MRI Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are 3 advantages of MRI?

A

Is non-invasive
Is non-destructive
Uses no ionising radiation, making serial studies more ethically acceptable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are 4 disadvantages of MRI?

A

Time - takes longer. therefore patient motion a greater problem
Contraindications - More patients have contraindications for MRI compared to CT. Such contraindications arise because of metal in the patient in the form of passive medical implants or metallic fragments in their eyes, or because of active electronic implants such as cardiac pacemakers
Cost - expensive
Difficult theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

will muscle produce a higher signal than cortical bone?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is it that the presence of bone can be inferred from MR images?

A

(1) cortical bone shows up as dark against the high signal from soft tissue and (2) marrow (i.e. fat) in the trabecular bone also produces high signal (Fig 1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Very briefly how does MRI work?

A

(1) place the patient in a strong external magnetic field to align the protons; (2) apply a pulse of RF radiation at the correct frequency to produce resonance; (3) detect the RF radiation emitted as resonating protons relax to give an NMR signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What quantity is the static magnetic field and how do we refer to it?

A

The static magnetic field (B0) is a vector quantity (i.e. it has direction as well as magnitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What effect does B0 have on the patient?

A

exerts a force on hydrogen nuclei (protons) within the body and this causes them to align themselves in the direction of the field or in the opposite direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the RF pulse do?

A

The RF pulse causes the nuclei to change their alignment but only if the radio waves within it have a particular frequency (the Larmor frequency).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens after the RF pulse is switched off?

A

After the pulse is switched off, the patient emits RF radiation at the same frequency as the protons revert (relax) to their original alignments in the magnetic field. This emission is detected by a receiver to create a measurable signal (an electrical voltage that varies with time).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the strong static magnetic field created?

A

by the flow of direct current in coils of electrically conducting material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is the static magnetic field always on and present?

A

In the large majority of MRI scanners, the coil material is maintained at a very low temperature (that of liquid helium) such that it is superconducting i.e. it has no electrical resistance. For practical reasons, this means that the current is always on and that the field is always present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is the RF pulse created?

A

The RF pulse (often called the RF magnetic field) is created by the flow of alternating current in a separate coil (that is not superconducting). The same coil may be used to detect the emitted RF radiation at a later time, or a separate coil may be used for this purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are gradient coils and why do we have them?

A

The MRI scanner also has a further set of three non-superconducting coils (the gradient coils) that are used to locate the source of the emitted RF radiation within the patient.

In these gradient coils, direct current is rapidly switched on and off to produce gradient magnetic fields in three mutually perpendicular directions (X, Y and Z).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does ‘proton’ refer to in MRI?

A

the nucleus of a hydrogen atom (hydrogen-1) and does not refer to a proton in the nucleus of atoms of other elements that exist in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 4 key pieces of information about the proton to understand MRI?

A

Protons have mass (1.7 × 10-27 kg), positive electric charge (1.6 × 10-19 coulomb) and ‘spin’
Spinning charges produce a magnetic field
Hydrogen nuclei therefore act like tiny magnets or magnetic dipoles (which have ‘north’ and ‘south’ magnetic poles separated by a short distance)
The human body is about 80% water and therefore contains lots of hydrogen nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What property does spin give to a proton?

A

angular momentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is angular momentum?

A

loosely defined as the quantity of rotation possessed by an object. Angular momentum is a vector quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is angular momentum quantised on an atomic scale and what is it in a proton?

A

it can only have certain discrete values. The angular momentum of a nucleus is Ih/2π,where I is a quantum number that can only be zero, an integer (whole number such as 1, 2 etc.) or a multiple of ½ (such as ½, ³⁄₂, ⁵⁄₂ etc.). For the proton, I=½

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is magnetic dipole moment?

A

The MDM is an important property of a magnet; it can be considered as the characteristic of the magnet that indicates how quickly it will align itself with an external magnetic field. The MDM is also a vector quantity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you calculate MDM?

A

the product of the spin angular momentum and γ, the gyromagnetic ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the gyromagnetic ratio depend on?

A

γ is the MDM divided by the spin angular momentum. Its value depends on the type of nucleus; for the proton it is 2.67 x 108 rad s^-1T^-1. Here ‘rad’ means radian, the SI unit of angle, with 2π radians (a full circle) being equal to 360°.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to the protons in a body when in a high magnetic field?

A

protons align either with the field (in a relatively low-energy state) or against the field, i.e. in the opposite direction to it (in a higher-energy state). A slightly greater number of hydrogen nuclei align with the field than against the field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can happen to a proton in a magnetic field if applied with an oscillating magnetic field?

A

An oscillating magnetic field at the correct frequency can make protons change from the low- to the high-energy state and in the opposite direction. An oscillating field of this type is equivalent to electromagnetic radiation at the same frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the equation for Larmor frequency?

A

ν = γB0/2π

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why does a spinning proton create a magnetic field?

A

A moving electric charge produces a magnetic field, and so the proton may be regarded as a tiny magnet because it is a charged particle that is spinning rapidly about its axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does the proton align exactly with B0?

A

No - a quantum mechanical rule prevents exact alignment and its MDM μ is inclined at an angle to the external field B0, which causes it to behave in a rather different way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a precessional orbit?

A

the proton also has spin angular momentum and this combination of spin and torque causes μ to precess around the direction of B0. Precession is a type of rotational motion that is completely different from the spinning of the proton about its own axis. During precession, the proton MDMs travel on the surface of two cones whose axes are in the direction of the external magnetic field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is precessional frequency?

A

The rate at which the gyroscope precesses about the direction of the gravitational field G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is v in the larmor equation?

A

proton/Larmor precessional frequency -When the gyromagnetic ratio and the magnetic field strength are expressed in their SI units, the unit of the Larmor frequency is the hertz; it expresses the number of precessional rotations per second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the larmor processional frequency directly related to?

A

The Larmor precessional frequency is directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is magnetisation?

A

Magnetisation is the net MDM density (MDM per unit volume) and it is a property of the material (in this case human tissue), whereas MDM is a property of the magnet (in this case proton).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can the MDM vector μ be decomposed further?

A

μ2 in the direction of B0 and a component μ1 perpendicular to B0

the μ2 components generate a longitudinal magnetisation M along the direction of B0

the μ1 components are in random phases (they do not have phase coherence) and they are rotating due to precession (dashed arrows) - they cancel out and so there is zero transverse magnetisation in the plane perpendicular to B0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do you increase NMR signal strength?

A

increase magnetisation
the only practical way to do this is increase the size of the static field - ie increase the T of the coil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the net magnetisation?

A

Their net magnetisation (M) is in the direction of the main field and is sometimes called the ‘equilibrium magnetisation’. The amount of magnetisation in the direction of the main magnetic field (the B0 direction) is 100% in this equilibrium condition and so we say the spins have 100% longitudinal magnetisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why can’t we measure M in the z axis/

A

we cannot measure longitudinal magnetisation directly because M is in the same direction as B0 (the Z direction) and many orders of magnitude smaller than B0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is excitation?

A

tip over the magnetisation by typically 90° to convert it into transverse magnetisation and then measure that. This is called excitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is resonance?

A

We can tip or ‘flip’ the magnetisation over by applying a rapidly oscillating magnetic field at 90° to the B0 field (i.e. in the X or Y directions). However, the varying field will only flip the spins if it oscillates at the same frequency as the precession of the spins (i.e. the Larmor precessional frequency); this is what we mean by ‘resonance’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the RF field normally referred to as?

A

B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What trajectory does the magnetisation follow when in B1 field?

A

can be thought of as alternately pushing and pulling at the magnetisation, progressively tilting it away from the B0 direction. The magnetisation follows a spiral trajectory until it is precessing (or rotating) in the plane at right angles to the B0 field (in the transverse plane (the XY plane))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the loss of transverse magnestisation called?

A

T2 relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T or F:
Immediately after a 90° pulse-
A. 100% of equilibrium magnetisation is recovered
B. Longitudinal magnetisation falls to 0%
C. Transverse magnetisation falls to 0%
D. Transverse magnetisation increases to 100%

A

A. F
B. T
C. F
D. T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 5 steps of relaxation after a 90 degree RF pulse?

A
  1. The longitudinal equilibrium magnetisation has now been flipped into the transverse plane. Immediately after the RF pulse, all the spins that contribute to the magnetisation are precessing at the same frequency and are in phase
  2. Some spins immediately start to precess more slowly than others - The spins are no longer in phase. This causes the transverse magnetisation to decrease.
  3. As time goes on, there is a greater and greater phase dispersion of the transverse components of the spin MDMs and the transverse magnetisation continues to decrease
  4. Finally, there is no net phase coherence and therefore no net magnetisation in the transverse plane
  5. At the same time as the spins precess and lose phase coherence, they also begin to reorient themselves along the longitudinal (Z) direction. Eventually the full longitudinal magnetisation is recovered, i.e. the spins return to their equilibrium condition.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens to the received magnetisation signal after 90 degree RF pulse?

