by hormones
Environmental (80%) – men take more lifestyle risks

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78
Q

Give an example of extrinsic aging

A

Extrinsic – dependent on external factors, UV rays, smoking, air pollution

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79
Q

List some of the physical changes seen in aging

A 
Loss of skin elasticity
Loss of hair and hair colouring 
Decrease in size and weight 
Loss of joint flexibility
Increased susceptibility to illness
Decline in learning ability
Less efficient memory
Affects sight, hearing, taste, smell
Visual – need x3 more light, narrowing visual field, worse colour/depth perception
Hearing – high frequency loss, poor speech comprehension
Taste and smell – 50% loss of taste buds
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80
Q

What is intrinsic ageing?

A

A natural, universal, inevitable process.

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81
Q

Give 3 consequences of people living longer.

A
  1. Pensions will have higher pay outs than currently planned.
  2. Chronic and comorbid conditions will prevail.
  3. Rising inequalities as more affluent groups will use health services for longer.
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82
Q

List 4 types of dementia.

A
  1. Alzheimer’s disease (62%)
  2. Vascular dementia (17%)
  3. Mixed alzheimer’s and vascular (10%)
  4. Lewy bodies (6%)
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83
Q

What is medicalisation of death?

A

Death is seen as a failure. There is a curative endeavour to prolong life at any cost. Death as a natural part of life is challenged.

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84
Q

What is meant by institutionalising death?

A

60% of people die in hospital but 70% want to die at home.

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85
Q

Glaser & Srauss (1965) did an observational study of interactions between dying people, family and staff – what were the 4 Awareness
contexts they identified?

A

Closed awareness
Suspicion awareness
Mutual pretence
Open awareness

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86
Q

Define social death

A

– when people die in social and interpersonal terms before their biological death; lonely, impersonal death

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87
Q

Outline a “good”death

A

palliative care became a speciality, aiming to de-medicalise death; reaction against impersonal medical deaths

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88
Q

outline “death the hospice way”

A

Open awareness, compassion, honesty
Multi-disciplinary teams
Emotion and relationships – modelled on a family approach
Holistic care

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89
Q

What does the Katz ADL scale measure?

A 
Bathing
Dressing
Toilet use
Transferring (in/out of beds and chairs)
Urine and bowel continence
Eating

Standard ADLS

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90
Q

What does the IADL (instrumental activities of daily living) measure?

A 
Use of the telephone
Travelling by car or using public transport
Food/clothes shopping
Meal preparation
Housework
Medication use
Management of money

General daily living

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91
Q

What does MMSE - Mini Mental state Examination Measure?

A

Orientation, immediate memory
Short term memory
Language functioning

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92
Q

What does the Barthel ADL index measure

A 
Feeding
Moving from wheelchair to bed
Grooming 
Transferring to and from toilet
Bathing
Walking on level surface
Stairs
Dressing
Continence of bowels
Continence of bladder

(10 items that measure daily functioning)

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93
Q

Give the psychological definition of stress

A

Occurs when demands made upon an individual are greater than their ability to cope

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94
Q

state the 2 kinds of stress.

A

Distress – Negative stress, damaging and harmful

Eustress – Positive stress, beneficial and motivating

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95
Q

List the causes of Chronic stress

A

– health, home, finances, work, family, friends etc.

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96
Q

List the causes of acute stress

A

noise, danger, infections, injuries, hunger etc

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97
Q

Give some reasons for workplace stress

A

Pressure
Lack of managerial support
Work related violence and bullying

98
Q

What are some of the physiological signs of stress?

the body’s response to the fight or flight model

A

Lungs - increase O2 uptake
Blood flow - increases to muscles, up to 400%
Skeletal muscles - tense
Spleen - More erythrocytes released
Skin – loses blood flow
Mouth – drier as saliva and mucus dry up
Immune cells – redistributed to where injury might occur

99
Q

Name 3 external stressors.

A
  1. Environment.
  2. Work.
  3. Social and cultural pressures.
100
Q

What are the 5 signs of stress.

A
  1. Biochemical.
  2. Physiological.
  3. Behavioural.
  4. Cognitive.
  5. Emotional.
101
Q

What is the fight of flight model?

A

An automatic response to external acute stressors. The response elicits physiological changes: hypothalamus, adrenal medulla and cortex are stimulated. Activation and inhibition of organs.

102
Q

Give examples of physical and psychological internal stressors.

A
  • Physical: inflammation, infection.

