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Year 2 Divs > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Serratus anterior is inervated by which nerve ?

A

long thoracic nerve

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2
Q

Which nerve inervates the deltoid muscle?

A

The axillary nerve

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3
Q

Which nerve inervates the biceps brachii muscle?

A

musculocutaneous nerve C5-C7

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4
Q

What nerve inervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?

A

spinal accessory nerve

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5
Q

Which nerve is damaged leading to carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Median nerve

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6
Q

Diabetic foot infection, which bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

what is a common pathogen seen in chronic osteomyelitis, rather than acute osteomyelitis.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa,

Acute-Staph Aureus

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8
Q

Surgical Neck fracture of Humerus, Which nerve damaged?

A

Axillary Nerve C5-C6

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9
Q

Axilla/Midshaft fracture of humerus, which nerve?

A

Radial Nerve C5-C8

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10
Q

Supracondylar fracture, which nerve damaged?

A

Median Nerve (C8-T1)

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11
Q

Medial Epicondyle fracture,hamate bone damaged (Fall) - which nerve is damaged.

A

Ulnar Nerve

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12
Q

What happens when the Axillary nerve is damaged C5-C6?

A

You cannot ABduct arm

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13
Q

Which damaged nerve results in Wrist Drop?

A

Radial Nerve C5-C8

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14
Q

Median nerve damage, what happens to hand?

A

Monkey Hand (Ape hand) C5-T1

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15
Q

Ulnar nerve damage, what happens to hand?

A

Ulnar Claw

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16
Q

What are the spine segments?

A

C1- Atlas
C2- Axis
C3-C7
T1-T12
L1-L5
S1-S5

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17
Q

Which nerve damaged when Ribs damaged? What does it cause?(2)

A

long thoracic nerve/ causes ‘winging’ of the scapula

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18
Q

injury to the brachial plexus, which nerve damaged as you cannot bicep curl- and what also can you not flex

A

musculocutaneous nerve

Also, cannot flex elbow

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19
Q

Damage to C3-C5 roots would cause pain where?

A

Damage to C3-C5 roots would cause pain from the neck to the upper chest.

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20
Q

Damage to T11-L4 roots would cause pain where?

A

lower abdominal and leg pain.

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21
Q

Damage to L1-L4 roots would cause pain where?

A

Damage to L1-L4 roots would cause leg pain.

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22
Q

Damage to S1-S5 roots would cause pain where?

A

posterior leg and buttock pain.

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23
Q

Can’t climb stairs, which nerve damaged?

A

can’t climb stairs - Inferior gluteal nerve

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24
Q

Difficulty aBducting the hip, which nerve damaged?

A

superior gluteal nerve

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25
Q

Femoral Nerve injury,how does it happen? What is the consequence?

A

pelvic/hip fracture.

issues with knee extension and hip flexion

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26
Q

What is damaged during meralgia paresthetica?

A

lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is damaged

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27
Q

obturator nerve damaged, what happens?

A

difficulty ADducting the thigh

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28
Q

Falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) is the most common mechanism causing a what type of carpal fracture

A

scaphoid fracture

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29
Q

Tell me about Colles’ fracture(4)

A

is a fracture of the distal radius (1)

usually caused by a FOOSH (2)

but would not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox. (3)

DINNER FORK DEFORMITY (4)

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30
Q

Galeazzi fracture, tell me about it (2)

A

fracture of the radial bone

with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

Z in alphabet is distal

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31
Q

Smith’s fracture

A

fracture of the distal radius,

dorsal aspect of their wrist with their hand bent inwards, i.e. on a flexed wrist rather than an extended wrist as seen in scaphoid and Colles’ fractures.

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32
Q

Which nerve innervates the Teres minor?

A

Axillary nerve

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33
Q

Which nerve innervates the Teres Major?

A

Lower subscapular nerve

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34
Q

Which nerve innervates the deltoid?

A

Axillary nerve

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35
Q

Which nerve innervates the Trapezius?

A

Accessory nerve

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36
Q

Which muscle is responsible for flexing the DIP joint

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

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37
Q

Flexor digitorum longus is a muscle in the lower limb responsible for ?

A

Flexor digitorum longus is a muscle in the lower limb responsible for plantar flexion of the 2nd-5th toes.

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38
Q

The muscle Flexor digitorum superficialis flexes what in the hand?

A

the MCP and PIP joint of the fingers. It does not flex the DIP joints.

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39
Q

Flexor hallucis longus is a muscle in the lower limb which flexes the ?

A

great toe. It does not flex the distal interphalangeal joints.

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40
Q

Sciatic nerve injury? What happens?

A

1)pain, numbness and tingle over the lower back, buttocks and posterior leg,

2) knee flexion and hip ADduction weakness.