A

Immediately after the 90° pulse there is 100% transverse magnetisation. This high-amplitude magnetic field that is precessing (rotating) at the Larmor frequency will induce a high-amplitude oscillating voltage in the receiver coil at the same frequency.

However, as phase coherence is lost, the strength of this transverse magnetisation will diminish and so too will the high amplitude of the induced voltage in the receiver coil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is free induction decay?

A

the high-amplitude oscillating voltage in the receiver coil at the same frequency. Varying voltage signals such as the FID are the raw data from which all MR images are reconstructed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why do spins dephase?

A

each hydrogen nucleus itself acts as a tiny magnet because of its electric charge and spin. It therefore produces a tiny magnetic field which will affect the field experienced by adjacent nuclei. This tiny field may add to, or subtract from, the field produced by the MRI scanner and this changes the larmor frequency of the proton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is spin-spin relaxation time?

A

spin-spin relaxation time is the time constant of the FID fall-off. Also called the transverse relaxation time or T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is T2* and why does this occur?

A

The real situation, in which the envelope of the FID is a steeper decreasing exponential curve with time constant T2*. The reason for this is imperfections in the static B0 field produced by the MRI scanner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do we overcome the effects of T2*?

A

by using spin echo sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does a spin echo sequence work?

A

Stage 1: immediately after the 90° pulse the spins start to dephase due to spin-spin interaction and the field imperfections
Stage 2: some spins therefore gain phase compared to others and so the phase angle between them increases.
Stage 3: A second RF pulse is applied. this is a 180° pulse.
Stage 4: this has the effect of flipping the whole transverse plane through 180°. The spins are still precessing counter-clockwise, but now the slower precessing spins have gained phase compared to the faster spins
Stage 5: at a certain time referred to as TE (the echo time, or time to echo) the two spins will be back in phase creating a detectable signal (the echo) whose amplitude is unaffected by main magnetic field inhomogeneities. and any loss of transverse magnetisation over the time period TE will be due to the ‘pure’ T2 of the spins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T or F:
Immediately after the 180° refocusing pulse -
A. Equilibrium magnetisation is fully restored
B. 100% transverse magnetisation is restored
C. The transverse magnetisation is greater than immediately after the 90° pulse
D. The transverse magnetisation is greater than at the echo time (TE)

A

A. F
B. F
C. F
D. F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is spin-lattice relaxation time?

A

recover of longitudinal magnetisation over time described by an increasing exponential curve that approaches a limiting value, the equilibrium magnetisation M, with a time constant T1, the spin-lattice relaxation time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which is always bigger t1 or t2?

A

T1 is always greater than T2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How can we measure variance in T1 time?

A

we allow the longitudinal magnetisation to partially recover before repeating our spin echo sequence. The second spin echo converts the partially recovered longitudinal magnetisation into measurable transverse magnetisation. If, for example, the longitudinal magnetisation has recovered by only 45% of its equilibrium value, this will be converted to 45% of maximum transverse magnetisation.

The time between the first 90° pulse and the second in the repeated sequence is called the repetition time (TR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the difference in lesions in T1 and T2?

A

images based on T2, lesions tend to appear brighter than normal tissues, whilst in images based on T1 they will appear darker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why do we weight towards T1 or T2 rather than equally weighting?

A

if T1 and T2 effects contribute equally to the signal that lesions will be isointense with normal tissue and therefore undetectable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do we weight to T1?

A

Reduce TR to maximise T1 contrast (i.e. TR about 500 ms)
Reduce TE to the lowest achievable on the MRI scanner in order to minimise T2 contributions.
The nomenclature for a typical T1W spin echo (SE) sequence would be: SE 500/5 ms (TR/TE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do we weight to T2?

A

Increase TR to minimise T1 contribution. In an ideal world we could make this 15 seconds or more, by which time even CSF with its very long T1 of 3 seconds would have recovered nearly all its longitudinal magnetisation. However, as we will see in later sessions, we need to repeat these sequences perhaps many hundreds of times in order to build up image information. Generally speaking, patients do not stay still for more than about 8 minutes. With a ‘conventional’ SE pulse sequence, in order to obtain an image resolution of 256 pixels we need to make 256 repetitions; this means a maximum repetition time of about 2 seconds
Increase TE to maximise T2 contribution
A typical T2W spin echo sequence would have the nomenclature:

SE 2000/80 ms (TR/TE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How do we weight for proton density?

A

Increase TR to minimise T1 contributions (up to a practical limit of about 2000 ms in a conventional SE sequence)
Reduce TE as much as practicable to minimise T2 contribution (i.e. a TE of about 5 ms)
A PD SE sequence would therefore be:

SE 2000/5 ms (TR/TE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does proton density sequences measure

A

an index of how many hydrogen nuclei there are per unit volume of tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why are relaxation times for tumours normally higher than those of normal tissue?

A

because they usually contain more unbound water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why can fat be a problem in MRI?

A

fat has an unusually short T1 but a reasonably high T2. This means that it produces high signal in both T1 and T2-weighted images. It is for this reason that a number of strategies have been developed to reduce or eliminate signal from fat as the high signal can otherwise obscure pathology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What makes a T1 long or short?

A

In a pure liquid, molecules are tumbling rapidly and freely:
Molecules have little time to interact with each other
T1 is long

In viscous liquids, water binds to less mobile macromolecules (this is the nearest to soft tissues in the body):
It is easier to transfer energy
T1 is short

In solids, molecules are relatively fixed, so there is a reduced chance of their coming close enough for an energy exchange:
T1 is long again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What makes a T2 long or short?

A

In liquids, spins are tumbling end over end, so the magnetic fields they produce tend to even out, and therefore cause less perturbation to other spins:
There is little net change in local magnetic field
There is reduced spin-spin interaction
T2 is long

In solids, molecules are fixed. Therefore, the local field is fixed:
Local field variations are therefore significant
Spins dephase
T2 is short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

If an SE 15 000/1 ms sequence was used to image the brain, which of the following weightings would it most likely represent?

A

PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the 5 steps in acquiring a gradient-echo sequence?

A
  1. RF pulse
  2. Slice selection
  3. phase encoding
  4. frequency encoding
  5. sequence repetition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is involved in slice selection?

A

To excite protons in a particular slice, it is necessary to apply the RF(read a full definition of this term) pulse in the presence of a slice-select gradient. Note that the area of the negative lobe of the gradient is equal to half the area of the positive lobe - this ensures that phase coherence is maintained within the image slice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is involved in Phase encoding?

A

it is necessary to repeat the pulse sequence a number of times (typically 256 or 512) in order to build up an image with that equivalent number of data lines, or pixels. Each time the sequence is repeated, a different phase-encode gradient strength is used. For example, the strength of this gradient may commence with a large positive value and gradually be decremented each time the sequence is repeated until a large negative value is reached. Each ‘rung on the ladder’ represents a phase-encoding gradient of a particular strength, and this is shown schematically in the pulse sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is involved in frequency encoding?

A

The frequency-encoding gradient is applied after each step of the phase-encode gradient. and it is during the application of the frequency-encode gradient that the MRI signal is ‘read’. In fact the frequency-encode gradient is often referred to as ‘read’ gradient. Again, the area of the negative lobe of the gradient is equal to half of the area of the positive lobe - this ensures that phase coherence is optimised at the central point of the frequency encoding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the Echo time of a sequence?

A

The echo time (TE) is the time taken from the RF(read a full definition of this term) pulse to the MRI signal, or echo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the TR time?

A

The repetition time (TR) is the length of time between one RF(read a full definition of this term) excitation pulse and the next one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How can the length of time for a scan be calculated?

A

If the TR is known, then the length of time taken to complete the sequence can be calculated. The scan time is equal to the TR value (typically 500-3000 ms) multiplied by the number of phase encode steps required (typically 256 or 512).

Also, if more than one signal average is required then the scan time will increase. Two signal averages will take twice as long to acquire, three signal averages will take three times as long to acquire, and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In a spin echo sequence where is the 180 degree pulse positioned?

A

The 180° pulse is positioned exactly half way between the initial RF pulse and the time at which the signal is acquired, in other words the 180° pulse is applied at a time equal to TE/2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the problem with SE sequences?

A

generally take longer to implement than GE sequences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is an inversion recovery sequence?