- Psychological: attitudes, beliefs, personal expectations, worries.

103
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

A

A concept used to describe the body’s short term and long term reactions to stress. There are 3 stages.

104
Q

What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?

A
  1. Alarm.
  2. Adaptation/resistance.
  3. Exhaustion.
105
Q

Describe the alarm stage of GAS.

A

A threat/stressor is identified. There is a sudden burst of energy.

106
Q

Describe the adaptation/resistance stage of GAS.

A

The body attempts to adapt or resist the stressor. Defensive countermeasures are engaged.

107
Q

Describe the exhaustion stage of GAS.

A

Energy is depleted; the body begins to run out of defences.

108
Q

Describe the biochemical signs of stress

A

– endorphin levels altered, increase in cortisol

109
Q

Describe the Physiological signs of stress

A

– shallow breathing, raised BP, increased acid production in stomach (and see fight/flight response)

110
Q

Describe the behavioural signs of stress

A

– increase in absenteeism, smoking, alcohol, changes in eating patterns, sleep disturbances

111
Q

Describe the cognitive signs of stress

A

negative thoughts, loss of concentration, tension headaches

112
Q

Describe the emotional signs of stress

A

tearful, mood swings, irritable, aggressive, bored, apathetic

113
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for PTSD?

A
  1. The person experienced an event or events that involved actual or threatened death or serious injury, or a threat to the physical integrity of self or others.
  2. The person’s response involved intense fear, helplessness, or horror.
114
Q

Give 3 symptoms of PTSD.

A
  1. Recurrent and distressing recollections of the event(s) e.g. in dreams.
  2. Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the event.
  3. Persistent symptoms of increased arousal (when the brain remains ‘on-edge’, wary and watchful of further threats) e.g. insomnia, irritability etc.
115
Q

What physical illnesses can be related to stress?

A

Cancer, CHD, chronic fatigue, infertility/miscarriage, peptic ulcers, IBS.

116
Q

Name some stress mediating factors

A

social support, beliefs and attitudes,perception, personality, coping strategies, lifestyle, gender

117
Q

Name some Stress management techniques

A

– CBT,T’aiChi, yoga, exercise, self help andsupport

118
Q

What is the WHO Definition of Obesity

A

Abnormal/excessive fat accumulation
Resulting from chronic imbalance between energy intake and expenditure which presents a risk to health
State of positive energy balance

119
Q

State some diagnostic measures for obesity

A 
MRI
Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry
Waist circumference 
Waist to hip ratio
Skinfold thickness
Body Mass Index (BMI)
120
Q

What is a criticism of BMI?

A

BMI does not measure adiposity or visceral body fat

121
Q

How do you work out BMI?

A

Weight (KG) / Height^2 (m)

122
Q

What is the range for a normal BMI?

A

18.5 - 24.9

123
Q

What genetic conditions can be linked to obesity?

A
  1. Prader Willi Syndrome.
  2. Mutations of the leptin and melanocortin receptors.
  3. Congenital leptin deficiency. (leptin: appetite inhibitor).
124
Q

What aspects of behaviour can be associated with weight gain?

A
  1. Employment: shift work, lack of sleep, reduced physical activity, ‘hunger’ hormones (cortisol, leptin, ghrelin) affected.
  2. Dietary patterns.
  3. Reduced physical activity.
125
Q

What developmental factors can affect a child’s risk of being obese later in life?

A
  1. Rapid infant weight gain increases the risk of obesity.
  2. Breast feeding is shown to decrease the risk of obesity.
  3. Premature introduction of solid foods can increase the risk of obesity.
  4. Childhood obesity is a large predictor of adult obesity.
126
Q

What is the role of alcohol in over-eating.

A
  • Alcohol stimulates the intake of food, gives almost no satiety.
  • It is efficiently oxidised.
  • It adds to the total daily energy intake.
  • Alcohol is associated with poor food choices.
127
Q

What are the Ranges for BMI

A 
<18.4 = underweight
18.5-24.9 = normal
25-29.9 = overweight
30-34.9 = obese class I
35-39.9 = obese class II
>40 = obese class III
128
Q

State some of the causes of the rise in obesity

A

Built and obesogenic environment - “Americanisation” of diet and society
car culture and commuting = less walking
technical advances that minimise physical work
Longer working hours
Over consumption (& increasing portion sizes), greater availability of energy dense food
Grazing & snacking replaces meal times
Replacement of water by sugary drinks

129
Q 
What is the energy density of...
Protein
Carbs
Fat
Alcohol
A

Protein 4.7 kCal/g
Carbohydrates 3.6 kCal/g
Fat 9.5kCal/g
Alcohol 7.0 kCal/g

130
Q

What macronutrient has the best satiety?

