Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PEM Lectures dirigées > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

What are risk factors for needing exchange transfusion in neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?

A
  • prematurity
  • sepsis
  • isoimmune hemolytic disease
  • asphyxia
  • lethargy
  • temperature instability
  • acidosis
  • albumin <30
  • sibling with jaundice requiring therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common causes of mortality in teens 15-19y in north america?

A

Accidents (unintentional injuries); Homicide; Suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At what percentage TBSA can burn shock occur in children?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are admission criteria for peds burn victims?

A

5-10% TBSA burn
2-5% TBSA full-thickness burn
high-voltage injury
concern for inhalational injury
circumferential burn
significant associated trauma or medical comorbidity
>1%TBSA burns of face, perineum. hands and feet
burns overlying joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List 5 literature “quality” categories

A

I – Randomized control trials or systematic reviews of RCTs
II – Cohort studies or SR of cohort
III – Case control or SR of case control
IV – Case series
V – Expert opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are non-infectious causes of hyperthermia?

A

heat stroke
neuroleptic malignant syndrome
serotonin syndrome
thyroid storm
acute rheumatic fever
kawasaki syndrome
poisonings - sympathomimetic, anticholinergic
malignant hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the dose of hydrocortisone for CAH salt wasting crisis?

A

50mg/m2/day at once
then that same dose divided by 4 and given q6h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In what case is insulin + glucose therapy contraindicated for treating hyperkalemia?

A

CAH - risk of hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How much dextrose should be given for hypoglycemia (bolus)?

A

0.25g/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Reye syndrome

A

during varicella infection
nausea, vomiting, headache, excitability, delirium. combativeness and can become comatose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are stingray stings treated?

A

irrigate with cold saltwater - flush the venom
control bleeding
place extremity in HOT water. (40-45C for 30-90 mins)
remove any remnant of integumentary sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are jellyfish stings treated?

A

Apply vinegar
oral antihistamines or steroids
pain management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What medications increase blood concentrations of tacrolimus and cyclosporine?

A

Diltiazem
Nicardipine
Nifedipine
Verapamil
Fluconazole
Clotrimazole
Azithromycin
Metoclopramide
Omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What medications decrease blood concentrations of tacrolimus and cyclosporine?

A

Carbamazepine
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Rifampin
St. John’s wort
Terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What class or medications are tacrolimus and cyclosporine?

A

Calcineurin inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are side effects of cyclosporine?

A

Increased risk of infection
Hyperglycaemia
Nephrotoxic
Hyperkalemia
Hypertension
Hirsutisme
Gingival hypertrophy
Abdo pain
Hepatotoxicity
Pancreatitis
Headache
Tremor
Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are side effects of tacrolimus?

A

Increased risk of infection
Hyperglycaemia
Nephrotoxic
Hyperkalemia
Hypertension
Abdonoain
Gastritis
Hepatotoxicity
Pancreatitis
Neuro - headache, tremor, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ddx for microscopic hématuria with hypertension, edema, RBC casts or proteinuria WITH and WITHOUT thrombocytopenia

A

With:
HUS

Without:
Acute post strep nephritis
HSP

19
Q

Nephro trauma that doesn’t cause hematuria

A

Renal artery laceration or avulsion
Grade 1 renal contusion

20
Q

4 steps of a QI project

A

Act
Plan
Study
Do

21
Q

Characteristics of a good QI program

A

Purpose and scope
Resources, roles and responsibilities
Process for identification of QI efforts
Goals, objectives + measures
Monitoring progress and results of goals, objectives, measures
Training plan
Communication plan
Evaluatio of QI plan and activities

22
Q

What are the subtypes of altitude sickness?

A

High-altitude headache
Acute mountain sickness
High-altitude cerebral edema
High-altitude pulmonary edema

23
Q

What are the factors that cause altitude sickness?

A

Decrease in barometric pressure = decrease partiap pressure of O2
Hypothermia - compounds hypoxic effects
Increased ventilation - hypocapnia
Hypocapnia = alkalosis = limitation of respiratory rate
Eventually - kidneys excrete HCO3 and pH returns to normal

24
Q

How is acetazolamide used in altitude sickness?

A

Inhibits Bicarb reabsorption in kidneys = increased bicarb excretion = metabolic acidosis = increased ventilatory rate and oxygenation

25
Q

What is acute mountain sickness?

A

Headache + 1/4
- nausea/vomiting
fatigue
difficulty sleeping
dizziness

26
Q

What is the pathophysiology of acute mountain sicness?