3) herniation of a lumbar disc.

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41
Q

Superior gluteal nerve injury , what are signs? (2)

A

weakness hip ABduction

positive Trendelenburg sign.

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42
Q

Bennett fracture, what is affected?

A

metacarpal bone (base of the thumb), often extending into the joint,

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43
Q

What is the term used to describe a visible angular deformity in the thoracic region?

A

gibbus deformity

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44
Q

L3 issue, what is effected?

A

knee extension

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45
Q

L5 issue, what is effected?

A

weakness of big toe extension

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46
Q

S1 issue, what is effected?(2)

A

issue with gastrocnemius and soleus muscles

weakness in plantar flexion

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47
Q

S2 issue, what is effected?

A

posterior thigh muscles

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48
Q

SItS - break the 4 parts down for me.

A

Supraspinatus- aBDucts arm (0- 15 degrees) before deltoid takes over

Infraspinatus- laterally/external arm rotation

teres minor- laterally/external arm rotation

Subscapularis- rotates arm medially

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49
Q

Osteoblasts- job?

A

These are the builders

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50
Q

Osteoclasts-job?

A

demolition experts

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51
Q

epidermis is made up of 5 distinct layers consisting of different cell types and functions (outer- to innermost)

A

Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum*
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum basale

Come
Let’s
Get
Sun
Burnt

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52
Q

unhappy triad

AMM

A

ACL tear
MCL sprain
Medial meniscus tear

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53
Q

issue with L4- what is effected (A,P,2)

A

weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and a reduced patella reflex

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54
Q

Joint aspiration in gout shows …

A

Needle-shaped Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light

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55
Q

in Rheum context: gram-negative cocci shows (neisseria gonorrhoeae)

And gram-negative bacterium shows (chlamydia)

Which 2 disease profiles indicated?

A

septic arthritis (gonorrhoeae)

reactive arthritis (chlamydia) (knee)

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56
Q

Multiple gram-positive cocci shows …

A

septic arthritis

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57
Q

pseudogout (synovial fluid) - under polarised light

A

Rhomboid-shaped crystals positively birefringent under polarised light shows…

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58
Q

Older man, hip pain, worse with activity and late in day. Diagnosis and 4 x-ray findings?

A

Osteoarthritis

LOSS

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral Sclerosis
Subchondral Cysts

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59
Q

Osteoarthritis lumps on fingers and affected joints? (2)

A

1) Heberden’s Nodes (DIP)
2) Bouchard’s Nodes (PIP)

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60
Q

Medical treatment for Osteoarthritis

A

1) Analgesia
2) Steroid injections
3) Joint replacement

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61
Q

Woman, 40-70 years old
Symmetrical joint pain (hands wrists, feet)
Worst in the morning

Diagnosis and antibodies (2)?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

1) Rheumatoid factor

2) CCP antibodies

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62
Q

4 types of hand deformities for Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

1) Z-Shaped thumb
2) Swan Neck
3) Boutonnieres
4) Ulnar deviation at the mcp joints

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63
Q

Invest. for tenosynovitis

A

USS

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64
Q

Scoring system for rheumatoid arthritis

A

DAS28

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65
Q

First line treatments rheumatoid arthritis

A

DMARD’s

1) Methotrexate
2) Leflunomide
3) Sulfasalazine

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66
Q

3rd line Initial type of biologic DMARD for rheumatoid arthritis

A

TNF inhibitor infliximab

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67
Q

Asymmetrical pain / stiffness fingers and feet.

skin and nail changes.

Diagnosis?

A

PsA

Onycholysis

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68
Q

Screening tool for PsA

A

PEST

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69
Q

Most severe form of PsA and telescoping of the digits (pencil in a cup)

A

Arthritis Mutilans

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70
Q

Knee swelling after having GI issue- diagnosis?

A

Reactive Arthritis

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71
Q

Triad of features of Reactive Arthritis

A

ACU

Arthritis
conjunctivitis
Urethritis

Can’t see, cannot pee, cannot climb a tree.

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72
Q

2 Main triggers of Reactive Arthritis

A

1) Gastroenteritis

2) Chlamydia

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73
Q

Gene responsible for Reactive Arthritis

A

HLA B27

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74
Q

Differential diagnosis for Reactive Arthritis

How to exclude other causes?

A

Septic Arthritis

Joint aspiration

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75
Q

Patient < 30 Y.O

Bad back- diagnosis and which gene?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

HLA B27

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76
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis
worse in morning or evening?

A

Morning

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77
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis
worse with movement or rest?