A

Satiating efficiency = proteins > carbs > fats > alcohol

So proteins the best, Alcohol is the worst

131
Q

define satiety

A

a state of noneating, characterized by the absence of hunger, which follows at the end of a meal and arises from the consequences of food ingestion.

132
Q

What is the theory behind reducing the energy density of foods?

A
  • People to tend to keep portion sizes the same regardless of the energy density of the food.
  • By reducing energy density we can keep the same portion sizes but consume fewer kcal and so keep satiety.
133
Q

What 4 mechanisms can be used to reduce energy density?

A
  1. Incorporation of water or air.
  2. Fruits and vegetables.
  3. Reducing fat (industry).
  4. Method of cooking (no frying).
134
Q

Factors that can promote over-eating: what are examples of environmental factors?

A
  1. Variety - greater variety can lead to overeating.
  2. Portion sizes have increased significantly over the last century.
  3. Distractions like watching TV promote food intake.
  4. Social facilitation - going out for food with friends etc.
135
Q

Name 3 broad factors that can promote over-eating.

A
  1. Environmental factors.
  2. Psychological factors.
  3. Food-characteristic factors.
136
Q

Factors that can promote over-eating: what are examples of psychological factors?

A
  1. Stress often promotes over-eating.
  2. Lack of sleep.
  3. Dietary disinhibition.
  4. Reward sensitivity.
137
Q

Factors that can promote over-eating: what are examples of food-characteristics factors?

A
  1. Macronutrient composition.
  2. Energy density.
  3. Liquids v solids.
138
Q

Name 5 qualities of an effective team.

A
  1. Optimal size.
  2. A common purpose/goal.
  3. Good dynamic.
  4. An identified leader.
  5. Shared knowledge and experiences.
139
Q

What are the benefits of working in an effective team?

A
  • Improved service delivery.
  • Improved decision making.
  • Reduces error.
140
Q

Describe 4 obstacles of working in a team.

A
  1. Organisation - different offices/shifts/rotation posts.
  2. Location - ward based/home visits/based elsewhere.
  3. Management - different employers/sub-teams.
  4. Team members may have other commitments - hard to contact people.
141
Q

Give 3 examples of NHS systems that promote teamwork.

A
  1. Shared case notes.
  2. Multi-disciplinary team meetings.
  3. Team offices.
142
Q

Give 2 examples of checklists used in the NHS.

A
  1. SBAR checklist - for reporting a case.

2. Surgical safety checklist.

143
Q

Define error.

A

Any preventable event that can cause or lead to patient harm.

144
Q

What are the 3 types of human error?

A
  1. Errors of omission.
  2. Errors of commission.
  3. Errors of negligence.
145
Q

What are errors of omission?

A

When required action is delayed or not taken.

146
Q

What are errors of commission?

A

When the wrong action is taken.

147
Q

What are errors of negligence?

A

When actions or omissions do not meet the standard of an ordinary, skilled person professing.

148
Q

What are the 2 outcomes that medical error can lead to?

A
  1. Adverse event.

2. Near miss.

149
Q

Define adverse event.

A

An incident that results in harm to the patient.

150
Q

Define near miss.

A

An event which has the potential to cause harm but doesn’t develop further, thereby avoiding any harm.

151
Q

What are violations?

A

Deliberate deviations from practices, procedures and standards or rules.

152
Q

Name the 3 types of violation.

A
  1. Routine - cutting corners.
  2. Necessary - to get the job done; unavoidable.
  3. Optimising - personal gain, selfish.
153
Q

Describe skill based errors.

A

When performing a routine, well learnt task you may give little attention. If distracted or interrupted this can result in slips of action or memory lapses.

154
Q

Describe rule/knowledge based errors.

A
  • When an incorrect plan or course of action is taken. This can happen in an emergency situation or can be due to a lack of experience.
  • Mistakes are more likely when tasks are complex. This can be due to inexperience, insufficient information, little support/advice from colleagues etc.
155
Q

Name 5 factors that can affect performance.

A
  1. Fatigue.
  2. Illness.
  3. Drugs or alcohol.
  4. Stress.
  5. Distraction.
156
Q

What are the two main approaches to managing errors?