A

An IR pulse sequence is really very similar to a GE or an SE sequence, except that a 180° ‘inversion pulse’ is applied at the start of the sequence. The effect of this 180° pulse is to flip (invert) the equilibrium magnetisation in the z direction. As soon as this has occurred, T1 recovery processes begin. In the sequence, a delay time TI (time from inversion) is built in to allow the scanner operator to control the resulting contrast that is based on the T1 recovery rates of tissues. Following the application of an inversion pulse and an appropriate TI delay, a GE(read a full definition of this term) or an SE(read a full definition of this term) sequence is run.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is a STIR sequence?

A

Short Tau inversion recovery - Looking more closely at the exponential recovery of the longitudinal magnetisation for two example tissues, e.g. fat and water, it can be seen that the (short T1) fat magnetisation passes across the TI axis – known as the null point - earlier than the (long T1) water magnetisation. At this specific TI time (approximately 130 ms at 1.5 T) there will be no longitudinal fat magnetisation available for the subsequent sequence and the resulting images will contain no fat signal. This is known as a STIR sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is a FLAIR sequence?

A

Fluid attenuation inversion recovery - water magnetisation passes across the TI axis (null point) later than the fat magnetisation. At this specific TI time (approximately 2500 ms at 1.5 T) there will be no longitudinal water magnetisation available for the subsequent sequence and the resulting images will contain no water signal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

T or F Regarding a GE pulse sequence:
A. RF pulses are separated by a time interval TE
B. An echo signal is acquired when a frequency-encoding gradient is applied
C. One phase-encoding gradient is used
D. The slice-selection gradient has two positive lobes
E. TR is the rise time of the RF pulse

A

A. F. RF(read a full definition of this term) pulses are separated by a time interval TR(read a full definition of this term).

B. T. Because it accompanies signal acquisition, the frequency-encoding gradient is also called the read or read-out gradient.

C. F. Typically, 256 or 512 phase-encoding gradients are used to produce one image.

D. F. The slice-selection gradient has a positive and a negative lobe; the area of the negative lobe is equal to half that of the positive lobe to preserve phase coherence.

E. F. TR(read a full definition of this term) is the interval between successive RF(read a full definition of this term) pulses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

T or F Regarding an SE pulse sequence: A. A 180° RF pulse is used to invert the longitudinal magnetisation
B. The image acquisition time is shorter than that for a GE sequence
C. An echo is formed after a time interval TI
D. TR is twice as long as TE
E. The image acquisition time is the product of TR and the number of phase-encoding gradients

A

A. False. The longitudinal magnetisation has already been tipped into the transverse plane by a 90° RFpulse; the 180° RFpulse re-phases the magnetisation in the transverse plane.

B.False. The use of a re-phasing RF pulse means that, in general, the acquisition time is longer than that of a GE sequence.

C.False. An echo is formed at a time TE after the 90° RF pulse and a time TE/2 after the 180° RF pulse.

D. False . TR and TE are set independently by the MRI scanner operator; it is possible that TR could be twice as long as TE but, in general, it is longer than 2TE.

E. Correct. With no image averaging, the acquisition time is TR multiplied by the number of phase-encoding gradients that are used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the metal related sources of hazard with MRI?

A

The ferromagnetic missile effect on extraneous metal

Migration/rotation of metal implants or fragments in the body

Current induction and heating of extraneous metal

Current induction and heating of implanted devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What measures can help to guard against the ferromagnetic missile effect in an MR unit?

A

All patients and staff must be checked (‘sifted’) for ferromagnetic material before entering the Controlled Access Area

In some centres all patients are required to change out of street clothes into gowns or surgical ‘greens’ in order to ensure no clips or pins or coins are hidden in their clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What measures can help to guard against the migration/rotation of metal implants in an MR unit?

A

the ‘Safety Checklist’
to ascertain if the patient, and any attending staff member, have potentially hazardous implants or fragments of metal in their bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How can burns come about in MRI?

A

the resonant antenna effect, whereby the MR’s radiofrequency (RF) pulses set up a standing voltage wave in the metal if the length is equivalent to the half wavelength of the RF radiation.

If this happens, the tips of wires eg ecg/pulse oximetry can undergo rapid heating and burn the patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the risks with cardiac pacemakers in MRI fields?

A

cardiac pacemakers or implanted defibrillators can malfunction when exposed to the fields of MR.

The pacemaker, its leads and the myocardium itself form a single conductive circuit. If this system happens to ‘tune’ to the frequency of the RF radiation, currents will be induced in the circuit. This may cause the heart to contract. With the MR often firing scores of RF pulses a second, there will not be sufficient time between contractions and little blood will be pumped

The resonant antenna effect may be responsible, with induced currents in the tips of the wires heating up where they are in contact with the myocardium and thus causing burns and thermal shock

Batteries and/or implant casings may be ferromagnetic and so may undergo migration and torque

The electromagnetic fields may cause electronic circuitry to malfunction

If the circuitry controls a drug reservoir in an implanted pump then there might be the danger of the whole reservoir being rapidly discharged into the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Who publishes guidlenes for MRI safety?

A

Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What do the MHRA MRI safety guidelines include?

A

Setting up a Controlled Access Area

Designation of staff who may be involved with MR and their different training requirements

The use of a checklist or questionnaire for those who enter the high magnetic field environment

Writing Local Rules detailing safe working practices in the high magnetic field environment including the control of equipment

The safety of different types of medical implant

Procedures in the event of emergency situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the 2 different lines or zones within the MRI controlled areas?

A

the 5 gauss line - the boundary outside which it is considered safe for people with implants such as cardiac pacemakers.

MR Projectile Zone -In the MR Environment, the volume within the 3 mT magnetic field contour, where the risk of the ferromagnetic missile effect is considerable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is important to clarify with implanted devices for MRI safety?

A

important to establish the make and model of the implant, as well as the manufacturer. The MR safety of any implant should be established by consulting the manufacturer about the particular make and model and its MR compatibility or otherwise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Are orthopaedic implants MRI safe?

A

generally made of a sufficiently high quality surgical steel that they have no significant ferromagnetic component. Nevertheless heat can be generated by the RF field of the MRI scanner. For this reason, patients need to be carefully monitored throughout their time in the magnet room, and need to be warned to press the emergency ‘call’ button if they feel the slightest discomfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Why can cerebral aneurysm clips be unsafe in MRI?

A

although “non-ferromagnetic” they undergo a sterilisation process which ay encourage the build-up of ferromagnetic ‘domains’ in the metal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

WHat must happen if the patient arrests in MRI?

A

the patient must always be removed from the magnet room, and preferably from the Controlled Area, before being made accessible to the crash team. Often they may bring a ferromagnetic trolley carrying many ferromagnetic objects and devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How do you turn off the magnetic field in an emergency?

A

Superconducting quench - If the coil temperature rises above the superconductivity threshold, the windings suddenly develop a finite resistance. The several-dozen amperes of circulating current passing through this elevated coil resistance create heat. This heat causes a sudden, explosive boil-off of liquid helium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What can be dangerous about quenching an MRI machine?

A

Quenches present certain hazards to staff. Though not toxic, the gaseous helium will displace oxygen and so there is the danger of asphyxia. The gases are also very cold. As such the area should be evacuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the three modes of operation for an MRI machine?

A

Normal mode, which encompasses routine procedures in which the risk to the individual is minimal

Controlled mode, in which the exposure is greater and imaging performance improved.

Research/experimental mode, for which exposure is usually greater still and needs to be restricted to prevent harmful effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Why is the effect of B0 (static magnetic field) normally very low on humans?

A

tissues of the body are primarily diamagnetic in nature and this means they are only very weakly ‘magnetisable’. Effects in strong fields is still possible though

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What can humans experience in fields of over 2T?

A

At fields of 2T or greater, humans can experience certain sensations including vertigo, dizziness, nausea and a metallic taste in the mouth; sensitivity to these effects varies between individuals. The effects are usually associated with head motion and may be caused by currents being induced in the semi-circular canals as they move through the magnetic field, thereby ‘cutting’ the magnetic lines of force and so inducing electric currents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What effects can the gradient fields cause?

A

Though the gradients produce maximum fields that are not as strong as the static field, perhaps a fiftieth of the value, their rapidly-changing nature means that they will induce electrical fields and hence currents in conductive materials, such as the tissues of the human body.

it is possible for the induced currents to cause PNS and muscle stimulation. This usually manifests itself as muscular twitching. Cardiac stimulation or epileptic fits might possibly result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the minimum threshold for inducing PNS symptoms?

A

20 Ts-1 is regarded as the minimum threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the effects of the RF wave on tissues in the body?