A

Vasoenic edema - progression to encephalopathy as cerebral edema worsens

27
Q

What is the most common cause of death from high altitude?

A

High-altitude pulmonary edema - younger ppl more at srisk

28
Q

What is defined as intermediate, high, very high and extremely high altitude?

A

Intermediate = 1520-2440m
High = 2440-4270m
Very high = 4270-5490 m
Extreme = > 5490m

29
Q

What is the treatment for altitude sickness?

A

Stop asckent and acclimatize
Acetazolamide
Analgesics, hydration, antiemetic
Low flow- O2
Dexamethasone (if worsens to AMS)
Hyperbaric O2 therapy
If concerns for cerebral edema - elevate head of the bed
HAPE - nifedipine to reduce pulmonary vascular pressures

30
Q

What are the 4 steps to creating a clinical decision rule?

A

derivation, validation, implementation and studying the barriers to adoption

31
Q

What are the types of medical direction for EMTs?

A

Offline (indirect) - through established protocols or set of standing orders for specific condition/symptom

Online (direct) - requires real-time communication betewen EMS and physician

32
Q

principles of decontamination

A
  • Remove clothes
  • Wash with a damp cloth
  • Pay special attention to skin folds and fingernails
  • Cover clean wounds to prevent contamination
  • Prevent external and tepid water contamination from becoming internal
  • Do not abrade the skin
  • Admit through separate entrance of ED, control access to the treatment centre
33
Q

What are the “close in age” exceptions for age of consent for sexual activity?

A

A 14 or 15 year old can consent to sexual activity as long as the partner is less than five years older

A 12 or 13 year old can consent to sexual activity with a partner as long as the partner is less than two years older

34
Q

Pathophysiology of decompression sickness

A

As a diver descends and breathes gas (often air) under increased pressure, the tissues become saturated with dissolved nitrogen as predicted by Henry’s law. As the diver returns to the surface, the sum of the gas tensions in the tissue may exceed the ambient pressure and lead to the liberation of free gas from the tissues in the form of bubbles; the location of bubble formation depends somewhat upon tissue characteristics. The liberated gas bubbles can alter organ function by blocking blood vessels, rupturing or compressing tissue, or causing endothelial damage and subsequently activating clotting and inflammatory cascades. The volume and location of these bubbles determine whether and what symptoms. Gas bubbles are generally present in the venous circulation due to low pressure and high gas tension

35
Q

Top items (Food and otherwise) responsible for choking

A

hot dogs
candies
grapes
balloons
meat
small balls
beads

36
Q

What is Class 1 dental trauma + how is it managed?

A

Ellis class I
1. File down sharp edges, if necessary, with a dental drill or emery board.
2. Dental follow-up, as desired by the patient, is for cosmetic purposes only.

37
Q

What is class 2 dental injury and how is it managed?

A

llis class II
1. Cover the exposed surface with a calcium hydroxide composition (eg, Dycal), a glass ionomer, or a strip of adhesive barrier (eg, Stomahesive). 2-octyl cyanoacrylate (Dermabond) has been shown to be an acceptable alternative in the setting of a dental fracture if no other materials are available.[6] The 2-octyl cyanoacrylate decreases tooth sensitivity and provides a protective barrier until dental follow-up.[7]
2. Provide pain medications.
3. Instruct the patient to avoid hot and cold food or drink.
4. Arrange for a follow-up appointment with a dentist within 24 hours.
5. Consider antibiotic coverage with penicillin or clindamycin.

38
Q

What is class 3 dental injury and how is it managed?

A

Ellis class III
1. Cover the exposed surface with a calcium hydroxide composition (eg, Dycal) or a glass ionomer.
2. Provide immediate dental follow-up and analgesics as needed.
3. Initiate antibiotics with coverage of intraoral flora (eg, penicillin, clindamycin).

39
Q

Risk factors for infantile hemangiomas

A

prematurity
infants of mothers with multiple gestation
advanced maternal age
placenta previa
preeclampsia

40
Q

Roles of a medical director

A
  • communications
  • field clinical practice
  • physician clinical role
  • personnel education
  • system evaluation
  • EMS research
  • Liaison activities
  • Finance
  • Public access
  • Public education
  • Illness and injury prevention
  • Legislation and regulation
  • Integration of health services
  • Information systems
41
Q

What are first-order modifiers applicable to all patients?

A

level of consciousness
respiratory rate and effort
heart rate and circulatory status

42
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities in acute renal failure

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hyponatremia or hypernatremia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • hyperphosphatemia
43
Q
A

PEM Lectures dirigées (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions