Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PEM Lectures dirigées > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What bacteria can cause toxic shock syndrome?

A

staph aureus
GAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the presentation of Toxic shock syndrome?

A

sudden onset:
high fever (39+)
vomiting
watery diarrhea
diffuse, erythematous maculopapular rash
hyperemia of mucous membranes
+/-
pharyngitis
headache
myalgias
oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lab findings in toxic shock syndrome

A

leukocytosis with left shift
thrombocytopenia
transaminitis
elevated creatinine
elevated CK
Myoglobinuria
coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Complications fo toxic shock

A

ARDS
AKI
DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What antibiotic should be added when toxic shock syndrome is suspected?

A

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What GI pathogen is associated with Guillain-Barré?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What GI pathogen can have CNS effects such as seizure?

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does campylobacter come from?

A

contaminated poultry
unpasteurized milk/dairy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where does yersinia come from?

A

contaminated pork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What enteric pathogen can mimic appendicitis?

A

Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where does E.Coli come from?

A

undercooked beef
unpasteurized fruit + vegetable juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does norwalk virus come from?

A

raw seafood + cntaminated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does salmonella come from?

A

contaminated poultry
unpasteurized dairy
raw or undercooked eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does cryptosporidium come from?

A

fresh fruits + vegetables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment of choice for scalp ringworm?

A

Griseofulvin 20mg/kg/day x 6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the most common pathogens in necrotizing fasciitis?

A

GAS
Staph Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

penicilin + clinda +/- vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common causative organism of travelers diarrhea?

A

ENTEROTOXIGENIC E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does Dukoral cover?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli
Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What viruses can cause parotitis?

A

**mumps
parainfluenza types 1 and 3, influenza, Coxsackie virus, and rarely, human immunodeficiency virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What bacteria most causes parotitis?

A

S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What investigations should be done for recurrent parotitis?

A

sialography/ultrasound and r/o HIV vs r/o sjorgen’s syndrome with anti-SSa, antiSSb and RF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are possible neurologic complications of varicella zoster?

A

acute cerebellar ataxia, encephalitis, Reye syndrome, transient focal deficitis, aseptic meningitis, tranverse myelitis, postherpetic neuralgia, guillan barre, stroke syndrome (secondary to infection of cerebral arteries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are possible ophthalmologic complications of varicella zoster?

A

herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) (reactivation of VZV in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve V1)

severe chronic pain, vision loss, corneal ulceration, bacterial superinfection, uveitis, keratitis, acute retinal necrosis, hutchinson’s sign (herpes zoster vesicle present on the tip or side of the nose - reflects zoster involvement of the 1st branch of the trigeminal nerve, and is concerning for herpes zoster ophthalmicus.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster oticus – triad of ipsilateral facial paralysis + ear pain + vesicles in the auditory canal and auricle

Reactivation of VZV in geniculate ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Signs of neonatal/congenital syphilis

A

Condylomata
Osteoxhondritis/perichondritjs
Snuffles
Lip fissures
Cutaneous lesions
Mucous patches
Hepatosplenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy
Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What tooth findings are related to congenital syphilis?

A

Hutchinson teeth
Mulberry molars

29
Q

What syphilis tests are non treponemal?

A

RPR (rapid plasma reagin)
VDRL
(Venereal disease research laboratory)

30
Q

What tests for syphilis are treponemal?

A

FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption)
Treponema pallidum particle agglutination
Enzyme immunoassay
Line blot immunoassay

31
Q

Who should receive clindamycin vs TMP/SMX + keflex for suspected MRSA skin infection?

A

Clinda:

3 months of age or
older

  • low-grade fever (<38.0°C) or no fever
  • no other systemic signs of illness

TMP/SMX+keflex:

3 months of age or
older

  • significant surrounding cellulitis
  • low-grade fever (<38.0°C) or no fever
  • no other systemic signs of illness
32
Q

What are the criteria for watchful waiting for AOM?

A

> 6mo
Not perforated
Otalgia mild
Temp <39
<48h illness
No rigors
Responding to antipyretics
No MEE

33
Q

What are the stages of pertussis and how long do they last?

A

Incubation 3-12 days
Catarrhal stage (1-2 weeks) - URTI sx with low grade fever
Paroxysmal stage (2-6 weeks) - paroxysms of extreme cough with whoop at end
Convalescent stage (> 2 week) - slow return to normal

(<3mo old may not have catarrhal phase)

34
Q

Treatment of pertussis

A

Azithromycin 10mg/kg/day in a single dose x 5 days (up to 5 months)
> 6 mo + kidx = 10mg/kg x 1 on day 1 then 5mg/kg/day x 4 days

35
Q

Who should receive pertussis prophylaxis and what should they receive?

