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molbio > MOLBIO MIDTERMS > Flashcards

MOLBIO MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statement is
FALSE?

A

-The PCR is usually done in a reaction
volume of 10 – 200 ml in small tubes in a
thermal cycler.

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2
Q

SNPs are detected by Allele-Specific PCR
by

A

-using Allele-specific primers

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3
Q

Which is INCORRECT about SNPs?

A

-They usually affect health and
development.

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4
Q

This is added to determine if you have
contaminants on your DNA

A

Controls

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5
Q

Principle of separation in Capillary zone
electrophoresis

A

Charge-to-mass ratio

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6
Q

Statements below describes polyacrylamide
gel EXCEPT

A

Mobility does not depend on DNA
sequence

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7
Q

Extension time is set for () base pairs of
DNA per minute

A

1000

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8
Q

In array-based CGH, what is the sample
used?

A

mRNA

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9
Q

In Gel Electrophoresis, how do we make the
DNA migrate through the gel?

A

We place a positive electrode away from
the wells

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10
Q

This is a type of PRGE in which two fields
are arranged in separated straight angle

A

FIELD INVERSION GE ELECTRO

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11
Q

After heating and cooling the mixture, which
of the following catalyzes the synthesis of
complementary strands of DNA?

A

Taq polymerase

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12
Q

Low annealing temperature leads to some
mismatches

A

True

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13
Q

Pfu polymerase is superior over Taq
polymerase because:

A

of more accurate amplification

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14
Q

Which is INCORRECT about ASO
hybridization?

A

The result is analyzed using gel
electrophoresis

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15
Q

When setting up a Sanger sequencing
reaction, each reaction should include
template DNA, deoxyribonucleotides,
dideoxyribonucleotides, buffer, DNA
polymerase, and

A

Forward OR reverse primer

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16
Q

What would be the effect on the PCR
reaction if any of the following
circumstances arose: 1) there are no primers
in the reaction, 2) enough dNTPs in the
reaction, 3) there is Taq polymerase in the
reaction?

A

Amplicons will not be produced, false
negative result.

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17
Q

Nonspecific amplification may be a result of
adding:

A

5.5 mM MgCl2+

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18
Q

The PCR technique was developed by

A

Mullis

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19
Q

Among those listed below, which is most
common mutation effect that leads to the
development on cancer?

A

Increase in the activity of a protein.

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20
Q

TRUE for agarose gels

A

High voltage in a high agarose
concentration can resolve small DNAs

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21
Q

Why do you need to prepare an extra
volume in your Master Mix?

A

To compensate pipetting errors

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22
Q

What will happen if too much enzyme is
added to the reaction?

A

Digestion reaction may fail

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23
Q

At what temperature does annealing of
primers to the template takes place?

A
  • 47-60˚C
    -10-20˚C below the melting point of primer
    -5˚C below the melting point of primer
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24
Q

LAMP PCR requires this range of
temperature:

A

60-65°C

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25
Q

The sequence recognized by the enzyme is
the same in the forward and reverse sense.

A

palindromic restriction
endonuclease

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26
Q

Example of spontaneously generated
mutation:

A

Uncorrected error committed by DNA
polymerase

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27
Q

Which of the following is not a practice for
autoclaving?

A

All items should have a masking tape

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28
Q

What makes Sanger technique superior over
Maxam-Gilbert technique for DNA
sequencing?

A
  • Uses less hazardous reagents
    -Can sequence longer DNA
    -It is widely used for sequencing
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29
Q

DNA length is measured in units called

A

base pairs

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30
Q

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point
mutation in the hemoglobin gene, resulting
in the substitution of a single amino acid in
the mature protein. This mutation could be
detected by all of the following methods
EXCEPT:

A

Western blot analysis

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31
Q

It uses pressurized steam to kill infectious
agents

A

Autoclaving

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32
Q

It is the standard concentration used in
staining DNA in gels

A

-0.5 – 1 ug/ml

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33
Q

Acts as a cofactor to create the DNA chain

A

Magnesium ions

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34
Q

After chemical modification of bases, this reagent will generate breaks on the strands

A

Piperidine

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35
Q

-Inhibits the reaction of thymine for the Conly reaction

A

Hydrazine + Salt

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36
Q

Hydrolyzes pyrimidines

A

Hydrazine

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37
Q

Modifies purine bases in the template

A

Formic acid

38
Q

Adds methyl group to Guanine

A

Dimethylsulphate

39
Q

Fidelity in amplification may be decreased
in which of the following conditions?

A

Increased concentrations of dNTPs

40
Q

Which of the following IS NOT a biological
activity of Reverse transcriptase?

A

DNA ligase activity

41
Q

It is routinely used to stain DNA in agarose
and polyacrylamide gels

A

Ethidium bromide

42
Q

Which is INCORRECT regarding
Restriction Endonucleases applied in
molecular techniques?

A

-They have modification activity.

43
Q

It protects the host DNA from being
cleaved.

A

Methyltransferase

44
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for
optimizing a primer?

A

Optimal G-C content should range between
40-60%.

45
Q

Which stage of a PCR is affected by the
primers’ melting temperature?

A

Annealing

46
Q

What is the most widely used sequencing
technique principle?

A

-Chain termination sequencing

47
Q

Which is the easiest, fastest and most
economical method of detecting mutation?

A

DNA sequencing

48
Q

It is a premixed solution that contains most
of the components necessary to run a PCR
assay

A

Master Mix

49
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

A

Check if there is a buffer that indicates 25%
activity for each enzyme

50
Q

This conformation is the fastest to migrate in
an agarose gel

A

Form I

51
Q

What is the volume of dNTPs in a 50ul
reaction if the stock concentration = 10mM;
Final concentration= 0.2mM?

A

-1ul

52
Q

In this type of electrophoresis, the mobility
of DNA molecules is highly dependent on
the electrical field applied to the gel

A

-Pulsed-field electrophoresis

53
Q

PCR variant that requires partitioning of the
template:

A

Digital PCR

54
Q

How many types of dDNTPs are used in
Sanger technique?

A

4

55
Q

Which of the following is a chemical
sequencing method?

A

Maxam-Gilbert

56
Q

What is the difference between a
deoxyribonucleotide and a
dideoxyribonucleotide?

A

A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 3’-
hydroxyl group on its sugar.

57
Q

This is a modification of PCR which is
designed to improve sensitivity and
specificity of amplification.

A

Nested PCR

58
Q

What will happen if there is a low
concentration of MgCl in the reaction?

A

No PCR product will be seen

59
Q

Sickle cell anemia is an example of

A

-Missense mutation

60
Q

Which of the following statement is TRUE?

A

Reaction conditions will vary based on the
enzyme.

61
Q

PCR Supermix is a ready-to-use mixture of
DNA polymerase, salts, magnesium and
dNTPs for efficient amplification.

A

TRUE

62
Q

This PCR method is also used to detect
different viral, bacterial and other pathogens
in a single reaction.

A

Multiplex PCR

63
Q

Which technique uses southern blotting?

A

-RFLP

64
Q

Why do the restriction endonucleases NOT
cleave the genome of the microorganism
they belong to?

A

Because the sequences recognized by the
endonuclease are appropriately methylated
in the genomic DNA for their protection.

65
Q

Single stranded nucleic acid primer
sequences may form hairpin loop due to the
presence of:

A

complementary sequences within its length

66
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for EtBr?

A

Bands with DNA of less than 5 ng DNA
may not be visible after staining

67
Q

How many DNA duplex is obtained from
one DNA duplex after 3 cycles of PCR?

A

8

68
Q

Which statement is a FALSE statement?

A

All mutations have harmful effects on an
individual.

69
Q

The restriction enzyme SmaI recognizes a 6-
base pair, “palindromic” sequence in double
stranded DNA. The first three bases of one
strand are given: 5´ C C C ()()() 3´. What are
the last three bases of this restriction site?

A

-G G G

70
Q

To sequence DNA by Sanger method, the
DNA must first be made in single stranded
form.

A

True

71
Q

Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from

A

Thermus aquaticus

72
Q

Which is INCORRECT regarding restriction
endonucleases?

A

Cleave methylated DNA

73
Q

Which of the following recommended
concentrations or volume is a mismatched?

A

MgCl2+ : 1.0-6.0 mM

74
Q

A DNA fragment was cut by HaeIII into
three fragments and PstI cuts into two
fragments. How many DNA bands do you
expect from a double digest in gel
electrophoresis?

A

5

75
Q

The recognition site of the restriction
endonuclease BalI is 5’ T G G C C A 3’. If it
cuts the site between G and C, what type
ends will be produced?

A

Blunt ends

76
Q

When a dideoxyribonucleotide is added to
the DNA strands being synthesized:

A

replication of the strand stops

77
Q

Which consists of primer molecules that
have attached to each other because of
strings of complementary bases in the
primers?

A

-Primer dimers

78
Q

What type of bonds is present during
gelation?

A

Hydrogen bond

79
Q

What is the temperature that breaks apart
hydrogen bonds during denaturing stage?

A

-95°C

80
Q

Which is INCORRECT regarding restriction
endonucleases?

A

They degrade DNA completely

81
Q

Agarose gel is matrix

A

Negatively charged

82
Q

Which of the following statements is true
about migration of biomolecules?

A

Rate of migration is directly proportional to
current

83
Q

Which of the following sequencing
techniques requires strands amplification?

A

Chain termination sequencing

84
Q

Which is INCORRECT regarding AlleleSpecific PCR?

A

It requires blotting on a nylon membrane

85
Q

Which DOES NOT use restriction
endonucleases?

A

DNA microarray

86
Q

Low to no yield of PCR products may be a
result of which of the following?

A

-Decreased MgCl2+ and decreased dNTPs

87
Q

What are the factors to consider in choosing
a DNA polymerase?

A

-Thermostability
-Specificity
-Fidelity

88
Q

If a restriction endonuclease has only one
cleavage site in a circular plasmid DNA,
how many bands do you expect in gel
electrophoresis?

A

one

89
Q

It is the tracking dye to monitor the progress
of gel electrophoresis

A

Bromphenol blue

90
Q

To sequence DNA by Maxam-Gilbert
method, the DNA must first be made in
single stranded form.

A

true

91
Q

Which of the following PCR Techniques is
used for mass testing for COVID19
infection?

A

Reverse Transcription Real-Time PCR

molbio (17 decks)

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