MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Ddx pathologic fracture - benign tumour

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst
Enchondroma
Eosinophilic granuloma
Fibrous dysplasia
Giant cell tumour
Nonossifying fibroma
Ostochondroma
Unicameral bone cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ddx pathological fracture - malignant tumour

A

Chondrosarcoma
Ewing sarcoma
Neuroblastoma
Osteogenic sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ddx pathological fracture - Hereditary diseases

A

Gaucher disease
Neurofibromatosis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteopetrosis
Sickle cell disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ddx Pathologic fracture - metabolic disorders

A

Copper deficiency
Cushing syndrome
Hyperparathyroidism
Renal osteodystrophy
Rickets
Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What pathogens are most commonly responsible for septic arthritis?

A

** S. aureus
S. pneumoniae
GAS
Gonococcus (older)
Kingella kingae

Salmonella - kids with hemoglobinopathiesq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is septic arthritis spread?

A

hematogenous usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the imaging of choice for SCFE?

A

AP + frog-leg radiographs
MRI works too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What endocrinopathy is associated with SCFE outside the normal age range?

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most common hip disorder in adolescent patients?

A

SCFE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much more common is SCFE in males than females?

A

2x more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In what directio is slippage most common in SCFE?

A

posterior + inferior relative to the proximal femoral metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the cutoff between acute and chronic scfe?

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are risk factors for “atypical” SCFE?

A

endocrine disorder (esp hypothyroid)
renal failure
radiation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What hip movements are limited/painful in SCFE?

A

full flexion’
internal rotation
abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the cardinal signs of tenosynovitis?

A

four cardinal Kanavel signs
- finger held in mild flexion
- fusiform swelling of the digit
- tenderness along the entire tendon sheath, especially at the palmar surface of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint
- severe pain with passive extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum angulation acceptable for a fracture of the 4th or 5th metacarpals?

A

Up to 40 degrees is acceptable for the 4th and 5th metacarpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the maximum angulation acceptable for a fracture of the 2nd or 3rd metacarpals?

A

10 to 20 degrees is acceptable for the 2nd and 3rd metacarpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A

7 Ps
- pulseless
- pale
- paralysis
- hard on palpation
- painful
- poikilothermia
- paresthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common site of compartment syndrome?

A

anterior compartment of the leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When does muscle necrosis become irreversible after start of tissue anoxia??

A

6-8 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes the Volkmann’s contracture?

A

Displaced supracondylar fractures may injure the anterior interosseous artery and the flexor compartment of the forearm causing a compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What nerve is usually affected in compartment syndrome of the flexor aspect of the forearm?

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how to test for axillary nerve damage?

A

o innervates deltoid and teres minor (motor) = abduction and external rotation
o sensation = lateral shoulder sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the classic findings on X-ray of a lisfranc fracture?

A

Widened space (diastasis) between base of 1st & 2nd metatarsals
Fleck fracture adjacent to base of 1st MT
Loss of alignment of medial edge of proximal second MT with medial edge of second cuneiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the classic mechanism of injury for a lisfranc fracture?

A

Axial load on plantar flexed foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are reasons to non urgently send patient to ortho for consult in MT fractures?

A

Displaced fracture of fifth metatarsal styloïde
Shaft fracture near metatarsal head
Unacceptable position needing reduction or unsuccessful reduction attempts
Lisfranc injury or suspected
Multiple Mt fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a jones fracture?

A

Fracture at the diaphyseal-metaphyseal junction at base of 5th MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

4 signs of SCFE on X-ray

A

Klein line (along superior edge of neck of femur) does not intersect epiphysis (AP view)
Widened epiphysis
Caudal displacement of femoral head
Posterior displacement of the epiphysis
A line along the inferior margin of the proximal femur should smoothly continue over the physis and epiphysis in an S shape. If there is discontinuity or abrupt bending of the line, SCFE should be strongly suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What endocrinopathy is most commonly associated with SCFE?

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In what percentage of cases are SCFE bilateral?

A

25%

31
Q

What are signs of SCFE on physical exam?

A

limited internal rotation
pain with external rotation

32
Q

What is the difference between a SH1 fracture and a SCFE?

A

in SCFE the perichondrium remains intact

33
Q

Risk factors for SCFE

A

pre-pubertal/around puberty
M>F
African american
Obesity
Vertically inclined physeal angles
Hypothyroidism
Renal failure
Radiation therapy

34
Q

What is the time period for chronic vs acute SCFE?

A

Chronic > 3 weeks

35
Q

Where does the chin point in a muscular torticollis?

A

chin points toward unaffected side

36
Q

What pressure is diagnostic of compartment syndrome?

A

30mmHg

37
Q

What is rotatory subluxation?

A

consider if head cannot be rotated past midline
spontaneous or follows URTI or traumatic event
Chin points to same side as SCM spasm (cock-robin position)

38
Q

What xray finding could be indicative of rotary subluxation?

A

open-mouth radiograph with one of lateral masses of C1 appearing more forward and closer to midline vs other mass appears narrow and away from midline

*CT scan is more useful

39
Q

Possible traumatic causes of torticollis

A

cervical fracture
atlanto-axial subluxation
muscle spasm
rotary dislocation
SAH with extension into neck

40
Q

Non-traumatic causes of torticollis

A

Spinal column infection (discitis, osteomyelitis, epidural abscess)
RPA
Cervical adenitis
Myositis of SCM
Rotary dislocation (Grisel’s syndrome)

41
Q

Complications of splinting of an MSK injury

A

Neurovascular compromise
Pressure ulcers
Contact dermatitis
Contracture if prolonged splint or not in position of function

42
Q

Volkmann’s Contracture

A

Ischemic contracture resulting from unrecognized vascular compromise due to a supracondylar fracture, vessel injury during reduction or compartment syndrome - anterior interosseous artery

43
Q

Most common pathogens of diskitis and vertebral osteomyelitis

A

Staph
GAS
E.Coli
Kingella kingae (< 3 years)

44
Q

What is the clinical appearance of a volkmann’s contracture?

A

Decreased sensation
Paleness of the skin
Muscle weakness and loss (atrophy)
Deformity of the wrist, hand, and fingers that causes the hand to have a claw-like appearance

45
Q

Contraindications to knee aspiration

A

No absolute contraindications. Relative contraindications include:
-overlying cellulitis
- coagulopathy/bleeding disorders
- a joint prosthesis
- acute fracture
- adjacent osteomyelitis
- uncooperative patient.

46
Q

What is a Jefferson fracture

A

bursting fracture of ring of C1
result of axial load

47
Q

radiographic criterion for Jefferson fracture

A

lateral offset of lateral mass of C1 more than 1mm from vertebral body of C2

48
Q

In what age grops can a “pseudo-jefferson fracture” be seen?

A

0-6 yrs

49
Q

What is a hangman’s fracture

A

traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 resulting from hyperextension

50
Q

sublixation associated with hangman’s fracture

A

anterior subluxation C2 on C3

51
Q

How can the distinction be made between a subtle hangman’s fracture and pseudosubluxation

A

using Swischuk’s posterior cervical line - > 1.5-2mm suggests occult fracture

52
Q

Causes of ligament instability that can lead to atlantoaxial subluxation

A

tonsillitis
cervical adenitis
pharyngitis
arthritis
connective tissue disorders
T21

53
Q

Radiographic findings suggestive of atlantoaxial subluxation

A

widened predental space on lateral radiograph

54
Q

4 types of atlantoaxial subluxation

A

Type 1 - no displacement of c1
Type 2 - 3-5mm C1 on C2 anterior displacement
Type 3 - >5 mm C1 on C2 anterior displacement
Type 4 - posterior displacement of C1 on C2

55
Q

what is the most common cause of atlantoaxial subluxation in young children?

A

dens fracture

56
Q

Cause of cervical distraction injures

A

rapid acceleration or deceleration incidents
eg. MVC, pedestrian accident, infant abusive head trauma

57
Q

Measurements for potential distraction injuries of cervical spine

A

atlantooccipital distance should not exceed 5mm
C1-C2 interspinous distance should not exceed 10mm

58
Q

What is sun’s ratio

A

C1-C2:C2-C3
should be < 2.5 - if more, suggests potential ligamentous instability

59
Q

most frequent cause of vertebral compression injuries

A

axial loading and hyperflexion

60
Q

radiographic findings of vertebral compression injuries

A

isolated anterior wedging, teardrop fracture, burst vertebral bodies

61
Q

What is SCIWORA?

A

spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality
mainly children < 8 y
symptoms consistent with cervical cord injuries but no abnormal radiographs

62
Q

How to distinguish between muscular torticollis vs SCM spasm

A

muscular = chin points toward unaffected side
SCM - chin points toward affected side

63
Q

when should rotary subluxation be considered in a patient with torticollis

A

when patients head cannot be rotated past midline
chin pointed towards same side as SCM spasm

64
Q

radiographic findings of rotary subluxation

A

openmouth radiograph - one of lateral C1 masses appears forward and lcoser to midline while opposite lateral mass appears narrow and away from midline
(lateral offset)

65
Q

MOst useful diagnostic tool in rotary subluxation

A

CT scan

66
Q

treatment of mild rotary subluxation

A

cervical collar
analgesia

67
Q

What is anterior cord syndrome

A

loss of neurologic function in areas supplied by anterior spinal artery with loss of motor function below level of the lesion but normal touch and proprioceptive function

68
Q

What is posterior cord syndrome?

A

loss of proprioceptive function,. deep pressure, pain, vibratory sense with preservation of temperature sensation and motor function

69
Q

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

hemisection of the cord
contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation with ipsilateral motor findings below the lesion

70
Q

What is central cord syndrome

A

injury most severe in center of the cord
motor strength more severely depressed in arms than legs

71
Q

Which lesions of the spinal cord are usually non-reversible?

A

anterior cord syndrome
complete transection

72
Q

What type of thoraco-lumbar spinal fracture requires immediate surgical consult?

A

any chance or burst fracture associated with 15+ degrees of kyphosis or any degree of neurologic impairment

73
Q
A