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Gross Anatomy > Moore's Ch. 1 (Part 1) - Overview and Basic Concepts (E1) > Flashcards

Moore's Ch. 1 (Part 1) - Overview and Basic Concepts (E1) Flashcards

1
Q

How does regional anatomy consider the organization of the human body?

A

As major parts or segments

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2
Q

Regional anatomy is the method of studying the body’s structures by focusing on 3 spatial criteria. What are these criteria?

A

1) Specific body part (e.g., head)
2) Area (e.g., face)
3) Region (e.g., orbital/eye region)

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3
Q

How does regional anatomy examine various body structures? There are 2 criteria by which structures are associated with one another.

A

By their arrangement and relationships

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4
Q

What are the 3 layers by which regional anatomy recognizes the body’s organization?

A

1) Skin
2) Subcutaneous tissue
3) Deep fascia

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5
Q

What knowledge does surface anatomy provide? There are 2 things in particular (NOTE: one of these things involves the resting and active states of the body).

A

1) Tells us what lies under the skin

2) Tells us what structures are palpable when the body is resting or active

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6
Q

What is the aim/purpose of surface anatomy?

A

To help visualize structures that bring shape to the surface

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7
Q

How is knowledge of surface anatomy useful in clinical practice?

A

It allows the detection of unusual/abnormal findings

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8
Q

The study of the body’s organ systems at work together to carry out complex functions.

A

What is systemic anatomy?

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9
Q

Generally speaking, what does the integumentary system consist of?

A

The skin, its appendages, and the subcutaneous tissue underneath

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10
Q

What is the general purpose of the integumentary system?

A

To be the body’s protective covering

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11
Q

Generally speaking, what does the skeletal system consist of?

A

Bones and cartilage

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12
Q

List 3 general purposes of the skeletal system.

A

1) Shape/support
2) Movement (via muscles)
3) Protecting vital organs

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13
Q

Generally speaking, what does the articular system consist of?

A

Joints and their associated ligaments

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14
Q

List 2 general purposes of the articular system.

A

1) Connecting boney parts of the skeletal system

2) Protecting the sites where movement occurs

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15
Q

What 3 types of muscle does the muscular system consist of?

A

1) Skeletal
2) Smooth
3) Cardiac

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16
Q

Generally speaking, what do skeletal muscles do for body parts?

A

Contract to move or position body parts

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17
Q

What do smooth and cardiac muscles have in common in terms of their function (NOTE: propel & control)?

A

They propel and control the flow of bodily fluids

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18
Q

Generally speaking, what does the nervous system consist of? List the 2 main branches and 2 of their associated structures.

A

Central nervous system - brain & spinal cord
Peripheral nervous system - nerves & ganglia

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19
Q

What is the general purpose of the nervous system in terms of control and coordination?

A

To control and coordinate the functions of organ systems

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20
Q

List the 4 sensory organs.

A

1) Olfactory organ
2) Eyes
3) Ears
4) Gustatory organ

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21
Q

What are the 2 systems that make up the circulatory system?

A

Cardiovascular and lymphatic

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22
Q

Generally speaking, what does the cardiovascular system consist of?

A

Heart and blood vessels

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23
Q

List 3 general purposes of the cardiovascular system.

A

1) Circulate blood
2) Deliver oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to cells
3) Remove cell waste

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24
Q

With regards to vessels, what does the lymphatic system consist of?

A

Lymph vessels

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25
Q

List the 3 general purposes/functions of the lymphatic system.

A

1) Remove excess lymph from a cell’s interstitial (intercellular) compartment
2) Filter lymph via lymph nodes
3) Return filtered lymph to the blood

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26
Q

Generally speaking, what does the alimentary (digestive) system consist of?

A

The digestive tract, from mouth to anus, and all associated organs and glands

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27
Q

List the 6 general functions of the alimentary system.

A

1) Ingestion
2) Mastication (chewing)
3) Deglutition (swallowing)
4) Digestion
5) Absorption of nutrients
6) Removal of wastes

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28
Q

Generally speaking, what does the respiratory system consist of?

A

Air passages, lungs, and associated structures

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29
Q

What is the purpose of the respiratory system?

A

Supply oxygen to blood for cellular respiration and remove carbon dioxide

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30
Q

Which 2 respiratory organs are responsible for controlling airflow?

A

1) Diaphragm
2) Larynx

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31
Q

What are the 4 key structures of the urinary system?

A

1) Kidneys
2) Ureters
3) Bladder
4) Urethra

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32
Q

What is the function of the urinary system (HINT: there are 4 actions to complete 1 goal, and there is 1 separate action as well)?

A

Produce, transport, store, and excrete urine

Filter blood

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33
Q

Generally speaking, what does the genital (reproductive) system consist of?

A

Gonads (ovaries/testes)

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34
Q

What is the general purpose of the reproductive system?

A

Produce and transport oocytes and sperms to create progeny

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35
Q

Generally speaking, what 3 types of structures does the endocrine system consist of?

A

1) Discrete ductless endocrine glands
2) Isolated and clustered cells of the gut and blood vessel walls
3) Specialized nerve endings

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36
Q

What is the general function of the endocrine system?

A

Secrete hormones

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37
Q

What are hormones, and what do they influence?

A

Organic molecules that influence metabolism and other processes

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38
Q

How extensive is the influence of the endocrine system?

A

About as extensive as the nervous system’s influence

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39
Q

What are the 3 systems that comprise the locomotor system/apparatus and directly contribute to it (HINT: 2 passive & 1 active)?

A

1) Passive skeletal system
2) Passive articular system
3) Active muscular system

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40
Q

List the 3 components that indirectly contribute to the locomotor system/apparatus (HINT: 2-system & 1-organs).

A

1) Nervous system
2) Circulatory system
3) Sensory organs

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41
Q

This approach to studying anatomy emphasizes how bodily structure and function are important to medicine, dentistry, and allied health sciences in general.

A

What is clinical anatomy?

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42
Q

This anatomical position means recumbent, lying on the back, or facing upward.

A

What is supine?

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43
Q

This anatomical position means lying on the abdomen or facing downward.

A

What is prone?

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44
Q

What are the 3 conditions of the anatomical position?

A

1) Head, gaze, and toes pointed anteriorly
2) Arms adjacent to the sides with palms facing anteriorly (supinated)
3) Lower limbs close together with feet parallel

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45
Q

Vertical anteroposterior plane passing longitudinally through the midlines of the head, neck, and trunk, dividing the body into left and right halves

A

What is the median plane?

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46
Q

Vertical planes passing through the body PARALLEL to the median plane.

A

What are sagittal planes?

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47
Q

Vertical planes passing through the body AT RIGHT ANGLES to the median plane.

A

What are frontal/coronal planes?

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48
Q

Horizontal planes passing through the body AT RIGHT ANGLES to the frontal/coronal and median planes, dividing the body into superior and inferior parts.

A

What are transverse planes?

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49
Q

These anatomical sections run parallel to the long axis of the body.

A

What are longitudinal sections?

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50
Q

These anatomical sections, referred to as cross sections, are sections of the body cut at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the body or any of its parts.

A

What are transverse sections?

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51
Q

These anatomical sections are slices of the body or any of its parts that, in practice, are often used for radiographic images. Additionally, these sections do not precisely lie in the sagittal, frontal, or transverse planes.

A

What are oblique sections?

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52
Q

The {…} surface of the hand refers to the anterior hand.

A

Palmar

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53
Q

The {…} surface of the hand refers to the posterior hand.

A

Dorsal

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54
Q

The {…} surface of the foot refers to the inferior foot surface.

NOTE: opposite of hands

A

Plantar

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55
Q

The {…} surface of the foot refers to the superior foot surface.

NOTE: opposite of hands

A

Dorsal

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56
Q

Superior refers to a structure that is nearer the {…}, the topmost part of the cranium.

A

Vertex

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57
Q

An intermediate positional arrangement referring to something being nearer to the feet and medial plane.

A

What is inferomedial?

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58
Q

An intermediate positional arrangement referring to something being nearer to the head and farther from the median plane.

A

What is superolateral?

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59
Q

These 3 terms describe the position of structures relative to the surface of the body or the relationship of one structure to another underlying or overlying structure.

A

What are superficial, intermediate, and deep?

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60
Q

The term {…} means outside of or father from the center of an organ or cavity, while {…} means inside or closer to the center, independent of direction.

A

1) External
2) Internal

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61
Q

In terms of laterality, paired structures having left and right members (e.g., the kidneys) are {…}, whereas those occurring on one side only (e.g., the spleen) are {…}.

A

1) Bilateral
2) Unilateral

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62
Q

In terms of laterality, something occurring on the same side of the body as another structure (e.g., right thumb & right great/big toe) is {…}. The term {…} means something occurs on the opposite side of the body relative to another structure (e.g., right & left hands).

A

1) Ipsilateral
2) Contralateral

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63
Q

In terms of movement, {…} indicates bending or decreasing the angle between bones or parts of the body, while {…} indicates straightening or increasing the angle between such.

A

1) Flexion
2) Extension

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64
Q

This movement describes flexion at the ankle joint, as occurs when walking uphill or lifting the front of the foot and toes off the ground.

A

What is dorsiflexion?

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65
Q

This movement describes the bending of the foot and toes toward the ground, as when standing on your toes.

A

What is plantarflexion?

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66
Q

Extension of a limb beyond its normal limit, which can cause injury, such as whiplash.

A

What is hyperextension/overextension?

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67
Q

{…} of the digits (fingers or toes) means {…} them apart, while {…} of the digits means {…} spread digits together.

A

1) Abduction
2) Spreading
3) Adduction
4) Bringing

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68
Q

Which 2 digits are neutrally positioned?

A

1) 3rd (middle) finger
2) 2nd (big) toe

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69
Q

The {…} abduction of the 3rd finger brings it toward the thumb when in anatomical position.

A

Lateral

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70
Q

The {…} abduction of the 3rd finger brings it toward the midline/trunk/etc. when in anatomical position.

A

Medial

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71
Q

The thumb is rotated {…} degrees relative to other structures.

A

90

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72
Q

The thumb movements {…} and {…} at the metacarpophalangeal joint occur in a {…} plane.

A

1) Abduction
2) Adduction
3) Sagittal

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73
Q

The thumb movements {…} and {…} at the metacarpophalangeal & interphalangeal joints occur in a {…} plane.

A

1) Extension
2) Flexion
3) Frontal

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74
Q

The movements {…} and {…} of the thumb and little finger at the thumb’s {…} joint combined with flexion at {…} joints.

A

1) Opposition
2) Reposition
3) Carpometacarpal
4) Metacarpophalangeal

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75
Q

Right and left {…} flexion/bending are special forms of {…} only occurring in the head and neck, allowing the {…} and/or {…} to tilt to the left and right and causing the body’s midline to become bent {…}.

A

1) Lateral
2) Abduction
3) Head
4) Shoulders
5) Sideways

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76
Q

A circular movement involving sequential flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction (or in opposite order) in such a way that the distal end of a part moves in a circle.

A

What is circumduction?

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77
Q

Movement involving the turning or revolving of a body part around its longitudinal axis, such as turning one’s face sideways.

A

What is rotation?

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78
Q

The movement of {…} rotation brings a limb’s anterior surface closer to the {…} plane, while {…} rotation brings that anterior surface away from that plane

A

1) Medial
2) Median
3) Lateral

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79
Q

This movement rotates the radius medially so that the palm faces posteriorly and the dorsum faces anteriorly.

A

What is pronation?

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80
Q

This movement rotates the radius laterally, uncrossing it from the ulna, and returns the forearm back to anatomical position.

A

What is supination?

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81
Q

This foot movement moves the sole away from the median plane, turning it laterally.

A

What is eversion?

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82
Q

Full eversion of the foot and its sole is also a form of a particular foot flexion.

A

What is dorsiflexion?

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83
Q

This foot movement moves the sole toward the median plane (facing the sole medially).

A

What is inversion?

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84
Q

Full inversion of the foot and its sole is also a form of a particular foot flexion.

A

What is plantarflexion?

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85
Q

This movement anteriorly moves the mandible, lips, or tongue, causing these parts to protrude.

A

What is protrusion?

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86
Q

This movement posteriorly moves the mandible, lips, or tongue, essentially being the opposite of protrusion.

A

What is retrusion?

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87
Q

The terms protraction and retraction are {…} and {…} (intermediate) movements of the scapula, respectively, allowing the shoulder region to move {…} and {…}, respectively.

A

1) Anterolateral
2) Posteromedial
3) Anteriorly
4) Posteriorly

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88
Q

This movement raises or moves a part superiorly, such as elevating the shoulders when shrugging, the upper eyelid when opening the eye, or the tongue when pushing up against the palate.

A

What is elevation?

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89
Q

This movement lowers or moves a part inferiorly, such as depressing the shoulders when standing at ease, the upper eyelid when closing the eye, or pulling the tongue away from the palate.

A

What is depression?

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90
Q

An {…} variation usually has {…} effect on normal function and is often found during imaging, surgical procedures, autopsy, or during anatomical study.

A

1) Anatomical
2) No

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91
Q

Do most people know they have an anatomical variation?

A

NO

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92
Q

A {…} anomaly, or birth defect, is a variation often evident at birth or soon after due to an aberrant form or function.

A

Congenital

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93
Q

Between veins and nerves, which structure exhibits the most variation, and which structure exhibits the least?

A

Most - veins
Least - nerves

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94
Q

The body’s largest organ and one of the best indicators of general health.

A

What is the skin?

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95
Q

What are the 5 basic functions of the skin?

NOTE: the last function is really 2 that contribute to a certain vitamin

A

1) Protection
2) Containment
3) Thermoregulation
4) Sensation
5) Synthesis & storage (vitamin D)

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96
Q

The {…} is a {…} epithelium with a tough, horny, {…} layer that provides a protective outer surface overlying its regenerative and pigmented deep, or {…} layer.

A

1) Epidermis
2) Keratinized
3) Superficial
4) Basal

97
Q

Because the epidermis has no blood vessels, it is nourished by the underlying {…} dermis.

A

Vascularized

98
Q

The skin is also supplied with {…} nerve endings that are sensitive to touch, pain, and temperature.

A

Afferent

99
Q

Will you find more nerve terminals in the dermis or epidermis?

A

Dermis

100
Q

The {…}, located directly under the epidermis, is a dense layer of interlacing {…} and {…} fibers, the latter of which provide the skin with tone, strength, and toughness.

A

1) Dermis
2) Collagen
3) Elastic

101
Q

The {…} lines, also called cleavage or Langer lines, tend to spiral {…} in the limbs and run {…} in the neck and trunk.

A

1) Tension
2) Longitudinally
3) Parallel

102
Q

Tension lines in the elbows, knees, ankles, and wrists are {…} to the transverse creases that occur when the limbs are flexed.

A

Parallel

103
Q

The deep layer of the dermis contains hair {…}, with associated smooth arrector muscles and sebaceous glands.

A

Follicles

104
Q

Contractions of the skin’s {…} muscles of hairs erect the hair, causing goosebumps.

A

Arrector

105
Q

Hair follicles are generally slanted to one side, and several {…} glands point toward the skin, secreting their oily product to the surface.

A

Sebaceous

106
Q

Sweat provides a {…} mechanism for heat loss (cooling).

A

Thermoregulatory

107
Q

The dermis’s arterioles {…} to fill superficial {…} beds to radiate heat (skin appears red) or {…}, or shrink, to minimize heat loss (causing skin, lips, & fingernails to appear blue).

A

1) Dilate
2) Capillary
3) Constrict

108
Q

The {…} tissue, also called superficial fascia, is made mostly of loose {…} tissue and stored {…} and contains sweat glands, superficial blood vessels, and cutaneous nerves.

A

1) Subcutaneous
2) Connective
3) Fat

109
Q

Skin {…}, numerous small fibrous bands, extend through the {…} tissue and attach to the deep surface of the {…} to the underlying {…} fascia.

A

1) Ligaments
2) Subcutaneous
3) Dermis
4) Deep

110
Q

Is skin more mobile when skin ligaments are longer & sparse (e.g., hand’s dorsum) or when they are shorter & abundant (e.g., palm)?

A

Longer & sparse

111
Q

Skin ligaments in breasts are well-developed and form weight-bearing {…} ligaments.

A

Suspensory

112
Q

These structures constitute the wrapping, packing, and insulating materials of the body’s deep structures.

A

What are fascias?

113
Q

A dense, organized connective tissue layer, devoid of fat, that covers most of the body parallel (deep) to the skin and subcutaneous tissue.

A

What is deep fascia?

114
Q

Extensions of the deep fascia’s internal surface invest deeper structures and neurovascular bundles as {…} fascia.

A

Investing

115
Q

Where will distinct layers of deep fascia be absent?

A

Face

116
Q

In the limbs, groups of muscles with similar functions, usually sharing the same nerve supply, are located in {…} compartments, that extend {…} from the surrounding fascial sleeve to attach to {…}.

A

1) Fascial
2) Centrally
3) Bone

117
Q

Thick sheets of deep fascia separating the fascial compartments of muscle.

NOTE: Think of the thing that separates your nostrils

A

What are intermuscular septa?

118
Q

Near certain joints (e.g., wrist & ankle), the deep fascia becomes remarkably thickened, forming a {…} to hold tendons in place where they cross the joint during {…} and {…} (joint movements), preventing them from taking a shortcut, called {…}, across the angle created.

NOTE: last blank is 2 words

A

1) Retinaculum
2) Flexion
3) Extension
4) Bow stringing

119
Q

This type of fascia contains varying amounts of fatty tissue and lies between the internal surfaces of the musculoskeletal walls and the serous membranes lining the body cavities (i.e., endothoracic, endoabdominal, & endopelvic fascias).

A

What is subserous fascia?

120
Q

Which 2 subserous fascias make up the extraperitoneal fascias?

A

Endoabdominal & endopelvic

121
Q

Closed sacs or envelopes of serous membrane that are normally collapsed.

A

What are bursae?

122
Q

Delicate connective tissue membranes capable of secreting fluid to lubricate a smooth internal surface.

A

What are serous membranes?

123
Q

Subcutaneous bursae occur in the {…} tissue between the {…} and bony {…}, such as at the elbow or knee.

A

1) Subcutaneous
2) Skin
3) Prominences

124
Q

Subfascial bursae lie beneath {…} fascia.

A

Deep

125
Q

Subtendinous bursae facilitate the movement of {…} over bones.

A

Tendons

126
Q

Synovial tendon sheaths are a specialized type of elongated bursae that wrap around {…}, usually enclosing them as they traverse {…} tunnels that anchor the tendons in place.

A

1) Tendons
2) Osseofibrous

127
Q

True or false: Collapsed bursal sacs surround many important organs (e.g., pericardial & peritoneal sacs) and structures, but these organs & structures are not considered to be inside these sacs.

A

True

128
Q

The inner layer of a serous sac is the {…} layer, while the outer layer is called the {…} layer.

A

1) Visceral
2) Parietal

129
Q

Functional part of the skeleton consisting of the bones of the head, neck, and trunk.

A

What is the axial skeleton?

130
Q

Functional part of the skeleton consisting the the bones of the limbs, including the pectoral (shoulder) and pelvic girdles.

A

What is the appendicular skeleton?

131
Q

A resilient, semirigid form of connective tissue that forms parts of the skeleton where more flexibility is required.

A

What is cartilage?

132
Q

The {…}, or bearing, surfaces of bones participating in a synovial joint are capped with {…} cartilage to provide smooth, low-friction, sliding surfaces for free movement.

A

1) Articulating
2) Articular

133
Q

What 5 things/functions do the bones provide?

A

1) Support
2) Protection
3) Movement/leverage
4) Storage (salts)
5) Continuous supply of new blood cells

134
Q

A fibrous connective tissue covering that surrounds bones.

A

What is periosteum?

135
Q

A fibrous connective tissue covering that surrounds cartilage.

A

What is perichondrium?

136
Q

The periosteum and perichondrium nourish the {…} aspects of skeletal tissue, can lay down more {…} and {…} during fracture healing, and provide the interface for attachment to {…} and {…}.

A

1) External
2) Bone
3) Cartilage
4) Tendons
5) Ligaments

137
Q

Two types of bone distinguished by the relative amount of solid matter and by the number & size of the spaces they contain.

A

What are compact & spongy/trabecular?

138
Q

All bones have a superficial thin layer of {…} bone around a central mass of {…} bone, except where the latter is replaced by a {…}, or marrow, cavity.

A

1) Compact
2) Spongy
3) Medullary

139
Q

Within an adult’s medullary cavity, and between the {…}, or trabeculae, of spongy bone, you’ll find {…} (fatty) and/or {…} (blood cell & platelet forming) bone marrow.

A

1) Spicules
2) Yellow
3) Red

140
Q

Tubular class of bone (e.g., humerus).

A

What is long bone?

141
Q

Cuboidal class of bone found only in tarsus and carpus.

A

What is short bone?

142
Q

Class of bone usually serving protective functions (e.g., flat bones of cranium protecting the brain).

A

What is flat bone?

143
Q

Class of bone with various shapes other than long, short, or flat (e.g., bones of the face).

A

What is irregular bone?

144
Q

Class of bone that protects tendons from excessive wear and tear, often changing the angle of tendons as they pass to their attachments (e.g., patella).

A

What is sesamoid bone?

145
Q

Principle mass of a bone.

A

What is the body?

146
Q

Small, round, articular head of a bone.

A

What is the capitulum?

147
Q

Rounded, knuckle-like articular area, often occurring in pairs (e.g., lateral and medial femoral condyles).

A

What is a condyle?

148
Q

Ridge of bone (e.g., iliac crest).

A

What is a crest?

149
Q

Eminence superior or adjacent to a condyle (e.g., lateral epicondyle of humerus).

A

What is an epicondyle?

150
Q

Smooth flat area, usually covered in cartilage, where a bone articulates with another bone.

A

What is a facet?

151
Q

Passage through a bone.

A

What is a foramen?

152
Q

Hollow or depressed area.

A

What is a fossa?

153
Q

Elongated depression or furrow.

A

What is a groove?

154
Q

Large, round articular end of a bone.

A

What is a head?

155
Q

Linear elevation sometimes called a ridge.

A

What is a line?

156
Q

Rounded process.

A

What is a malleolus?

157
Q

Relatively narrow portion adjacent to the head.

A

What is a neck?

158
Q

Indentation at the edge of a bone.

A

What is a notch?

159
Q

An extension or projection serving a particular purpose, having a characteristic shape, or extending in a particular direction.

A

What is a process?

160
Q

A bulge or projection (outgrowth) of bone.

A

What is a protuberance?

161
Q

The diaphysis/body of a long bone.

A

What is a shaft?

162
Q

Thorn-like process.

A

What is a spine?

163
Q

Large blunt elevation.

A

What is a trochanter?

164
Q

Spool-like articular process or process that acts as a pulley.

A

What is a trochlea?

165
Q

Small, raised, knob-shaped eminence of a bone.

A

What is a tubercle?

166
Q

Large rounded elevation.

A

What is a tuberosity?

167
Q

The embryonic connective tissue from which all bones are derived.

A

What is mesenchyme?

168
Q

Intramembranous ossification hails {…} from mesenchyme. These mesenchymal bone models form during the {…} period of development, and direct ossification of mesenchyme begins in the {…} period.

A

1) Directly
2) Embryonic
3) Fetal

169
Q

Endochondral ossification hails from the {…} derived from mesenchyme. Cartilage models of bone form from mesenchyme during the {…} period of development, and {…} subsequently replaces most of the cartilage.

A

1) Cartilage
2) Fetal
3) Bone

170
Q

The mesenchymal cells condense and differentiate into {…}, dividing cells in growing cartilage tissue, thereby forming a {…}{…} model.

A

1) Chondroblasts
2) Cartilaginous
3) Bone

171
Q

The capillaries initiate this ossification center, which is so named because the bone tissue it forms replaces most of the cartilage in the main body of the bone model.

A

What is the primary ossification center?

172
Q

The shaft of a bone ossified from the primary ossification center is the {…}, which grows as the bone develops.

A

Diaphysis

173
Q

Most of these ossification centers appear in other parts of the developing bone after birth.

A

What are secondary ossification centers?

174
Q

The parts of a bone ossified from a secondary ossification center.

A

What are epiphyses?

175
Q

The flared part of the diaphysis nearest the epiphysis.

A

What is the metaphysis?

176
Q

During the growth of a long bone, these cartilaginous plates intervene between the diaphysis and epiphysis.

A

What are epiphyseal plates?

177
Q

The dense seam formed during the fusion process of the epiphysis and diaphysis (i.e., synostosis) that is recognizable in sectioned bone or radiographs.

A

What is the epiphyseal line?

178
Q

Blood vessels occuring as one or more per bone that arise as independent branches of adjacent artiers outside the periosteum and pass obliquely through the compact bone of the shaft of a long bone.

A

What are nutrient arteries?

179
Q

Nutrient arteries pass through nutrient {…}.

A

Foramina

180
Q

Blood reaches the osteocytes in the compact bone by means of these microscopic canal systems that house small blood vessels.

A

What are haversian systems or osteons?

181
Q

In the limbs, metaphyseal and epiphyseal arteries are typically part of this plexus, which surrounds the joint, ensuring blood flow distal to the joint regardless of the position assumed by the joint.

A

What is the peri-articular arterial plexus?

182
Q

Aside from blood vessels, {…} vessels are also present in the periosteum.

A

Lymphatic

183
Q

The periosteum is richly supplied with sensory nerves that carry pain fibers. What are these nerves called?

A

Periosteal nerves

184
Q

Within bones, these types of nerves constrict and dilate blood vessels, regulating blood flow through the bone marrow.

A

What are vasomotor nerves?

185
Q

These are bones that develop when additional ossification centers appear and form extra bones.

A

What are accessory (supernumerary) bones?

186
Q

Small, irregular, worm-like bones often seen along the sutures of the cranium where the flat bones abut (i.e., share a common boundary).

A

What are sutural bones?

187
Q

Where are accessory bones typically located, and why is it important to know where they are located?

A

They are typically located in the foot, and it’s important to know this because they can be mistaken for bone fragments in radiographs and other medical images

188
Q

These are bones that form in soft tissues where they are not normally present (e.g., in scars).

A

What are heterotrophic bones?

189
Q

Why do horse riders often form heterotrophic bones in their thighs?

A

Constant muscle strain causing some small hemorrhagic areas that undergo calcification and eventual ossification

190
Q

For a fracture to heal properly, the broken ends must be brought together, approximating their normal position. What is this called?

A

Reduction of a fracture

191
Q

These are unions or junctions between two or more bones or rigid parts of the skeleton.

A

What are joints?

192
Q

What are the 3 classifications of joints?

A

1) Synovial
2) Fibrous
3) Cartilaginous

193
Q

Synovial joints are united by a {…} capsule (composed of an outer fibrous layer lined by a serous {…} membrane) spanning and enclosing a joint or articular cavity.

A

1) Joint
2) Synovial

194
Q

The {…} cavity of a synovial joint, like the knee, is a potential space that contains a small amount of {…} fluid, secreted by the synovial membrane.

A

1) Joint
2) Synovial

195
Q

This class of joint is united by fibrous tissue.

A

What is a fibrous joint?

196
Q

A {…} type of fibrous joint unites the bones with a sheet of fibrous tissue, either a ligament or fibrous membrane.

A

Syndesmosis

197
Q

A {…} syndesmosis (i.e., {…} or socket) is a fibrous joint in which a peg-like process fits into a socket, forming an articulation between the root of the tooth and the alveolar process of the jaw.

A

1) Dento-alveolar
2) Gomphosis

198
Q

This class of joints is united by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage.

A

What are cartilaginous joints?

199
Q

In {…} cartilaginous joints, or {…}, the bones are united by hyaline cartilage, which permits slight bending during early life.

A

1) Primary
2) Synchondroses

200
Q

{…} cartilaginous joints, or symphyses, are strong, slightly moveable joints united by fibrocartilage.

A

Secondary

201
Q

Synovial joints are usually reinforced by {…} ligaments.

A

Accessory

202
Q

This type of synovial joint permits gliding and sliding movements in the plane of the articular surfaces (e.g., acromioclavicular joint).

A

What is a plane joint?

203
Q

This type of synovial joint permits flexion and extension only, moving in one plane (sagittal) around a single axis (i.e., uniaxial)) that runs transversely (e.g., the elbow joint).

A

What is a hinge joint?

204
Q

This type of synovial joint permits abduction and adduction as well as flexion and extension, moving around two axes at right angles to each other; movements occur in the frontal and sagittal planes (i.e., biaxial). For example, the base of the thumb.

A

What is a saddle joint?

205
Q

This type of synovial joint permits flexion and extension as well as abduction and adduction; thus, making it biaxial. However, movement in one plane (sagittal) is usually greater than in the other. Some circumduction is possible. An example of this joint would be the metacarpophalangeal joints.

A

What is a condyloid joint?

206
Q

This type of synovial joint is multiaxial, permitting flexion & extension, abduction & adduction, medial & lateral rotation, and circumduction (e.g., the hip joint).

A

What is a ball and socket joint?

207
Q

This type of synovial joint permits rotation around a central axis and is, thus, uniaxial (e.g., the median atlanto-axial joint).

A

What is a pivot joint?

208
Q

Joints receive blood from {…} arteries that arise from the vessels around the joint.

A

Articular

209
Q

These types of veins are communicating veins that accompany arteries and, like the arteries, are located in the joint capsule, mostly in the synovial membrane.

A

What are articular veins?

210
Q

This rule of thumb indicates that the nerves supplying a joint also supply the muscles moving the joint and, added later, the skin covering their distal attachments.

A

What is Hilton’s Law?

211
Q

Articular nerves transmit sensory impulses that contribute to the sense of {…}, which provides an awareness of movement and position of the parts of the body.

A

What is proprioception?

212
Q

What are the 3 muscle types?

A

1) Skeletal striated
2) Cardiac striated
3) Smooth

213
Q

The tendons of some muscles form flat sheets, or {…}, that anchor the muscle to the skeleton and/or to deep fascia or to the aponeurosis of another muscle.

A

Aponeuroses

214
Q

This muscle shape has parallel fibers, often with an aponeurosis (e.g., the external oblique).

A

What is flat muscle?

215
Q

This muscle shape is feather-like in the arrangement of its fascicles.

A

What is pennate muscle?

216
Q

Give an example of a unipennate muscle.

A

Extensor digitorum longus

217
Q

Give an example of a bipennate muscle.

A

Rectus femoris

218
Q

Give an example of a multipennate muscle.

A

Deltoid

219
Q

This muscle shape is spindle-shaped with a round, thick belly (or bellies) and tapered ends (e.g., biceps brachii).

A

What is fusiform muscle?

220
Q

This muscle shape arises from a broad area and converges to form a single tendon (e.g., pectoralis major).

A

What is convergent muscle?

221
Q

This muscle shape has 4 equal sides (e.g., rectus abdominis).

A

What is quadrate muscle?

222
Q

This muscle shape is surrounded by a body opening or orifice, constricting it when contracted (e.g., orbicularis oculi).

A

What is circular (sphincteral) muscle?

223
Q

This muscle shape has more than one head of attachment or more than one contractile belly (e.g., biceps & triceps brachii).

A

What is multiheaded/multibellied muscle?

224
Q

The {…} is usually the proximal end of the muscle, which remains fixed during muscular contraction, and the {…} is usually the distal end of the muscle, which is moveable.

A

1) Origin
2) Insertion

225
Q

This type of muscle contraction is automatic and, therefore, is not voluntarily controlled.

A

What is reflexive contraction?

226
Q

This type of muscle contraction does not produce movement or active resistance but gives the muscle a certain firmness, assisting the stability of joints and the maintenance of posture, while keeping the muscle ready to respond to appropriate stimuli.

A

What is tonic contraction or muscle tone?

227
Q

This type of muscle contraction is active and voluntary.

A

What is phasic contraction?

228
Q

This type of phasic contraction occurs when the muscle changes length in relation to the production of movement.

A

What is isotonic?

229
Q

This type of phasic contraction occurs when muscle length remains the same—no movement occurs, but the force (muscle tension) is increased above tonic levels to resist gravity or other antagonistic forces.

A

What is isometric?

230
Q

This type of isotonic contraction occurs when muscle shortens, such as when lifting a cup, pushing a door, or striking a blow.

A

What is concentric contraction?

231
Q

This type of isotonic contraction occurs when a contracting muscle lengthens.

A

What is eccentric contraction?

232
Q

The functional unit of a muscle, consisting of a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it controls.

A

What is a motor unit?

233
Q

The main muscle repsonsible for producing a specific movement of the body; it contracts concentrically and does most of the work.

A

What is the prime mover?

234
Q

The muscle that steadies the proximal parts of a limb through isometric contraction while movements are occurring in distal parts.

A

What is a fixator?

235
Q

The muscle that opposes the action of another muscle.

A

What is an antagonist?

236
Q

This type of muscle acts to maintain contact between the articular surfaces of the joint it crosses (i.e., it resists dislocating forces).

A

What is a shunt muscle?

237
Q

This type of muscle is more capable of rapid and effective movement (e.g., the deltoid) due to the line of pull being more oblique to the bone it moves.

A

What is a spurt muscle?

238
Q

These nerves supply skeletal muscles, entering the fleshy portion of the muscle, almost always from the deep aspect.

A

What are motor nerves?

Gross Anatomy (14 decks)

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