A

Rest

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78
Q

Clinical exam for Ankylosing spondylitis

A

Schober’s test

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79
Q

Xr finding in late Ankylosing spondylitis

A

bamboo spine

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80
Q

MRI finding in early Ankylosing spondylitis

A

Bone Marrow Oedema

(sacroiliac joints)

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81
Q

Features of SLE (7)

A

Hair Loss
Malar Rash
SOB
Splenomegaly
Joint Pain
Lympthadenopathy
Myalgia

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82
Q

What worsens SLE Rash?

A

Sunlight

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83
Q

Initial antibody test for SLE

A

ANA

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84
Q

Specific antibody test for SLE (2)

A

Anti- dsDNA
Anti-Smith

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85
Q

1st line SLE treatment

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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86
Q

Biologic for SLE , what do they target?

A

Rituximab

B-Cells

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87
Q

Female, 15-40
face disk shaped skin lesions, worse with sunlight

Diagnosis and initial investigation?

A

DLE

Skin biopsy

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88
Q

treatment for DLE (4 STSH)

A

1) Sun protection
2) Topical steroids
3) Steroid injections
4) hydroxychrooquine

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89
Q

Which cancer DLE?

A

SCC

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90
Q

blue fingers, disease?

A

Raynaud’s Phenomenon

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91
Q

3 stages of Raynaud’s Phenomenon

A

white -> red-> blue

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92
Q

Associated connective tissue disease for Raynaud’s Phenomenon

A

Systematic Sclerosis

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93
Q

Blood test for connective tissue disease?

A

ANA

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94
Q

Test to examine small vessels in fingers (raynaud’s phenomenon)

A

Nailfold Capillaroscopy

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95
Q

medical management of raynaud’s phenomenon

A

Prophylactic nifedipine

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96
Q

What does CREST stand for in CREST syndrome

A

Calcinosis
R.P
Oesophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

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97
Q

Which anitbodies are checked in CREST?

A

ANA

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98
Q

Antibodies in LCSS (limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis)

A

Anti-centromere antibodies

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99
Q

Antibodies in DCSS (diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis)

A

Anti-SCL-70 Antibodies

70 is large number

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100
Q

White woman above 50, shoulder pelvic girdle pain - worse in morning.

Diagnosis?

A

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

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101
Q

Abnormal blood test findings for Polymyalgia Rheumatica

A

↑ CRP

↑ ESR

↑ Plasma viscosity

Creatine kinase normal

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102
Q

treatment for Polymyalgia Rheumatica

A

pred 15mg

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103
Q

additional meds needed for Polymyalgia Rheumatica (3)

A
  1. Bisphosphonates
  2. Calcium+ Vit D
  3. PPI
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104
Q

Old man- right side headache and jaw ache when chewing

What diagnosis and associated condition

A

Giant Cell Arteritis

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

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105
Q

Key complication of Giant Cell Arteritis?

A

Vision Loss

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106
Q

Key blood test for Giant Cell Arteritis

A

ESR (>50 mm/hr)

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107
Q

Proper test for Giant Cell Arteritis

A

Temporal Artery Biopsy

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108
Q

Initial treatment Giant Cell Arteritis

A

High Dose Pred (40-60)

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109
Q

older woman pain/ weakness thighs, shoulders and upper arms

purple rash on eyelids

Diagnosis?

A

Dermatomyositis

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110
Q

Similar diagnosis to Dermatomysitis without skin changes-

A

Polymyositis

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111
Q

Skin lesions on hands on joints from Dermatomyositis

A

Gottron lesions

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112
Q

Initial blood test for Dermatomyositis

A

Creatine Kinase

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113
Q

Antibodies in Polymyositis & Dermatomyositis (3)

A

1) Anti-JO-1 Antibodies (Polymyositis)
2) Anti-M1-2 Antibodies (Dermatomyositis)
3) ANA

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114
Q

Definitive investigation for Dermatomyositis

A

muscle biopsy

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115
Q

Dermatomyositis big risk?

A

Cancer

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116
Q

1st line treatment Dermatomyositis

A

Corticosteroids

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117
Q

40-60 year old women
Dry eyes
Vaginal dryness / poor sex

Which disease and which glands affected

A

Sjögren’s syndrome

Exocrine Glands

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118
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome may be 2° to?

A

SLE and RA

SLE
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119
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome antibodies (2)

A
  1. Anti-RO
  2. Anti-LA

Roses are lavely

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120
Q

Test for dry eyes

A

Schirmer test

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121
Q

Treatment to halt Sjögren’s syndrome

A

hydroxychloroquine

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122
Q

Mnemonic for structures posterior to the medial malleolus?

A

Tom Dick And Nervous Harry

T-Tibialis posterior tendon
D- flexor Digitorum longus
A Posterior Tibial Artery
N Posterier neve
H Flexor Hallucis Longus tendon

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123
Q

Abductor hallucis function and nerve

A

Medial plantar nerve

Abducts the great toe

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124
Q

Flexor digitorum brevis function and nerve

A

Flexes all the joints 4 toes except for the interphalangeal joint.

Medial plantar nerve

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125
Q

Abductor digit minimi (foot) function and nerve

A

little toe abduction

Lateral plantar nerve

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126
Q

Flexor hallucis brevis function and nerve

A

flexion of the great toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint

Medial plantar nerve

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127
Q

medicine to be given with methatrexate

A

folate / folic acid

128
Q

40-60 year old

  1. Sinusitis
  2. Nose bleeds
  3. Saddle shaped nose
  4. Cough, Wheeze, Haemoptysis
  5. Glomerulonephritis

DIAGONOSIS?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

AKA

Wedener’s Granulomatosis

129
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

AKA

Wedener’s Granulomatosis

Is what type of disease?

A

Vasculitis

130
Q

Blood test for Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

AKA

Wedener’s Granulomatosis

A

C-ANCA

131
Q

treatments for

Blood test for Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

AKA

Wedener’s Granulomatosis

A

Steroids/ immunosuppressants

132
Q

middle eastern Man age 20 - 30,

oral + genital ulcers

Knee pain+ swelling

diagnosis?

A

Behcet’s disease

133
Q

Associated Gene for Behcet’s

A

HLA B51

134
Q

Special test for Behcet’s

A

Pathergy test

135
Q

disease pattern for Behcet’s

A

relapsing - remitting

136
Q

topical treatment for Behcet’s

A

steroids ( Soluble betamethasone tablets)

137
Q

Causes of mouth ulsers (linked to Behcet’s) (7)

A
  1. Simple aphthous ulcers (common)
  2. IBD (crohn’s)
  3. Coeliac disease
  4. Vitamin deficiency (B12, Folate, Iron)
    5. Herpes simplex virus
  5. Hand, foot and mouth
  6. SCC
138
Q

Which joint does gout affect?

A

metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint of the big toe, known as podagra

139
Q

Which blood test is raised in Gout

A

Uric Acid

140
Q

What is seen on aspirated fluid in Gout (2)

A

(1) Monosodium Urate Crystals (needle shaped)

(2) Negatively birefringent of polarised light)

141
Q

1st line for acute gout flare

A

NSAIDs (eg ibuprofen or naproxen)

142
Q

Gout renal impairment (accute) treatment and side effect

A

Colchicine, diarrhoea

143
Q

Prophylactic (long term) treatment for gout

A

Allopurinol

144
Q

old person hot, swollen stiff and painful knee - diagnosis?

A

pseudogout

(Larger joints)

145
Q

what is in the joint for pseudogout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate crystals

146
Q

appearance on joint fluid microscopy for pseudogout?

A

Rhomboid shaped crystals that are positively birefringent of polarised light

147
Q

First line medication for pseudogout?

A

NSAIDS

148
Q

Woman over 50

long term steroids for Polymyalgia rheumatica

what diagnosis and what risk assessment tool?

A

osteoporosis

FRAX tool (fracture risk)

149
Q

Scan for osteoporosis

A

DEXA scan (BMD)

150
Q

T score for diagnosis osteoporosis

A

<-2.5

151
Q

osteoporosis guidelines

A

Nogg guidelines

152
Q

1st line treatment osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates

153
Q

Monoclonal antibody option for osteoporosis

A

Denosumab

154
Q

old lady abnormal fractures, fatigue and bone pain AND increased ALP. What is it?

Low Vit D- missing the sun.

A

osteomalacia

155
Q

Cause for osteomalacia (which deficiency)

A

Vit D deficiency

156
Q

Abnormal electrolytes in osteomalacia (i.e. decrease ,2)

A

↓ serum calcium
↓ serum phophate

157
Q

abnormal liver test in osteomalacia

A

↑ ALP

158
Q

abnormal hormone in osteomalacia (not ALP)

A

↑ PTH

159
Q

Treatment for osteomalacia

A

treatment done Vit D

160
Q

old man , bone pain, deformity, fractures and hearing loss

A

Paget’s disease

161
Q

Well definined osteolytic lesions on xray , which disease and what is finding called?

A

Pagets

Osteoporosis circumscripta

162
Q

Classic x-ray appearance for Paget’s?

A

Cotton wool

163
Q

blood test for Paget’s shows?

A

↑ ALP

164
Q

Main treatment for Paget’s

A

Bisphonates

165
Q

Morton’s neuroma, which metatarsals affected?

A

3rd and 4th metatarsal most common

166
Q
  1. Diabetic neuropathic joint
  2. Damaged secondary to sensory loss
  3. Foot becomes very unstable
  4. Loss of plantar arch (flat foot)
  5. Swollen, red and warm

Diagnosis?