A
  1. Person approach (individual).

2. System approach (organisation).

157
Q

Managing errors: describe the person approach.

A

Errors are the product of wayward mental processes e.g. inattention, distraction, negligence. It focuses on the unsafe acts of people on the front-line (nurses, doctors).

158
Q

Managing errors: describe the system approach.

A

Adverse events are the product of many causal factors, the whole system is to blame (swiss cheese theory)

159
Q

Briefly describe the Swiss cheese theory of errors.

A

The idea that the interaction between active failures and latent conditions leads to accidents. There are successive layers of defences and safeguards but the ‘holes’ can still line up and people can slip through the system.

160
Q

Name 5 information processing limitations.

A
  1. Automaticity.
  2. Cognitive bias.
  3. Cognitive interference.
  4. Selective attention.
  5. Transferring expectations.
161
Q

What is negative transfer of expectations?

A

When a previous experience conflicts with the current situation.

162
Q

Define Automaticity

A

Doing a task without thinking

163
Q

Define selective attention

A

Limited attentional resources, information overload

164
Q

Define ethics

A

A system of moral principles and a branch of philosophy that defines what is good for individuals and society.

165
Q

Define morality

A

concern with distinction between good and evil, right and wrong (universal)

166
Q

Outline top down deductive ethical arguments

A

Top down deductive; where one specific ethical theory is consistently applied to each problem

167
Q

Outline bottom up deductive ethical arguments

A

; using past medical problems to create guides to practice

An approach where theories are considered which best fit one’s own beliefs before applying

168
Q

What are the 3 times confidentiality may be broken?

A

Required by law
patient consent
Public interest

169
Q

outline the basic GMC “duties of a doctor”

A

Protect and promote the health of patients and the public
Provide a good standard of practice and care
Recognise and work within the limits of your competence
Work with colleagues in the ways that best serve patients’ interests
Treat patients as individuals and respect their dignity
GMC (2009) – Tomorrow’s Doctors; graduates will be able to behave according to ethical and legal principles

170
Q

What are the four principles of ethics?

A

Autonomy
Beneficence
Non - Maleficence
Justice

171
Q

Define autonomy

A

Allowing a patient to make a rational and informed decision if they have capacity, with obligation to respect their decisions
The autonomous individual freely acts in concordance with a self chosen plan
Decision made intentionally, with understanding, and without controlling influences that determine an individuals actions

172
Q

Define Beneficence

A

Doing the right thing to benefit the other

Balancing risks against benefits

173
Q

Define non - maleficence

A

Preventing harm, reducing harm, and doing no harm

q

174
Q

Define justice

A

Being fair in the distribution of risks and benefits

Need vs. Benefit

175
Q

What are Utilitarian ethics?

A
  • An act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences.

- Maximise good and minimise harm.

176
Q

What are the main principles of Virtue ethics?

A

Focuses on the person who is acting; are they expressing good character?
- Integrates reason and emotion.

  • Virtues are acquired.
  • An action is virtuous only if the person is acting with the genuine intention of doing the right thing.
177
Q

What are the challenges/criticisms of Utilitarian ethics?

A
  • Treats minorities unfairly to promote happiness of a majority.
  • Is it okay to carry out ethically questionable research to maximise the welfare of society?
  • What is good/better?
178
Q

What are the challenges/criticisms of Virtue ethics?

A

Virtues are culture-specific.
- Too broad for practical application.

  • Kindness and compassion could lead to not telling the harmful truth - lying.
  • It is not always clear how to resolve a dilemma with virtue ethics.
179
Q

What are Deontology ethics?

A

Inherent morality determines worthiness of actions, without concern for potential consequences
“Do unto others as you would be done by”

Deon = duty (in Greek)

180
Q

What is Kantianism ethics?

A

Judges the morality of an action based on the actions adherence to rules
Obligatory duty
Following natural laws and rights
Categorical imperatives – set of universal moral premises from which duties are derived (do not lie, do not kill…)

181
Q

define screening

A

Process that sorts out apparently well people who have a disease (or disease precursor) from those who don’t
Screening the population is to detect individuals who are more likely to have the disease (in most cases) –aim is preventing disease or early detection to alter course of disease

182
Q

Types of screening - define population based screening

A

Population based - Testing entire population

183
Q

Types of screening - define opportunistic screening

A

– patient seeks help for something else and doctor takes a sample

184
Q

Types of screening - define communicable disease screening

A

screening for analysing/controlling epidemics/pandemics

185
Q

Types of screening - define Pre-employment/commercial

A

screening for occupational health

186
Q

Briefly outline the Wilson and Junger criteria for screening test.

A

The condition must;
Be important
Recognised latent phase (early catching improves prognosis)
Recognised natural history (know how disease progresses)
The test must;
Be suitable, sensitive, specific, inexpensive
Be acceptable
The post-screening treatment options must;
Be effective
Follow agreed policy
The organisation and cost must;
Include adequate facilities
Not be overly expensive to achieve benefit
Have ongoing processes for improvements

187
Q

Screening: define True positive

A

patient does have the disease, and screening test was positive

188
Q

Screening: define False positive

A

patient does not have the disease, but screening test was positive

189
Q

Screening: define True negative;

A

patient does not have the disease and screening test was negative

190
Q

Screening: define False negative

A

patient does have the disease and screening test was negative

191
Q

Outline some reasons for screening

A

Prevent suffering
Early identification is beneficial
Early treatment is cheaper
Patient satisfaction tends to be higher

192
Q

Outline some reasons against screening

A

Damage caused by wrong results
Adverse effects on healthy people
Personal choice is compromised

193
Q

Define sensitivity

A

A test of the probability of a person with the disease obtaining a positive test result

Probability of a true positive

= Number of true positive results / total number screened
= true positives / (true positives + false negatives)
A measure of how well a test picks up those with a disease

Same logic but opposite to Specificity!

194
Q

Define Specificity

A

Probability of a true negative in screening

= Number of true negatives / total number screened
= True negatives / (false positives + true negatives)
A measure of how well a test recognises those without the disease

Same logic but opposite to Sensitivity!

195
Q

Define Incidence

A

Number of new cases per unit time

Expressed as % or per population size (e.g. per 100,000)

196
Q

What would increase incidence in a population?

A

Increased by screening, identifying new cases, and increasing risk factors

197
Q

What would decrease incidence in a population?

A

Decreased by reducing risk factors e.g. primary preventions

198
Q

Define prevalence.

A

Number of existing cases at a particular point in time
Expressed as a percentage or per population size (e.g. 100,000)

People enter prevalence pool when diagnosed with a condition
Only leave the pool if they are cured or die

199
Q

Define positive predictive value

A

The proportion of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease
= True positives / (true positives + false positives)

200
Q

Define negative predictive value

A

The proportion of people without the disease who are correctly excluded by the screening test
= True negatives / (false negatives + true negatives)

201
Q

how would you work out positive predictive vale?

A

= True positives / (true positives + false positives)

202
Q

how would you work out negative predictive vale?

A

= True positives / (false negatives + true negatives)

203
Q

Define selection bias

A

– people who chose to participate in screening programmes may be different from those who do not

204
Q

Define lead time bias

A

– screening identifies the disease earlier than before and thus gives the impression that survival is prolonged (survival time is unchanged)

205
Q

Define length time bias

A

diseases with longer period of presentation are more likely to be detected by screening than those which are more aggressive

206
Q

Define ecological study

A

a study that uses routinely collected data to show trends and to generate hypotheses

207
Q

Define Cross sectional study

A

divides a population into those with the disease and those without and collects data at a single point in time

208
Q

Define Case-control study - retrospective.

A

matches people with a disease to those without for age, sex, habits, class etc

209
Q

Define Cohort study

A

Observe a larger number of people, over a long period of time and compare incidence between groups that differ in terms of exposure

210
Q

Define an analytical study

A

Observational (vs intervention) analytical of relationships rather than simply descriptive

211
Q

Give 3 advantages of an ecological study.

A
  1. Uses routine date and so is quick and cheap.
  2. Few ethical issues.
  3. Useful for generating hypotheses.
212
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of an ecological study.

A
  1. Cannot show causation.
  2. Inconsistency in data presentation.
  3. Bias - variation in diagnostic criteria.
213
Q

Give 4 advantages of a cross-sectional study.

A
  1. Can give rapid insight into events within a population.
  2. Few ethical issues.
  3. Good for generating hypotheses.
  4. Quick and cheap.
214
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of a cross-sectional study?

A
  1. Prone to bias.
  2. No time reference.
  3. Could be reporting medical oddities.
215
Q

Give 3 advantages of a case-control study?

A
  1. Quick - results can be obtained quickly (retrospective).
  2. Cheap.
  3. Usually a small number of people required to produce statistically significant results.
216
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of a case-control study?

A
  1. Retrospective date may be unreliable - selective memory.
  2. Shows association but not causation.
  3. Prone to selection and information bias.
  4. Cannot calculate incidence.
217
Q

Give 3 advantages of a cohort study?

A
  1. Can calculate incidence and so can find relative and absolute risk.
  2. Reduced chance of bias - exposure measured before disease develops.
  3. Can distinguish causes from associated factors.
218
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of a cohort study?

Collect information on a sample (some have exposure, some do not). None should have outcome

A
  1. Expensive - long time and large population.
  2. Causation cannot be calculated - control study is needed for this.

not suitbale for rare diseases
3. Often difficulties with follow-up.

219
Q

Outline/define an RCT

A

Patients are randomised into groups
One group is given an intervention and the other is a control
The outcome is measured
Randomisation allows confounding features to be equally distributed
Confounding biases are minimalised
They do show causation

220
Q

What are some of the disadvantages of an RCT?

A

Tend to be large and expensive and show volunteer bias

221
Q

Outline what a systemic review is

A

a review of clearly formulated questions that uses symptomatic and explicit methods to identify, select, and critically appraise relevant research

Collect and analyse data from studies that are included inthereview

222
Q

Outline what a meta analysis is

A

Statistical methods used to analyse and summarise resultsofincluded studies
Can be graphically represented in a forest plot

223
Q

Define what a type 1 error is

A

rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true

224
Q

`Define what a type 2 error is

A

– failure to reject a null hypothesis when it is false

225
Q

Give examples of some alternative medicine

A

Acupuncture – inserting needles at specific points, pain relief mostly
Osteopathy – emphasises the physical manipulation of body tissue and bones
Herbal medicine – plants for medical purposes
Chiropractic – manipulation of spine, joints, and soft tissue
Homeopathy – simila smimmilibus curentur, homeopathic dilutions in alcohol or distilled water
Traditional Chinese medicine – vital energy “qi” circulates through channels “meridians” that have branches connected to organs. No histological or physiological evidence for the concept. Based on pre-scientific culture

226
Q

What are the 4 main STIs

A

Chlamydia – fallopian tube occlusion
Gonorrhoea (drug resistant)
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis

227
Q

Give an example of primary prevention of STIs

A 
prevention – reducing risk of acquiring 
Raising awareness 
Vaccinations (Hep B and HPV)
One to one risk reduction discussions
Condom use
228
Q

Give an example of secondary prevention of STIs

A 
Easy access to STI/HIV tests and treatments
Partner notification
Targeted screening 
Antenatal screening for HIV and syphilis
National chlamydia screening programme
229
Q

Give an example of tertiary prevention of STIs

A

– reducing morbidity and mortality
Anti-retrovirals for HIV
Prophylactic antibiotic for PCP
Acyclovir for suppression of genital herpes

230
Q

Define compliance

A

Extent to which behaviour coincides with medical/health advice
Professional focused rather than patient focused - assumes doctor knows best
Does not look at problems patient’s have in managing their health/illness
Essential for treatment, but may still be poor

231
Q

Outline some reasons for non - compliance

A 
Unintentional :
     Mis-understanding 
     Problems with treatment 
    Payment 
    Memory

Intentional
Patient beliefs about their
condition or treatment
Personal preferences

232
Q

Outline what concordance means in medical practise

A

Negotiation between equals - an agreement to differ and respect for either’s agenda
Thinks of patients as equals in care
Expected that they will take part in treatment decisions
Consultation is now a negotiation between equals

233
Q

Outline inverse care law

A

People who need the most care are least likely to access it and vice versa

234
Q

Define association

A

a statistical link between exposure and disease

Many not reflect a cause and effect relationship

235
Q

define causation

A

a statistical link where a disease is directly caused by the exposure

236
Q

What are the two main types of bias?

A

Selection bias => problem with study population

Information bias => problem with information provided

237
Q

Define observer bias

A

when variables are reported differently between assessors

238
Q

Define procedure bias

A

subjects in different arms of the study are treated differently (other than the exposure or intervention)

239
Q

if the median is greater than the mean of the data, what is the data described as

A

negatively skewed

240
Q

if the median of the data is less than the mean, the distribution is said to be what?

A

is said to be positively skewed.

Anatomy EK Separated, and some extras (20 decks)

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