MSK anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the adductor muscles of the leg and their innervations

A

gracilis, obturator externus, adductor brevis, adductor longus and adductor magnus. Innervation all by obturator nerve (L2-L4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the deep peroneal nerve supply

A

Anterior compartment of the lower leg. Damage causes inability to dorsiflex and loss of sensation between 1st and 2nd webspaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What muscle does Jobe’s test for

A

Supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What protein mutation is in marfans syndrome

A

Fibrillin-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the typical nerve damage in a medial supracondylar fracture

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where does the ulnar nerve run in relation to the humerus

A

Posterior to the medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What controls adduction of the thumb

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What nerve damage causes loss of sensation to hypothenar eminecne

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cause of plantar fasciitis

A

Chronic overuse of feet leading to microtears of plantarfascia. Tenderness on medial side of heel where medial tuberosity of calcaneus is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rock, paper, scissors analogy

A

Finger flexion, extension and finger abduction and adduction: medial, radial and ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What extends the first 3 digits, what extends the last 2 digits

A

Radial then ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Saturday night palsy is damage to which nerve

A

Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How would median nerve damage occur

A

Supracondylar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How would ulnar nerve damage occur

A

Outstretch fall or medial epicondyle fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Manifestation of radial nerve injury

A

Wrist drop (rist drop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is osteochondroma

A

Benign bone tumour of bony outgrowth with cartilaginous cap. common in young people and can be caused by trauma.

Painless hard lump

Commonly near knee- distal femur/proximal tibia

Imaging- x-ray and MRI showing cartilagenous ossified pedicles.

MM- observation small risk of malignancy

17
Q

What is endochondroma

A

Benign tumour due failure of normal endochondral ossification at the growth plate. Most commonly presents at 20-50.

Occurs in femur, humerus, tibia and small bones of hands and feet

Imaging- x-ray lesion can have sclerotic appearance

MM- can be scraped out

18
Q

What is a single bone cyst

A

single cavity benign fluid filled cyst in bone probbaly due to growth defects in physis. Usually proximal humerus and femur.

Can weaken bone leading to pathological fracture.

Imaging- x-ray, MRI

MM- curettage and bone grafting, stabilisation may be required

19
Q

What is an aneurysmal bone cyst

A

Consists of many chambers filled blood or serum. Can occur in many different long bones, flat bones and vertebral bodies

Painful mass/swelling, pathological fracture

Imaging- X-ray= chambers seen

MM- cuttarage and grafting or bone cement

20
Q

What is a giant cell tumour of bone

A

Tumour of giant cells of bone
Occurs in metaphyseal regions but can extend to epiphysis. Locally aggressive

Painful mass/swelling. Commonly in knee and in distal radius, pelvis and spine

Imaging- x-ray= classic soap bubble appearance

MM- intralesional excision with use of phenol, bone cement or liquid nitrogen. if aggressive joint replacement may be needed

21
Q

What is fibrous dysplasia

A

Developmental disorder of bone causing skeletal tissue to be replaced with fibrous tissue usually due to genetic mutation.

Bone pain and deformities, pathological fracture

Imaging- bone scan= increase uptake. Shepard crook defomity of x-ray

MM- bisphosphanates, fracture stabilisation

22
Q

What is an osteoid osteoma

A

Benign bone tumour usually in children. Common sites are proximal femur, diaphysis of long bones and verterbrae

Intense constant pain worse at night, can be relieved by NSAIDs

Imaging- Bone scan and CT to confirm diagnosis- halo sign seen

MM- may resolve or CT guided radiofrequency ablation

23
Q

What is osteosarcoma

A

Malignant bone producing tumour with blood spread.
Most seen in young people
Most involve the knee but can include proximal femur, proximal humerus and pelvis

X-ray

MM- surgery with joint construction, chemotherapy can prolong survival

24
Q

What is chondrosarcoma

A

Malignant cartilage producing bone tumour
Older age group
Found in pelvis or proximal femur

25
Q

What is Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Primary bone tumour of endothelial cells of the bone marrow
2nd most common malignant bone tumour in children
Characterised by loss of bone
Affects young people
Can mimic infection with hot, tender swollen joint
Usually found in diaphysis of long bones- distal femur, proximal femur

26
Q

A T score of what suggests osteoporosis

A

-2.5

Osteopenia from -1 to -2.5

27
Q

What are the median nerve roots

A

C5-T1

28
Q

What innervates the supraspinatus muscle

A

Suprascapular nerve (C5-C6) (also innvervates infraspinatus)

29
Q

What innervates the anterior compartment of the forearm

A

Median nerve except for flexor carpi ulnaris and median half of flexor digitorum profundus

30
Q

Supercondylar fractures often lead to what damage

A

Brachial artery and median nerve injury

31
Q

Pain at base of thumb with positive finklesteins test

A

De Quervains tenosynovitis- inflammation of tendon sheath s involving Abductor Pollicis Longus and Extensor Pollicis Brevis

32
Q

What bone tumour has pain worse at night with a moth eaten pattern of bone destruction

A

Chondrosarcoma

33
Q

What are the axillary nerve roots

A

C5 and C6

34
Q

What are the radial nerve roots

A

C5-T1

35
Q

What are ulnar nerve roots

A

C8-T1

36
Q

What are the musculocutaneous nerve roots

A

C5, C6, C7

37
Q

What structure is most at risk in a supracondylar fracture

A

Brachial artery