A

the effect of the RF is power dissipation in the tissues of the body and their subsequent heating. Heat generated in tissue is usually compensated by thermoregulation, where dilation of the vasculature increases blood flow and so allows the heat to be carried away and dissipated via the skin and exhaled breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which tissues in the body deal less well with increase in temperature and are heat sensitive?

A

These include the eyes, which have little blood flow and the testes which should be at a lower temperature than the rest of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What measures heat energy transfer to the patient in MR?

A

In MRI, the specific absorption rate (SAR) is used as a measure of the amount of energy per unit time (power) deposited per unit mass of tissue in the patient or subject by the RF field. The usual units are watt per kilogram (Wkg-1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the limits for temperature rise for the whole body with MR?

A

Normal - 0.5 for whole body
controlled - 1
research - 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

In normal mode what are the max temperatures for the head, trunk and limbs?

A

head 38
trunk 39
limbs 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the patient whole body SAR limits with MR?

A

Normal 2
controlled 4
research >4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does the SAR depend on?

A

a number of factors including the static magnetic field strength, the type of pulse sequence, its timing characteristics, the number of repetitions, the number of slices and the output power in each RF pulse.

105
Q

How is SAR roughly estimated?

A

fire a few test pulses of a certain power and measure the returned signal. It will take the patient’s weight (which the operator must input before the scan starts) and calculates the energy absorption of the body.

106
Q

Why do patients wear ear guards for MRI?

A

MR systems operating at 1.5 T produce noise levels in the range 80-110 dB(A). Clinically significant temporary shifts in hearing threshold may occur at 85 dB(A) and above

107
Q

What are the staff MR exposure limits?

A

should not be exposed to static magnetic fields in excess of 2 T to the head and trunk, which is half the value for patients in normal operating mode, and 8 T to the hands and limbs

the change in field strength should not exceed 2 T in a time period of 3 s

108
Q

What are the public MR exposure limits?

A

the acute exposure limit for the direct effects of static fields is 400 mT to any part of the body

the MR Environment contains the 0.5 mT contour and so the field strength outside this region would be much less than the exposure limit.

109
Q

What are the staff SAR exposure limits?

A

the whole body SAR exposure limit is 0.4 Wkg-1 whereas the local SAR exposure limit for head and trunk is 10 Wkg-1 and that for limbs is 20 Wkg-1. The whole-body SAR is averaged over 30 minutes while the local SARs are averaged over 6 minutes and 10 g of tissue.

only workers very close to the magnet during scanning might be subject to exposures approaching the limits and heating is very unlikely to occur in staff outside the imaging volume

110
Q

Above what level must staff wear ear protection?

A

85 dB(A)

111
Q

How should MR be changed in pregnancy?

A

optimised pulse sequence that minimises RF radiation and acoustic noise exposure.

Where possible, gradients should be switched to reduced acoustic noise mode (e.g. ‘whisper’ or ‘soft tone’). Longer pulse repetition time, reduced image resolution, increased slice width and larger field of view all reduce the rate of change of gradient fields and thus the acoustic noise generated.

a pregnant member of staff should not remain in the MR Environment whilst scanning is underway, to reduce the possibility of foetal exposure to EMFs and, in particular, to acoustic noise

112
Q

Is Gadolinium toxic?

A

Yes - The safety of gadolinium (Gd) contrast agents depends on the stability of the chelate as gadolinium itself is very toxic. At least 9 serious anaphylactoid reactions and 1 death are known to have occurred.

113
Q

How is a T1W image obtained?

A

by carefully considering the recovery of the proton longitudinal magnetisation for each tissue. By changing the repitition time with knowledge of tissue T1 relaxation times this can be manipulated to derive different signal intensities from the two tissues and therefore optimise the contrast between them. eg short TR for contast between CSF (T1 recovery 4000ms, WM 700ms)

114
Q

What do we take as T1 recovery time for a tissue?

A

T1 is the time when the signal has reached 63% of its final (maximal) value.

115
Q

How is a T2W image obtained?

A

by carefully considering the decay of the proton transverse magnetisation for each tissue. Can choose a TE at a point in time where there is maximal difference between the transverse decay curves for each tissue, and have therefore introduced T2 weighting. A longer echo time allows tissues with shorter T2 decay times to lose signal whereas longer T2 tissues will still retain tissue

116
Q

What do we take as T2 recovery time for a tissue?

A

the T2 value for each tissue is defined as the time taken for the transverse magnetisation to decay to roughly 37% of its original value.

117
Q

What is T2 weighted images good for generally?

A

highlighting tissues with an elevated free-fluid content - often this is typical of pathological lesions such as tumours.

118
Q

What is T1 weighted images good for generally?

A

anatomical detail

119
Q

Why do we need a Short TE as well as short TR to get a T1W image?

A

T1 recovery and T2 decay processes are occurring simultaneously (but independently), and so it is important to consider the effect of each relaxation parameter in parallel. we also need to use a short TE in order to minimise any T2 weighting in the image.

120
Q

What do you get if you take images with a long TR and short TE?

A

the resulting image should contain very little T1 weighting or T2 weighting. In this situation, the contrast information is primarily based on the proton density of the tissues, and is therefore referred to as PDW imaging.

121
Q

What tissue has both the longest T1 and T2 times?

A

CSF

122
Q

What has the shortest T2 time?

A

muscle

123
Q

What has the shortest T1 time?

A

Fat

124
Q

When might a different flip angle be used?

A

In GE imaging The resulting contrast is heavily dependent on this choice of flip angle

125
Q

What happens when you use a small flip angle?

A

a large longitudinal magnetisation component is retained and this recovers back to equilibrium very quickly.

As a result, it is not really possible to observe T1-based differences in the recovery curves for different tissues

126
Q

In GE imaging what weighting does a short TR, short TE and small flip angle give you?

A

proton-density weighting

127
Q

What happens when you use a large flip angle?

A

only a small longitudinal magnetisation component is retained.

There is therefore more scope for differences in T1 recovery between the different tissues to become apparent and the resulting image will be T1 weighted

128
Q

In GE imaging what weighting does a short TR, long TE and small flip angle give you?

A

T2* weighting

129
Q

In GE imaging what weighting does a short TR, short TE and large flip angle give you?

A

T1 weighting

130
Q

What is the Ernst angle and what is it affected by?

A

the optimal flip angle to use (Ernst angle θ) is governed by a relationship between the sequence TR and the tissue T1 relaxation time. although the Ernst angle may provide maximum signal intensity on a SPGR sequence for a single tissue, it does not necessarily maximise the contrast between two different tissues.

131
Q

What is spoiled gradient echo sequence?

A

where any residual transverse magnetisation is removed at the end of each TR. Other names for this type of sequence include fast low-angle shot (FLASH) and T1-fast field echo (T1-FFE).

132
Q

How does Inversion recovery work?

A

inversion recovery consists of a 180° inversion pulse followed by a delay time TI before implementation of a conventional MRI sequence (usually an SE. The delay time TI is critical in determining the relative contrast, e.g. between tissues that contain fat and those that contain water. The contrast generated by inversion recovery is dependent on the TI value being carefully chosen in order that the longitudinal component of the magnetisation is selectively removed whilst other tissues still have significant longitudinal magnetisation component present to generate subsequent transverse magnetisation.

133
Q

When is STIR particularly useful?

A

musculoskeletal applications where removal of fatty tissue signal may be required (e.g. detection of bone bruises).

134
Q

What is FLAIR and what is it useful for?

A

if a TI time of approximately 2500 ms is chosen, then the resulting image will contain signal from fatty tissue but not from fluid-based tissue. FLAIR sequences are useful for highlighting plaques in multiple sclerosis brain examinations.

135
Q

Where does noise predominantly come from in MRI?

A

Noise in an MRI image primarily comes from the RF coil and receiver system and the patients themselves

136
Q

How can noise from external RF signals be minimised?

A

adequate RF shielding (e.g. the screened room or Faraday cage).

137
Q

How can noise from the RF coil and receiver system be minimised?

A

use of appropriately designed RF instrumentation

138
Q

What happens to contrast as size of the object is reduced?

A

As the size of an object is reduced, it will retain its full contrast until its size matches the image pixel size.

When it becomes smaller than the pixel size, its contrast decreases and eventually the contrast falls below the threshold for perception. Objects may still be perceived even though they are smaller than the pixel size; this is more likely for inherently bright (high contrast) objects than an inherently dark (low contrast) objects

139
Q

What does the contrast of an object fall when it gets smaller than a pixel?

A

the signal from it will be ‘averaged out’ over the background and the resulting pixel will appear as relatively less bright

140
Q

What effect will doubling the image resolution have on the image?

A

halving the pixel size but SNR reduced by a factor of 4

141
Q

What happens if you halve the thickness slice?

A

SNR reduced by factor of 2

142
Q

What happens if you reduce receiver bandwidth by factor 2?

A

SNR Increased by factor of 1.4 (√2)

143
Q

What happens if you double the number of signal averages (NEX)?

A

SNR Increased by factor of 1.4 (√2)

144
Q

What happens if you double the number of phase encode steps?

A

SNR Increased by factor of 1.4 (√2)

145
Q

What is the equation for Contrast-to-noise ratio?

A

CNR= (Sa – Sb)/N

146
Q

Why is slice thickness important between different size lesions?

A

If the image slice thickness is thicker than the lesion and the voxel containing the lesion also has a component from the surrounding tissue a proportion of the lesion pixel signal is due to surrounding tissue; this is the partial volume effect. As a consequence, contrast between the lesion and the tissue is slightly reduced

147
Q

What is a localiser image?

A

this might consist of 21 images in three planes in a short time of about 24 seconds. These images have low spatial resolution and a large field of view. They are equivalent to ‘scout views’ in CT and are used for positioning the slices in the main clinical protocol.

148
Q

Is it the case that in an SE sequence, transverse magnetisation dephasing is refocused by a 180° RF(read a full definition of this term) pulse, and this allows T2*W images to be obtained?

A

False - A 180° pulse is able to refocus the transverse magnetisation dephasing, but this will result in T2W(read a full definition of this term) (not T2*W) images.

149
Q

What does tomographic mean?

A

the image you see is taken from a thin slice through the object being scanned

150
Q

What is the relationship between pixel size, Field of view and Matrix size?

A

pixel size = FOV/matrix size

151
Q

How is possible to have different resolutions in horizontal and vertical directions?

A

using rectangular FOVs or a rectangular matrix.

152
Q

What is the partial volume effect?

A

if the slice is thick enough, such that two or more tissues are within the imaging slice, the pixel value will be an average of the contributing tissues within the slice. it will reduce contrast and make small objects difficult to see.

153
Q

What is a sinc pulse?

A

RF pulse with a particular shape - The sinc shape is that of the pulse envelope

154
Q

What are mixed together to make an RF pulse?

A

from an envelope function (the pulse shape) and a sine wave oscillating at the Larmor frequency.

155
Q

What is the difference between characteristic time and pulse duration?

A

Characteristic time is the width of some feature in the function (e.g. for a sinc function, this characteristic time is the width of the central lobe) whereas the pulse duration is the time for the whole envelope (theoretically infinite)

156
Q

What is bandwidth?

A

Because the carrier wave is shaped by the envelope function, the resulting RF pulse actually contains a range of frequencies, rather than just one at the Larmor frequency. This range of frequencies also has a shape and a characteristic frequency range (bandwidth)

157
Q

What is the relationship between pulse duration and bandwidth?

A

There is an inverse relationship between pulse duration and bandwidth. If one goes up, the other goes down and vice-versa.

158
Q

What is the difference between frequency and phase of a signal?

A

The frequency is defined as the number of peaks counted in some time interval. Phase is the position of the peaks relative to some reference, usually another wave.

159
Q

WHat happens to the MR signal of an object if a gradient is applied to it?

A

it decreases - the MR signal oscillates at the Larmor frequency. When a gradient is applied, the Larmor frequency of the MR signals from the apple will vary with position. The total MR signal picked up by the detector will decrease over time as the individual signals go out of phase with each other. The amount of dephasing will depend upon the gradient strength and its duration (effectively the area under the gradient on a pulse sequence diagram).

160
Q

How is a slice selected in MRI?

A

Gradient fields change the larmour frequency which vary with position in relation to the field. As such only spins at the larmour frequency will be in a narrow plane at right angles to the gradient.

Specific RF pulses at the larmour frequency will only excite those in the narrow field.

161
Q

How are different scanning planes achieved in MRI?

A

the Z gradient acts as a slice selection gradient and the slices are in the transverse (axial) plane. Using the X gradient as the slice selection gradient would give sagittal slices while using the Y gradient in this way would give coronal slices. Furthermore, it is possible to use a combination of gradients to produce slices in any plane; this flexibility is one of the advantages of MRI.

162
Q

What is the rephasing gradient?

A

At the end of the RF pulse, the MR signal needs to be put back into phase. This is achieved using a ‘rephasing gradient’, applied in the opposite sense to the gradient used during slice selection.

163
Q

How can slice width be affected?

A

by the pulse duration (i.e. bandwidth), Larmor frequency and the strength of the gradient

164
Q

What happens to slice width if you decrease bandwidth?

A

smaller slice

165
Q

What happens if you increase the gradient strength of the field?

A

smaller slice

166
Q

What happens if you increase larmor frequency?

A

move the slice Up (if in axial)

167
Q

T or F - Regarding the factors that affect slice properties:
A. Increasing the pulse duration increases the bandwidth
B. Increasing the pulse duration reduces the slice thickness
C. Reducing the gradient strength reduces the slice thickness
D. Decreasing the Larmor frequency of the carrier wave moves the slice to the left
E. The thinnest slices can be obtained using high gradient strengths and long RF pulses
F. For a slice that is off-centre, increasing the gradient strength has no effect on the slice position

A

A. False
B. True
C. False
D. True
E. True
F. False

Pulse duration is inversely proportional to bandwidth. Thus, increasing the pulse duration decreases the slice thickness. A stronger gradient (steeper line) reduces the slice thickness and changing the Larmor frequency will move the slice. Changing the gradient strength for an off-centre slice will alter both the slice thickness and position. On a clinical MRI scanner, the user would select the required slice thickness and position, and the computer would calculate the required RF and gradient parameters automatically.

168
Q

What properties are used to localise signal from within a slice?

A

utilising properties of the received signal, such as frequency and phase.
A read-out gradient is applied by acquiring the MR signal in the presence of a gradient, such that the Larmor frequency of the MR signal will depend upon position along the gradient.

169
Q

What is gradient echo?

A

One of the consequences of applying the gradient is that the MR signals dephase. There is a small but finite amount of time before the MR signal can be collected, and in this time, a large reduction in the signal can occur. To get around this, the MR signals are deliberately dephased using a gradient with the opposite sense to the read-out gradient.

This means the read-out gradient is rephasing the MR signals, such that at some point during the acquisition of the data, they all come back into phase and maximum total signal is detected. This is called a gradient-echo

170
Q

How are individual frequencies extracted from the total MR signal?

A

Fourier transform - The FT takes the data that has been acquired over time, extracts the frequencies and outputs a plot of the height (or amplitude) of the individual frequencies against frequency

171
Q

How is MR signal digitised?

A

sampling by an analogue-to digital converter (ADC). - ‘looks’ at the height of the MR signal at regular intervals at a given sampling time/sampling frequency

172
Q

How are sampling and pixels related?

A

The number of samples will equal the pixels on the final image.

173
Q

What is aliasing in MRI?

A

where high frequencies may appear as low frequencies due to sampling

174
Q

Why is aliasing an issue in MRI?

A

Since the MR signal frequency relates to spatial position, aliasing causes the MR signal to be assigned to the wrong position in the final image.

175
Q

what is the rule with sampling to reduce aliasing?

A

you must sample at twice the maximum frequency contained within the MR signal; this is called the Nyquist criterion.

176
Q

What is the nyquist frequency?

A

The maximum frequency that can be accurately digitised is called the Nyquist frequency; it is equal to half the sampling frequency.

177
Q

How is the nyquist criterion not broken?

A

the range of frequencies is limited prior to sampling, using something called a ‘band-pass’ filter. The frequency range the band-pass filter will allow through is called the receiver bandwidth.

178
Q

How is the field of view set in MRI?

A

The FOV in the frequency-encoding direction will be defined by the receiver bandwidth range of frequencies

179
Q

How is spatial localisation performed in Y axis?

A

utilise the phase of the MR signal. Done by applying a phase-encoding gradient for a short time before the readout period. The short application of gradient changes the oscillation speed for a period and then they oscillate at the same speed again but at different phases after gradient turned off

180
Q

Why are multiple phase encoding gradients required in practise?

A

A single phase-encoding gradient is not sufficient to determine the vertical position of the MR signal. Measuring the phase is very difficult since it is not absolute, but relative to some reference. There are also other factors (e.g. inhomogeneities in the main magnetic field) that can also change the phase of the MR signal, resulting in positional errors

181
Q

What happens to the multiple phase encoding signals?

A

frequencies can be extracted using an FT in the same way as that done for frequency encoding.

182
Q

How can aliasing effect phase encoding?

A

waves from regions outside the FOV produces an identical wave to those inside FOV Thus, signal from outside the FOV aliases back into the FOV on the other side of the image.

183
Q

What is phase wrap around?

A

where some anatomy at the edge of the FOV appears on the other side of the image eg a nose at the back of the head.

184
Q

How can you reduce pahse encoding aliasing?

A

it may be eliminated by increasing the FOV in the phase-encoding direction, at the cost of poorer spatial resolution.

185
Q

In MRI raw data what information is encoded in each row and column?

A

Each row contains the data obtained during frequency encoding. Successive rows are filled by repeating the MR acquisition with different phase-encoding gradient strengths. The phase-encoding gradient is usually stepped from a large negative value through zero to a large positive value.

A column in the raw data represents a single frequency-encoding sampling point at different phase-encoding steps. Thus, a vertical column is the sum of the phase change waves built up by successive phase-encoding steps.

186
Q

What is k space?

A

k-space is a concept used to describe positions in the raw data array; indeed, it can be considered as the raw data array itself.

187
Q

How is k-space related to the final image?

A

via the FT

188
Q

What does the centre of the k space encode?

A

the contrast information for the final image (i.e. it defines the regions of light and dark).

189
Q

What does the outer part of the k space encode?

A

correspond to the raw data that contains the detail information i.e. defines the boundaries between tissues.

190
Q

How can the FOV in the frequency encoding direction be changed?

A

defined by the maximum and minimum frequencies contained within the MR signal. This is defined by the receiver bandwidth and translated into the FOV via the gradient.

191
Q

What does changing matrix size change?

A

simply involves taking more data samples. However, this will extend the time of data acquisition, which may change other parameters such as the repetition time (TR) and echo time (TE).

192
Q

Say you wanted to double the matrix size in the frequency-encode direction while keeping the MR signal acquisition time and FOV constant. What would you need to change?
A. Receive bandwidth only
B. Frequency-encoding gradient strength only
C. Both receive bandwidth and frequency-encoding gradient strength

A

The correct answer is C.

You should change both receive bandwidth and frequency-encoding gradient strength.

In order to acquire twice as many data samples in the same time, you need to halve the time between samples. Therefore, the bandwidth must be doubled (recall that bandwidth is related to the inverse of the time between samples). However, doubling the bandwidth will double the FOV; to keep the FOV constant, the frequency-encoding gradient strength needs to be doubled.

193
Q

How is FOV controlled in phase encoding direction?

A

the phase-encoding increment (i.e. the increase in the area under the gradient between successive phase-encoding steps). Increasing the phase-encoding increment will have the effect of reducing the FOV. However, this may result in phase aliasing.

194
Q

How can phase-encoding increment be changed?

A

either increasing the gradient strength or the gradient duration as the phase shift depends upon both of these properties.

195
Q

T or F - Concerning MRI in the context of imaging the heart:
A. Magnetic resonance imaging does not use ionising radiation
B. Motion of the heart will not affect the quality of MR images obtained using standard imaging techniques
C. Magnetic resonance imaging can acquire tomographic images at any orientation in the heart

A

A. True. Magnetic resonance imaging is a tomographic technique that does not use ionising radiation.

B. False. Most conventional MRI techniques take several minutes to acquire, during which time significant cardiac and respiratory motion could occur, leading to artefacts in the images. Even very fast techniques that can be performed in a single breath hold may take up to 20 seconds (s) to acquire. In order to image the heart using MRI, special techniques must be used that can effectively ‘freeze’ the motion of the heart and the chest.

C. True. It is possible, using MRI, to acquire tomographic images of the heart in any orientation.

196
Q

How do you eliminate movement artefact in cardiac MRI?

A

synchronise the acquisition to the cardiac + respiratory cycle/breath-holding

197
Q

What is the magneto-hydrodynamic effect?

A

When an ECG is being acquired for physiological monitoring, the leads are placed far apart to maximise the electric potentials. If the patient is in an MRI scanner, this can lead to problems, as blood flowing through the magnetic field creates electric fields that are detected as additional voltages by the ECG electrodes

198
Q

Why is the magneto-hydrodynamic effect an issue?

A

It is the blood flow in the aorta during systole that generates the greatest voltages. These superimpose on the T-wave, elevating it to the point where it may be greater than the height of the R-wave. This may interfere with the way the scanner synchronises data acquisition to the cardiac cycle.

199
Q

How can you mitigate for the magneto-hydrodynamic effect?

A

place the ECG leads closer together

vector ECG gating, which takes into account the direction of the electric fields as well as the magnitude.

peripheral pulse (PP) gating

200
Q

How do you acquire an ECG gated MRI?

A

all the raw data must be obtained from the same point in the cardiac cycle. This is done by using the R-wave of the ECG (or the peak of the PP signal) as a reference point for the scanner. The scanner can automatically monitor the ECG and begin scanning when it detects the R-wave. A variable trigger delay can be set so that data can be obtained from any point in the cardiac cycle.
The image is built up over n heartbeats, where n is the number of phase-encoding steps. The repetition time (TR) of the sequence is fixed by the R-R interval.

201
Q

how can you get moving images of the heart with MRI?

A

this is not a ‘real-time’ display as data for the individual images are built up over several cardiac cycles in a similar way to ordinary cardiac gating. In order to be able to do this within a breath-hold, very fast MRI scans must be used. The two techniques most commonly applied are the T1-weighted (T1W) fast spoiled gradient-echo (GE) or steady state free precession (SSFP) GE. These sequences have TR values of the order of a few ms.

202
Q

What is segmented cine imaging and why is it used?

A

Collecting only one line of k-space per image per R-R interval means that the scan time will be the R-R interval times the number of phase-encoding steps. For a typical image containing somewhere between 128 and 256 phase-encoding steps, the scan time will be excessively long, with motion artefacts arising from breathing obscuring the heart. The solution is to use segmented cine imaging.

Segmented cine imaging acquires more than one line of k-space per image in each R-R interval. This means that scans can be performed within a single breath-hold.

203
Q

What is the difference between prospective and retrospective gating?

A

In prospective gating (or triggering), data acquisition begins only after the detection of a physiological event (such as the ECG R-wave).

In retrospective gating, data acquisition is continuous and is not initiated by a cardiovascular trigger event. After the end of acquisition, the MR data may be reordered, grouped or correlated with the phase of the cardiac cycle.

204
Q

What type of gating is normally used for cardiac MRI?

A

retrospective gating

205
Q

How does retrospective gating work?

A

data are acquired continuously throughout the cardiac cycle, with the R-wave causing a real-time update of the phase-encoding gradient. The ECG is recorded simultaneously with the MR data for the whole scan time. The data are sorted after acquisition to account for variations in the R-R interval. Each cardiac cycle is divided into the required number N of cardiac phases. This is done by measuring the duration of each R-R interval and calculating the time of each temporal cardiac phase as a percentage of that interval. This provides a linear expansion or contraction of each cardiac cycle to account for variations in the duration of individual heartbeats. The nearest acquired phase-encoding step to each of the N temporal phases is placed in the raw data matrix for the image at that phase. Once all the temporal phases have been filled with their nearest phase-encoding steps, the reconstruction proceeds as normal. Each acquired phase-encoding step may be used for more than one of the N cardiac phases.

206
Q

How does prospective gating work?

A

In prospective gating, the mean R-R interval is measured over a number of cardiac cycles.

Following this measurement, acquisition of MR data is triggered by the R-wave of the ECG (even though the pulse sequence may run continuously). Once triggered, acquisition is repeated continually for 85-90% of the mean R-R interval with one line of k-space being added for each cardiac phase image for a particular slice. The remainder of k-space is filled over many subsequent cardiac cycles.

Depending on the heart rate, the number of cardiac phases required and the value of TR, one or two slice locations may be acquired.

At the end of each cardiac cycle, an arrythmia rejection (AR) window is set to allow for variations in heart rate; typically, its duration is 10-15% of the mean R-R interval. If the next R-wave occurs outside the AR window (i.e. much earlier or much later than expected), all the associated data are discarded and re-acquired. Furthermore, data acquired at the end of the cardiac cycle during the AR period are also discarded, even if the next R-wave occurs within the window; this gives a ‘dead-time’ at the end of each cycle.

207
Q

What artefact can you get with prospective gating?

A

There is T1 recovery of the magnetisation during the AR period resulting in a bright first image following the R-wave; this gives a flashing artefact when the images are replayed as a cine loop.

208
Q

How is ventricular function calculated on cardiac MRI?

A

series of Short Axis images is taken of the heart, from base to apex. Drawing contours around the endocardial and epicardial borders allows the myocardial mass and blood pool volumes to be calculated.

209
Q

What are the normal cardiac MRI sequences known as?

A

‘white blood’ imaging, due to the high signal intensity of the blood pool.

210
Q

What is black blood cardiac MRI?

A

Cardiac gated fast spin echo (FSE) sequences with T1W produce a single high-resolution image of the cardiac anatomy. However, they can suffer from artefacts due to the inflow of blood into and out of the imaging slice. A special technique called black blood imaging is used to reduce these artefacts.

211
Q

How are black blood cardiac MRI images acquired?

A

double inversion recovery (DIR) FSE. This means the blood in the imaging slice should flow out of the slice during the TI period and be replaced with inverted blood from outside the slice.

212
Q

How is cardiac perfusion MRI performed?

A

The technique uses an injection of gadolinium contrast agent and then repeatedly scans the heart as the contrast arrives and leaves. The contrast agent will enhance myocardium on T1W sequences where the perfusion is good. Poor perfusion may only be evident under conditions where the heart is made to work hard, known as stressing. This is usually achieved using pharmacological agents such as dobutamine or adenosine. The agent is infused intravenously over a period of several minutes prior to scanning.

213
Q

What is delayed enhancement Cardiac MRI imaging?

A

allows an idea of whether re-perfusion will be successful.

myocardium will exhibit a rapid increase in signal on T1W sequences as the contrast arrives, and then a steady wash out over the next five to ten minutes. Infarcted but viable myocardium demonstrates reduced enhancement at a lower rate, but there is still wash out of the contrast. In non-viable myocardium, cellular breakdown allows the contrast to accumulate within the tissue without being washed out.

214
Q

Regarding motion artefacts in cardiac MRI, which of the following statements is/are accurate?

A. They may be caused by both respiratory and cardiac motion
B. They mainly occur in the frequency encoding direction
C. They do not affect the quality of diagnostic images
D. They mainly occur in the phase encoding direction
E. They appear as ‘ghosts’

A

A. Correct. The movement of any structure during image acquisition will cause motion artefacts.

B. Incorrect. Each row of k-space data in the frequency encoding direction is usually quickly filled, and so significant motion is unlikely during this period.

C. Incorrect. Motion artefacts degrade image quality.

D. Correct. Each column of k-space data in the phase encoding direction is filled in the total image acquisition time, during which significant motion may occur.

E. Correct. The ‘ghosts’ are those of the edges of moving structures.

215
Q

In cine cardiac MRI, the temporal resolution achieved with 20 phases in a patient with a normal heart rate is about…?

A

The normal heart rate is about 60 beats per minute, which means that the R-R interval is about 1 s or 1000 ms. With 20 phases, the temporal resolution is 1000/20 = 50 ms.

216
Q

What are the 4 main MRI contrast types in liver imaging?

A

Dynamic phase T1 paramagnetic (extracellular) contrast agents

Delayed phase T1 hepatobiliary contrast agents

Combined T1 extracellular and hepatobiliary contrast agents

T2 contrast agents that target the reticuloendothelial system

217
Q

How do paramagnetic contrast agents work?

A

by causing relatively large local magnetic field distortions due to their large magnetic moments. These enhance the T1 and T2 relaxation of protons that come into close proximity.

When placed in a strong magnetic field the contrast agent develops a large magnetic moment, which enhances the relaxation rates of protons in any water molecules that approach the vicinity of the agent. In fact, although it is referred to as a T1 contrast agent, the effect is such that both T1 and T2 relaxation times are reduced. However, at standard clinical doses the T1 relaxation effect dominates.

218
Q

What is a commonly used paramagnetic contrast agent?

A

One of the primary constituents of an MRI paramagnetic contrast agent is the metal ion gadolinium (Gd).

219
Q

What factors effect the degree of T1 relaxation with paramagnetic contrast agents?

A

Concentration of the agent (Gd(read a full definition of this term)) in the tissue
Proximity (D) of the agent to tissue protons that are undergoing relaxation
Rotational motion (tumbling) (R) of the agent
Number (C) of water molecules that associate with the agent
Time (T) that the water molecules are available for association with the agent

If some or all of these conditions are met then T1 relaxation will be optimised and this will result in increased signal intensity on T1W images.

220
Q

describe the response graph for gadolinium contrast.

A

there is a steady increase in signal intensity as the concentration of the agent is increased, until an optimum concentration (giving maximum intensity) is reached.

Once the optimal concentration is exceeded then the effect of introducing more contrast agent actually causes the signal intensity to decrease. At lower concentrations, T1 relaxation effects dominate, but at higher concentrations T2 relaxation effects begin to dominate.

221
Q

Does the signal intensity of the tissues change characteristically over time with gadolinium contrast?

A

yes. It is possible to use the dynamic information available from the contrast agent signal intensity changes over time to characterise the various types of lesion that might be present. In other words, contrast enhanced MRI studies offer not just improved anatomical information, but also additional dynamic information related to the specific contrast uptake activity of the target tissues. In order to obtain these dynamic images, the contrast agent is injected as a bolus and T1W images are acquired at various times (phases) after the injection.

222
Q

What are the normal contrast phases for gadolinium contrast?

A

The arterial phase (typically 30 seconds post injection)
The venous phase (typically 60-90 seconds post injection)
The equilibrium phase (typically 3-5 minutes post injection)

223
Q

How do delayed phase hepatobilliary contrast agents work?

A

taken up by functioning hepatocytes in healthy liver tissue. The agent causes a reduction in the functioning liver tissue T1, resulting in hyperintense healthy liver tissue relative to hypointense lesion regions on T1W images.

The T1 shortening is achieved by the presence of manganese (Mn) in the agent, which conveys paramagnetic properties. These agents can also be used for imaging 24 hours post-contrast since the manganese gradually accumulates within any non-healthy liver tissue during this time course. The contrast agent takes longer to be released from such lesions than it does from healthy liver tissue. Therefore, at 24 hours, the presence of hepatobiliary contrast agent in the lesion causes T1 shortening of the lesion and therefore hyperintense signal intensity on a T1W sequence relative to the more hypointense healthy liver tissue.

224
Q

What is the mode of action for T2 contrast agents?

A

the presence of the contrast agent causes the precessional frequency of the water proton to temporarily speed up or slow down. As soon as the water proton moves away from the contrast agent then it will continue to precess at its original frequency, but it will have gained or lost phase as a result of its brief encounter with the contrast agent field.

This dephasing is accelerated in the presence of a contrast agent

225
Q

Describe the typical response curve for a T2 contrast agent.

A

There is an exponential decrease in signal intensity (negative enhancement) as the concentration of the agent is increased.

In other words, as the concentration becomes larger, signal dephasing becomes more prominent, and the signal intensity on a T2W image becomes lower.

226
Q

What is the effect of MRI contrast agents on the tissue relaxation times T1 and T2?

A. A T1 agent reduces T1 and has no effect on T2
B. A T2 agent increases T2 and reduces T1
C. A T2 agent reduces T2 and has no effect on T1
D. A T1 agent reduces T1 and increases T2
E. All agents reduce both T1 and T2

A

The correct answer is E.

The magnetic fields associated with all types of MRI contrast agent serve to reduce both T1 and T2. Which effect is used to change the contrast between tissues depends on what type of image weighting is chosen; image weighting is determined by pulse sequence. For example, a post-contrast T1W image uses the reduction in T1 to change contrast and a material that is used in this way is called a T1 contrast agent. The contrast between a lesion and surrounding healthy tissue may be due to relatively greater concentration of the agent in either; this depends on factors such as blood flow and physiological uptake.

227
Q

What TE and TR gives T1 contrast?

A

Short TE
Short TR

228
Q

What TE and TR gives T2 contrast?

A

Long TE
Long TR

229
Q

What TE and TR gives proton-density contrast?

A

Short TE
Long TR

230
Q

What is Slice separation in MRI?

A

The distance between adjacent slices is referred to as the slice separation. Often, the gap in between adjacent slices (i.e. the slice gap) is quoted. Slices with no slice gap are called contiguous, as they cover the entire scanning region

231
Q

What is crosstalk?

A

Acquiring contiguous images may result in crosstalk, where the MRI signal from one slice interferes with the signal from another.

232
Q

Why does crosstalk occur and what effect does this have on the image?

A

Crosstalk occurs because the slices are not perfectly rectangular and overlap. Contrast in the final image may be altered as magnetisation in the overlap regions experiences more RF pulses per TR interval.

233
Q

What is the only way to avoid crosstalk?

A

The only way to avoid crosstalk is to increase the gap between the slices (in which case they are no longer contiguous) or change the order in which the slices are acquired (and maintain contiguity).

Slices can be acquired in one of two ways:

Sequential
Interleaved

234
Q

What is sequential multislice imaging?

A

Sequential multislice imaging acquires all the image data for one slice before moving onto the next

235
Q

What is the advantage of sequential multislice imaging?

A

The advantage of this technique is that crosstalk is avoided, since only one slice is acquired at any one time. This applies both to a set of contiguous slices and a set with a finite slice gap.

236
Q

What is the disadvantage of sequential multislice imaging?

A

scan times can be very long as the time taken to acquire one image is now multiplied by the number of slices. This technique is suitable if the sequence TR (and therefore the time required to acquire a single slice) is very short.

237
Q

What is interleaved multislice imaging?

A

For sequences where the TR is long, there will be a significant time between the end of data acquisition and the beginning of the next RF pulse. All that happens during this time is relaxation. This time can be used to acquire the image data for all the other slices, reducing the total acquisition time to the time required to acquire just one slice. This is called interleaved scanning.

This works because RF pulses only affect protons that have the correct Larmor frequency.

238
Q

What is the disadvantage of interleaved multislice imaging and how can this be mitigated?

A

here is the possibility of crosstalk occurring if the slices are contiguous or close together, as the time between acquiring data for adjacent slices is very small. This can be made larger by altering the order of slice acquisition, or by concatenating the scan , where adjacent slices are not acquired together. Concatenating the scan can also be useful in reducing the TR.

239
Q

What is the benefit of 3D MRI imaging over 2D MRI imaging?

A

3D scan, where the data is acquired as a volume rather than a series of individual slices. The data can then be divided into slices after reconstruction. 3D scans:

Produce perfectly contiguous slices with no crosstalk

Tend to produce thinner slices than 2D sequences

240
Q

What does 3D imaging allow you to do?

A

view 3D images at different orientations and even generate surfaces and calculate volumes. Images at other orientations are called multiplanar reconstructions (MPRs). From a single set of 3D data, it is possible to display images in sagittal, transverse and coronal orientations. Rendered images show the surface, and it is possible to cut out parts of the volume to view the underlying anatomy.

241
Q

How is 3D MRI acquired?

A

A thick slab is excited by the RF pulse. This is achieved by using very short pulse durations and/or a low gradient strength.

Spatial localisation in the slice-select direction is achieved by phase encoding in two directions, rather than just one. The two phase encodings do not interfere with each other as they are generated by gradients that are at right angles. The data is stored in a 3D array and reconstructed using a 3D Fourier transform.

242
Q

What is a fast spin/turbo spin echo sequence?

A

multiple echoes can be used to obtain extra phase-encoding steps. This can reduce the scan time dramatically as more lines of data are acquired in a single TR period. This technique is commonly used to shorten the acquisition time of T2-weighted (T2W) SE images that have a long TR.

243
Q

What is the echo train length?

A

The number of echoes acquired for each excitation (90°) RF pulse is called the echo train length (ETL).

244
Q

How does the ETL effect scan time?

A

The scan time will be shortened by a factor given by the ETL. For example, if the scan time of an SE sequence were 4 minutes and 16 seconds, using an FSE with an ETL of 4 (and all other parameters the same) would shorten the time to 1 minute and 4 seconds.

245
Q

What is the “effective TE” of an MRI scan?

A

The TE of an FSE sequence is often defined as being the TE of the echo that corresponds to the centre of k-space (i.e. the echo with no phase-encoding gradient, where the echo amplitude is maximum). This is referred to as the effective TE (TEeff). The images suffer from a loss in resolution in the phase-encoding direction, as the echoes are not all acquired at the same TE, and there is significant T2 decay between subsequent echoes. This loss of resolution, so-called ‘T2 blurring’, gets worse when high ETLs are used.

246
Q

What is a single shot FSE?

A

Echo train lengths for FSE sequences can be increased to the point where all the data required to create the image are obtained after a single RF excitation. For example, a 256 x 256 image would require an ETL of 256. However, a technique called half-Fourier imaging is used to reduce this to just over half that number. An entire image can be obtained in about 2 seconds, allowing regions such as the abdomen to be scanned without motion artefacts.

247
Q

What is echo-planar imaging?

A

another technique that allows extremely rapid data acquisition.

As with the SSFSE, all the data is acquired after a single RF excitation. However, EPI does not use trains of 180° pulses nor does it reverse each phase-encoding gradient before acquiring the next line of data. the phase-encoding gradient is ‘blipped’ every time the frequency-encoding gradient is switched, so that each line of data will have a different accumulated phase. the raw data is built up in one go by following an ‘S’ shape through k-space.

248
Q

What is EPI factor and why is it important for EPI imaging?

A

the EPI factor determines how many lines of data are collected for each image. Using a high EPI factor will result in a high-resolution image; however, the minimum achievable TE may be quite high as well, which will affect the contrast in the image.

249
Q

When can a lower flip angle be better for MRI?

A

using a lower flip angle, for example 30 ° results in completely different curves than 90.

In the case of SE sequences, the signal is lower for all TRs; therefore there is no benefit to using a reduced flip angle.

The signal from a low flip-angle GE sequence is actually greater for short TRs. Therefore, there is a benefit in using a short TR, low flip angle GE sequence for fast imaging.

250
Q

What needs to be added to short TR GE images?

A

Fast GE sequences are similar to normal GE sequences except that they contain additional components that prevent the formation of artefacts, due to the short values of TR used. Extra gradients known as spoilers are added, which prevent any residual transverse magnetisation from interfering with subsequent echoes.

Another way of removing this residual transverse magnetisation is to use RF spoiling, where the phase of the RF pulses is changed.

251
Q

What is the Ernst angle?

A

optimum angle that gives a maximum steady state MRI signal. This depends on the T1 of the tissue and the TR of the sequence.

252
Q

What is a hahn echo?

A

A partial SE generated from two previous RF pulses, and a stimulated echo from three RF pulses.

253
Q

What is a coherent steady state?

A

it is possible to generate signals that do have some T2 dependence using combinations of RF pulses, if the transverse magnetisation is not spoiled at the end of each TR. A partial SE (called a Hahn echo) can be generated from two previous RF pulses, and a stimulated echo from three RF pulses. The total MRI signal will be the sum of all these contributions. This is called a coherent steady state.

254
Q

What sequence uses coherent steady state?

A

steady state free procession

For every positive gradient, there is a negative gradient that prevents transverse magnetisation from being spoiled, allowing the build-up of a coherent steady state.

These sequences are run with very short values of TR and TE. This is done to reduce the dephasing effects of magnetic field inhomogeneities (so called resonance-offset effects). These can cause the various components of the coherent steady state to interfere destructively, producing dark bands across the images.

255
Q

What does SSFP contrast depend on?

A

depends upon the ratio of T2 to T1. This is only true for large flip angles. This means that tissues where T2 is similar to T1 (for example, water and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)) will give the highest signal (remember that T2 is always shorter than T1).

256
Q

Regarding SE imaging:
A. Crosstalk cannot occur with the interleaved acquisition of contiguous slices
B. Three-dimensional imaging can produce contiguous slices with no crosstalk
C. A thick slab of tissue is excited with a long RF pulse in 3D imaging
D. In multiple contrast imaging, the phase encoding gradient is changed between each echo
E. Half-Fourier imaging increases the acquisition time in SSFSE

A

A. Incorrect. With interleaved multislice imaging, crosstalk is very likely to occur if a set of contiguous slices is acquired in numerical order. Crosstalk may be avoided by changing the order of slice acquisition or by concatenating the scan.

B. Correct. With 3D acquisition, data are obtained from a block of tissue and may be reconstructed as a set of thin contiguous slices with no crosstalk.

C. Incorrect. In 3D imaging, a short RF pulse is used to excite a thick slab of tissue because the pulse may be represented by a wide range of frequencies.

D. Incorrect. In multiple contrast imaging, for each phase encoding gradient a succession of 180° refocusing pulses are used to generate a series of echoes with different values of TE.

E. Incorrect. In SSFSE, half-Fourier imaging reduces image acquisition time.

257
Q

Regarding GE imaging:

A. It is the only type of sequence for which EPI can be performed
B. For fast imaging, a short TR and a large flip angle are used
C. Spoiler gradients produce artefacts in fast imaging
D. Setting the flip angle to be equal to the Ernst angle gives the minimum steady state MRI signal
E. SSFP pulse sequences have very short values of TR and TE

A

A. Incorrect. Echo-planar imaging can be done with both GE and SE pulse sequences.

B. Incorrect. A short TR and a small flip angle are used for fast imaging.

C. Incorrect. Spoiler gradients reduce artefacts by preventing residual transverse magnetisation from interfering with subsequent echoes.

D. Incorrect. Using the Ernst angle gives the maximum steady state signal for a particular tissue.

E. Correct. As well as giving very short image acquisition times, the use of short TR and TE reduce the dephasing effects of magnetic field inhomogeneities.

258
Q
A