A

Charcot joint

167
Q
  1. Inverted and plantar flexed foot
  2. Mostly idiopathic
  3. Associated with spina bifida, cerebral palsy

Diagonsis?

A

Talipes Equinovarus (club foot)

168
Q

Treatment for Talipes Equinovarus (club foot)

A
  1. Manipulation and progressive casting soon after birth
  2. Corrected after 6-10 weeks
  3. Achilles tenotomy (85%)
169
Q

Achille’s tendon rupture, which test

A

Positive Simmons - Thompsons

170
Q

Achille’s tendon rupture, over usage of which drug?

A

Ciprofloxacin use

171
Q

Weber Type A:

A

Below the level of the

This is a fracture below the level of the ankle joint and is often stable.

172
Q

Weber Type B:

A

Weber Type B: This is a fracture at the level of the ankle joint or slightly above it. It can be stable or unstable, depending on the specific characteristics of the fracture.

distal extent at the level of the syndesmosis (trans-syndesmotic); may extend some distance proximally

173
Q

Weber Type C:

A

This is a fracture above the level of the ankle joint, typically involving the fibula. It is usually unstable and may require surgical intervention.

Above the level of the syndesmosis (suprasyndesmotic)

174
Q

ACL tests (2)

A

+Ve anterior drawer test – knee at 90 degrees

+ve Lachman= test – knee at 30 degrees

175
Q

Meniscus tears test (1)

A

+ve McMurray’s test

176
Q

PCL tear , how does it occur?

A

RTA feet up on the dashboard

177
Q

MCL tear , how does it occur?

A

Common in skiers (M = Mountain)
Valgus stress

178
Q

Iliotibial band syndrome, who gets it?

A

Runners

179
Q

Anterior dislocation of Hip, what is rotation direction? low yield.

ABducted or ADducted?

Is leg shortened?

A

Abducted

external rotation

Yes

180
Q

Posterior dislocation (90%) of Hip.

ADduction or ABduction?

Is leg shortened?

rotation internal or external?

A

Adducted

Yes

Internal

181
Q

Hip fracture,

ABducted or ADucted?

Is leg shortened?

A

Abducted

Yes

182
Q

Avascular necrosis, what causes it (3)

A

Long term steroids, chemotherapy, alcohol

183
Q

What does Xray of Avascular Necrosis show (3)

A
  1. flattening of femoral head,
  2. hanging rope sign,
  3. widening of joint space
184
Q

Trochanteric bursitis, pain on AbDuction or AdDuction

A

abduction

185
Q

Tibial fracture, urine appears dark and a dipstick is positive for blood. What is it?

A

rhabdomyolysis-

leads to the release of harmful substances into the bloodstream, including myoglobin

186
Q

Tibial shaft fracture , what is there a big risk of? Open or closed?

A

Big risk of compartment syndrome (anterior compartment)

Usually closed fracture

187
Q

Femoral shaft fracture , what is their high risk of?

A

High risk of fat embolism

Fat embolism = ARDS

Femoral = Fat

188
Q

Femoral shaft fracture treatment (2)

A

Femoral nerve block

Thomas splint

189
Q

Acetabulum fracture who gets it?

A

Young – high energy fracture

Old – low energy fracture
(osteoporosis)

Knee hitting dashboard

190
Q

Acriomioclavicular joint injury management

A

Grade I/II = sling
Grade IV-VI = surgery

191
Q

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

pain on active or passive movement or both?

Pain on external or internal rotation?

A

Both

Decreased external rotation

192
Q

rotator cuff injury,

Aduction or Abduction?

What angle?

tenderness location?

Answer:

A

Abduction

60-120 Degrees (painful Arc)

Tenderness is often found over the greater tuberosity and in the subacromial space, indicating rotator cuff involvement.

193
Q

Impingement Syndrome

Where is injury?

Degree of arc pain?

Pain radiation?

A

Compression of rotator cuff tendons

(mostly supraspinatus)

Painful arc (60-120degrees)

Pain radiates to deltoid and upper arm

194
Q

Shoulder dislocations - most common and cause?

A

Anterior

excessive abduction and external rotation

Posterior is opposite

195
Q

X-Ray posterior shoulder dislocation =

A

lightbulb sign

196
Q

Complications of shoulder dislocations (2)

A

axillary nerve and brachial plexus injury

197
Q

Surgical neck fractures , which nerve

A

Axillary nerve injury, Common low-energy osteoporosis injury

198
Q

Humeral midshaft fracture , which nerve

A

Radial , Caused by direct trauma

199
Q

Monteggia fracture, what is it (3)

A

Fracture – proximal ulna

Dislocation = proximal radial head

Monteggia ends in A = think proximal

200
Q

Galeazzi fracture, what is it (3)

A

Fracture = distal radius

Dislocation = distal radioulnar joint

Galeazzi = Z = think distal

DRUJ

201
Q

Golfers elbow (3)

A

Medial epicondylitis

Micro-tears in the common flexor origin

Pain on flexion and pronation

202
Q

Tennis elbow (3)

A

Lateral epicondylitis

Micro-tears in the common extensor origin

Pain on resisted middle finger and wrist extension and supination

203
Q

Cubital Tunnel Syndrome which nerve

A

Ulnar nerve

204
Q

test for Cubital syndrome (2)

A

Tinel’s test and Froment’s (paper) test

205
Q

Colles wrist fracture (3)

A

FOOSH onto palm of hand

Dorsal displacement and angulation , Dinner fork deformity

Think Dinner fork = distal part of bone displaced Dorsal

206
Q

Smiths wrist fracture (3)

A

FOOSH onto back of hand

Volar angulation of distal radius

Garden spade deformity

207
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome , which nerve

A

median nerve compression

208
Q

Carpal tunnel, which test

A

Phalen’s test

209
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome , who gets it (4)

A

Idiopathic,

RA,

pregnancy,

diabetes,

fracture (Colles)

210
Q

Carpal tunnel contents (5)

A

4 x flexor digitorum superficialis

4 x flexor digitorum profundus

Flexor pollicis longus

Median nerve

211
Q

Trigger finger, what is it?

A

Nodular enlargement of affected tendon, usually distal to the fascial pulley over the metacarpal neck (the A1 pulley)

212
Q

Which disease is vunerable in particular Trigger Finder

A

Diabetics

213
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture

A

Forming normal fascial bands forming nodules and cord progressing to contractures at MCP and PIP

Most commonly affects ring and little finger

** Fingers will not straighten **

Familial, liver disease, alcoholics, diabetics

Mild = tolerated

Severe – fasciectomy or fasciotomy

214
Q

Physis

A

Physis is the growth plate responsible for longitudinal bone growth.

Common fracture site for children

215
Q

supraspinatus, what does it do?

A

shoulder abduction

216
Q

Infraspinatus, what does it do?

A

external shoulder rotation

217
Q

teres minor-job

A

external shoulder rotation and adduction

218
Q

Subscapularis-function

A

internal rotation and adduction

219
Q

first 15 degrees arm abduction (which nerve)

A

15 degrees (suprascapular nerve)

220
Q

Which nerve is primarily involved in arm abduction from 15 to 90 degrees?

A

The axillary nerve is primarily involved in arm abduction from** 15 to 90 degrees**. This nerve innervates the deltoid muscle, which takes over from the supraspinatus muscle after the initial 15 degrees to continue the abduction of the arm up to and beyond 90 degrees.

221
Q

which muscle-Beyond 90 degrees arm abduction- and which nerve innervates?

A

Deltoid muscle, innervated by the axillary nerve.

222
Q

Buckle my shoe
Kick the door
pick up sticks
shut the gate

A

S1-S2 Buckle my shoe ANKLE
L3-L4 Kick the door KNEE
C5-C6 pick up sticks BICEPS
C7-C8 shut the gate TRICEPS

223
Q

lumbosacral trunk issue

A

weakness ankle dorsiflexion

numbness calf/foot

224
Q

Sciatic nerve issue

A

weakness in knee flexion , gluteal region affected

225
Q

Obturator nerve- where is the weakness?

A

Weakness in hip adduction

numbness over medial thigh

226
Q

De Quervain tenosynovitis- explain and who gets it?

A

usually in 30-50 year old women.

inflammation of the tendons in the wrist and thumb, often caused by repetitive thumb and wrist motions

typist

227
Q

Baker’s cyst, where is it?

A

popliteal fossa

228
Q

bucket handle tear, where? Which test

A

Medial Miniscus, McMurray Test

229
Q

PCL injury, which test?

A

Posterior test

230
Q

Major contributor of blood supply to the femoral head is which artery?

A

the medial femoral circumflex artery

231
Q

Which one of the nerves is responsible for innervation of the triceps muscle?

A

Radial nerve

TRICEPS

232
Q

CRAzy TULips

A

Capitulum - Radial & Trochlea - ULna

233
Q

common peroneal nerve injury- results in what?

A

Foot drop

234
Q

Deep peroneal nerve supplies the?

A

anterior compartment of the LOWER LEG

235
Q

Osteoarthritis, normal or raised serum calcium, ALP and PTH?

A

Normal

236
Q

What is a highly specific test for SLE?

A

Anti-smith

237
Q

Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies (all HLA-B27 associated): PEAR

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Enteropathic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Reactive arthritis

238
Q

Alendronic acid used when?

A

treatment of osteoporosis

239
Q

Meaning of Pollicis, Pollex

A

Thumb related

240
Q

Opponens meaning

A

Muscles that facilitate the ability to bring the thumb in contact with the fingers.

241
Q

Longus meaning

A

Muscles with relatively long tendons often responsible for flexing or extending digits or limbs.

242
Q

Brevis meaning

A

Muscles with relatively short tendons, typically responsible for smaller movements.

243
Q

Profundus meaning

A

Muscles that are deeper or farther from the surface, often associated with deeper layers of muscles in the hand or foot.

244
Q

Hip extension, which muscle in thigh responsible?

A

gluteus max

245
Q

Hip ABduction, which muscles are responsible?(2)

A

gluteus med & Gluteus min

246
Q

Which 3 muscles in anterior thigh flex hip?

PIC

A

Pectineus, illiopsosas, sartorius

247
Q

Which 4 muscles in anterior thigh extend the hip?

A

Rectus Femoris

Vastus Lateralis

Vastus Medialis

Vastus Intermedius

248
Q

Hip ADduction (Medial thigh)— which 5 muscles are responsible?

A
  1. Adductor Longus
  2. Adductor Brevis
  3. Adductor Magnus
    4.Obturator Externus
    5.Gracilis
249
Q

Extensor muscles that extend the hip joint, pulling the thigh backward. likely involved in hip extension? 3

A

Semimembranosus
Semitendinosus
Biceps Femoris

250
Q

Flexor muscles that flex the knee joint, bringing the lower leg closer to the back of the thigh are? 3

A

Semimembranosus
Semitendinosus
Biceps Femoris

251
Q

Anterior Leg Muscles

Dorsiflexor/Extensor - Ankle (3)

A

Tibialis anterior (Tib ant)
Extensor digitorum longus (EDL)
Extensor hallucis longus (EHL)

252
Q

Brachialis-primary job (Flexion) (1)

A

Brachialis: This muscle is a primary flexor of the elbow joint.

253
Q

Posterior Upper Arm Muscles (extension)

i.e. straightening the arm at the elbow joint.

A

Triceps brachii:

254
Q

Garden classification-

I or II? What to do

A

I+II = no displacement

Garden I: Incomplete, non-displaced.

Garden II: Complete, non-displaced.

255
Q

Garden classification-

III or IV? What to do

A

III and IV = displaced

Garden III: Complete, partially displaced.

Garden IV: Complete, fully displaced.

256
Q

Treatment for stable intertrochanteric femur fracture?

A

DHS

257
Q

Extracapsular Intertrochanteric unstable hip fracture

A

intramedullary nail

258
Q

gluteus maximus is a superficial muscle involved in?

A

hip extension.

259
Q

Dashboard car crash- what type of injury? (internal rotation)

A

Posterior hip dislocation

260
Q

Chondrocalcinosis in the joint space is usually seen in which disease profile?

A

pseudogout

261
Q

Osteoarthritis of shoulder- which test?

A

Scarf test

262
Q

Annular ligament job?

A

Stabilises proximal radioulnar joint

263
Q

Abnormal sign X-ray elbow

A

Posterior fat pad

264
Q

You got this Divs- only few weeks left

A

Lifetime of happiness

265
Q

Components of cubital fossa

REALLY NEED BEER TO BE AT MY NICEST

A

Radial Nerve
Biceps Tendon
Brachial artery
Median nerve

266
Q

anterior Hip dislocation-

posterior dislocation -

What is a) Legnthened/Shortened

b) What is rotated internally/externally

A

anterior Hip dislocation-

lengthened , externally rotated

posterior dislocation - shortened, internally rotated

267
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism =

Ca
PTH
ALP

A

Raised Ca,

Raised PTH,

Raised ALP

268
Q

CKD = Ca, PTH, up or down?

A

Decreased Ca, Decreased PTH

269
Q

Osteomalacia =Ca, PTH and ALP.

Raised or increased what

A

Decreased Ca

Increased PTH

Increased ALP

270
Q

Osteoporosis =

A

Normal everything

271
Q

Pagets ref Calcium, PTH and ALP.

A

Normal Ca, Normal PTH, Increased ALP.

272
Q

Cauda equina- how it presents and what investigation

A

Lower back pain, Get MRI

273
Q

Cauda equina- if you can’t wipe backside?

A

Saddle anaesthesia

274
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta- buzz word

A

Blue Sclera

275
Q

DMD (x-linked) kills young boys

which sign

A

Gowers’s sign

276
Q

DDH treatment

A

Pavlick harness

277
Q

Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)- what is stand out feature? Who does it normally affect?

A

palpable purpura, which appears as small, raised, reddish-purple skin lesions, typically on the lower extremities

Children.

278
Q

DHS is for which type of fracture?

A

DHS is for intertrochanteric fractures

279
Q

IM nail is for which fracture type?

A

IM nail is for subtrochanteric fractures.

280
Q

Remember SNOUT and SPIN.

Explain

A

SeNsitive tests are good at ruling things OUT.

SPecific tests are good at ruling things IN.

281
Q

Extracapsular,STABLE hip fracture what treatment?

A

dynamic hip screw

282
Q

transverse or subtrochanteric fractures-which treatment?

A

intramedullary device

283
Q

Intracapsular hip fracture,High function what treatment?

A

THR

284
Q

arthroplasty, when?

A

displaced intracapsular hip fracture, high function

285
Q

T score -1.0 to -2.5 = x
T score < -2.5 = y

A

-1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia
< -2.5 = osteoporosis

286
Q

Cubital Fossa contents (lateral to medial)

A

Lateral->Medial

Really Need Beer To Be At My Nicest

Radial Nerve,
Biceps Tendon,
Brachial Artery,
Median Nerve

287
Q

Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)

[Churg-Strauss Syndrome]

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Asthma

Eosinophilia

288
Q

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Wegener’s Granulomatosis)

2 mcq buzzwords

A

c-ANCA

Granulomas

289
Q

Henoch-Schönlein Purpura

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Palpable purpura

IgA deposition

290
Q

Kawasaki Disease

2 mcq buzzwords

(K for Kids)

A

Coronary aneurysms

Strawberry tongue

291
Q

Microscopic Polyangiitis

2 mcq buzzwords

A

p-ANCA

Glomerulonephritis

292
Q

Polyarteritis Nodosa

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Hepatitis B association

Microaneurysms

293
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Shoulder and hip girdle pain

↑ ESR+
↑ CRP

294
Q

Takayasu Arteritis

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Pulseless disease

Young Asian women

295
Q

Buerger’s Disease (Thromboangiitis Obliterans)

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Smoker’s disease

Distal limb ischemia

296
Q

Behçet’s Disease

2 mcq buzzwords

A

(Turkish guy) Oral and genital ulcers

Uveitis

297
Q

Hypersensitivity Vasculitis

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Drug reactions

Leukocytoclastic vasculitis

298
Q

Primary Angiitis of the Central Nervous System

2 mcq buzzwords

A

Isolated CNS vasculitis

Neurological deficits

299
Q

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (formerly known as Wegener’s Granulomatosis)- which antibody?

A

C-ANCA

300
Q

Microscopic Polyangiitis (MPA) and also with Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)

(formerly known as Churg-Strauss Syndrome).

Which antibody?

A

P-ANCA

301
Q

Muscle Fibre, outside to inside

EPFEM

A

Epimysium
Perimysium
Fascicle
Endomysium
M.F

302
Q

Ewing’s Sarcoma 2 buzzwords

A

fever and localized warmth and inflammation.

Young person (10-20)

ONION

303
Q

Osteosarcoma 3 buzzwords

A

Knee

Sunburst x ray

Codman’s triangle

304
Q

Chondrosarcoma - old people- which sign on xray

A

Moth sign

305
Q

Giant Cell Tumor buzzword

often around knee, buzzword

A

Soap Bubble

306
Q

Fibrous Dysplasia Buzzword

A

Shepherd’s crook

307
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) 2 buzzwords

A

Joint Mouse (or Loose Body)

Wilson’s Sign

308
Q

commonest benign bone tumour is an xxx?

A

osteochondroma

309
Q

Oblique Fracture 2 buzzwords

A

Angulation:

Shearing Force

310
Q

Spiral fracture 2 buzzwords

A

Torsional Force

Candy Cane Appearance

311
Q

Transverse Fracture 2 buzzwords

A

Perpendicular Force

Clean Break

312
Q

felty syndrome 3 buzzwords

A

RSN

Rheumatoid arthritis
Splenomegaly
Neutropenia

313
Q

osteomyelitis 3 buzzwords

A

Bone Pain

Elevated ESR+/-CRP:

Sequestrum: A piece of dead bone separated from living bone seen on imaging, typically associated with chronic osteomyelitis.

314
Q

OsteoSarcoma=
Ewings sarcoma=
Chondrosarcoma=

A

OsteoSarcoma= Sunburst pattern

Ewings sarcoma= OnEwin (onion skin)

Chondrosarcoma= PopChon (popcorn calcification

315
Q

Hip External rotation, shortened =

Hip Internal rotation, shortened =

A

Hip External rotation, shortened = hip fracture

Hip Internal rotation, shortened = posterior disloc

316
Q

side effect of pred on neurtrophils?

A

Neutrophilia

317
Q

You did it!!!!

A

It will be worth it in the end!

Year 2 Divs (12 decks)

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