A

Azithromycin to all household and close contacts (Eg. daycare) regardless of immunization status and symptoms
don’t visit until abx given x 5 days
finish vaccination series for those not fully vaccinated
if > 9 years old give Tdap

36
Q

Potential complications of pertussis

A

apnea
secondary inections (AOM, Pneumonia)
seizure
encephalopathy
death

37
Q

Risk factors for fatal pertussis

A

< 4 mo
preterm birth
young maternal age

38
Q

What pathogens cause hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin-producing E. Coli
Shigella
Salmonella
Yersinia

39
Q

What are the hallmark characteristics of HUS?/ Diagnostic triad of HUS

A

Coombs-negative hemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
AKI
(normal coagulation studies)

40
Q

Complications of HUS

A

hemorrhagic colitis
bowel wall necrosis, toxic megacolon, peritonitis, intussusception, rectal prolapse
pancreatic failure - permanent diabetes mellitus
Microangiopathic injury of other organs
Encephalopathy - irritability and/or somnolence

41
Q

Signs of epiglottitis on xray

A

o Enlargement of epiglottis
“Larger than your thumb”
o Thickening of aryepiglottic folds
o Circumferential narrowing of subglottic portion of trachea during inspiration
o Ballooning of hypopharynx and pyriform sinuses
o Reversal of the normal lordotic curve of the cervical spine

42
Q

Treatment of hot-tub folliculitis

A
  • silver sulfadiazine, bacitracin/polymyxin B, gentamicin, or neomycin topical
  • widespread or symptomatic infections or those in immunocompromised hosts - ciprofloxacin
43
Q

Most common location of peeling in staph scalded skin

A

around mouth, nose and eyes followed by neck, axillary and inguinal folds

44
Q

Cause of staph scalded skin

A

dissemination of the exfoliative toxin produced by staph aureus

45
Q

What is the Nikolsky sign?

A

if red skin is rubbed, blister is induced

46
Q

What antibiotic is usually added to treatment of staph scalded skin and why?

A

clindamycin - inhibits toxin formation

47
Q

What is Ecthyma

A

skin infection with loss of top layers of skin caused by necrosis

48
Q

what is the most common cause of ecthyma in children?

A

GAS

49
Q

What is erysipelas?

A

type of cellulitis that presesnts with swollen, red, painful edematous plaques - infection of superficial dermal lymphatics

50
Q

How to tell the difference between cellulitis vs erysipelas

A

erysipelas = step-off from affected edematous to normal skin

51
Q

What is the only bug that causes erysipelas

A

GAS

52
Q

What is intertrigo?

A

inflamed, red skin folds that are the result of chronic irritation, yeast or bacteria - often areas of chronic irritation get superinfected with GAS or SA

53
Q

What bug causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever and what is the transmission vector?

A

Rickettsia Rickettsii
transmitted by tick bite

54
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice against Rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

doxycycline

55
Q

Describe the rash of Rocky mountain spotted fever

A

begins on day 3-4 of fever as macular or papular eruption on extremities (wrists + ankles)
x 2 days - spreads to palms + soles, back. chest, abdo (predominant arms, legs, palms, soles)
becomes more confluent and purpuric

56
Q

Systemic signs and symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever

A

fever
headache
myalgia
conjunctivitis
vomiting
seizures
myocarditis
heart failure
shock
periorbital/facial/peripheral edema
DIC
purpura fulminans

57
Q

Describe the rash of secondary syphilis

A

6-8 weeks after primary lesion
generalized eruption of brownish, dull-red macules or papules
discrete and symmetrically distributed particularly over the trunk
INCLUDES papules on the palms and soles

58
Q

Systemic symptoms of secondary syphilis

A

malaise
fever
headache
sore throat
rhinorrhea
lacrimation
generalized lymphadenopathy

59
Q

What medications are used to treat TB?

A
  • Isoniazid
  • Rifampin
  • Pyrazinamide
  • ethambutol
60
Q

What investigations are needed in children in whom TB infection is suspected?

A

newborn - LP for routine studies, acid-fast culture, and M. tuberculosis PCR. (CSF profiles show a lymphocytic pleocytosis, high CSF protein, and low CSF glucose0

While TSTs and IGRAs are helpful when positive, negative tests do not rule out TB. All children in whom TB disease is suspected should be screened for HIV and have a baseline CBC and hepatic transaminases performed.

61
Q

How to diagnose TB

A

TST or IGRA + CXR + known or suspected exposure

62
Q

Factors that determine risk of infection from exposure to blood by needle stick injury

A

size of the needle
depth of penetration
whether blood was injected

63
Q

Bloodwork to do for accidental needle stick injury

A

HBs-Ag
Anti-Hbs
Anti-HCV
HIV

64
Q

Treatment for Hep B from needlestick injury if fully. vaccinated and known to be anti-HBsAg antibody or HBsAg positive

A

no action

65
Q

Treatment for Hep B from needlestick injury if not fully vaccinated

A

test anti-HBsAg antibody and HBsAg
if negative:
give HBIG immediately and HBV vaccine

If anti-HBsAg positive - just complete HBV vaccine

66
Q

When is HIV prophylaxis indicated in needle stick injury

A

if incident involved a needle and syringe with fresh blood and some blood was injected into the child

67
Q

HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (needle stick injury)

A

Zidovudine + ART therapy

68
Q

Indications for prophylactic antibiotics in dog bites

A
  • Bite > 8hrs old with significant crush injury or edema
  • Bites to hands/feet
  • Potential damage to bones, joints tendons
  • Patient with increased risk of infection (immunocompromised)
  • Bite closed prematurely
69
Q

Diagnostic criteria for acute bacterial sinusitis

A

Persistent nasal drainage and/or daytime cough lasting more than 10 days without improvement
or
Worsening clinical course (nasal drainage, daytime cough, or fever) after initial clinical improvement
or
Purulent nasal drainage for at least 3 consecutive days and fever ≥102.2°F (39°C)

PEM Lectures dirigées (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions