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MOLBIO MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statement is
FALSE?

A

-The PCR is usually done in a reaction
volume of 10 – 200 ml in small tubes in a
thermal cycler.

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2
Q

SNPs are detected by Allele-Specific PCR
by

A

-using Allele-specific primers

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3
Q

Which is INCORRECT about SNPs?

A

-They usually affect health and
development.

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4
Q

This is added to determine if you have
contaminants on your DNA

A

Controls

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5
Q

Principle of separation in Capillary zone
electrophoresis

A

Charge-to-mass ratio

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6
Q

Statements below describes polyacrylamide
gel EXCEPT

A

Mobility does not depend on DNA
sequence

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7
Q

Extension time is set for () base pairs of
DNA per minute

A

1000

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8
Q

In array-based CGH, what is the sample
used?

A

mRNA

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9
Q

In Gel Electrophoresis, how do we make the
DNA migrate through the gel?

A

We place a positive electrode away from
the wells

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10
Q

This is a type of PRGE in which two fields
are arranged in separated straight angle

A

FIELD INVERSION GE ELECTRO

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11
Q

After heating and cooling the mixture, which
of the following catalyzes the synthesis of
complementary strands of DNA?

A

Taq polymerase

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12
Q

Low annealing temperature leads to some
mismatches

A

True

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13
Q

Pfu polymerase is superior over Taq
polymerase because:

A

of more accurate amplification

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14
Q

Which is INCORRECT about ASO
hybridization?

A

The result is analyzed using gel
electrophoresis

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15
Q

When setting up a Sanger sequencing
reaction, each reaction should include
template DNA, deoxyribonucleotides,
dideoxyribonucleotides, buffer, DNA
polymerase, and

A

Forward OR reverse primer

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16
Q

What would be the effect on the PCR
reaction if any of the following
circumstances arose: 1) there are no primers
in the reaction, 2) enough dNTPs in the
reaction, 3) there is Taq polymerase in the
reaction?

A

Amplicons will not be produced, false
negative result.

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17
Q

Nonspecific amplification may be a result of
adding:

A

5.5 mM MgCl2+

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18
Q

The PCR technique was developed by

A

Mullis

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19
Q

Among those listed below, which is most
common mutation effect that leads to the
development on cancer?

A

Increase in the activity of a protein.

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20
Q

TRUE for agarose gels

A

High voltage in a high agarose
concentration can resolve small DNAs

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21
Q

Why do you need to prepare an extra
volume in your Master Mix?

A

To compensate pipetting errors

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22
Q

What will happen if too much enzyme is
added to the reaction?

A

Digestion reaction may fail

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23
Q

At what temperature does annealing of
primers to the template takes place?

A
  • 47-60˚C
    -10-20˚C below the melting point of primer
    -5˚C below the melting point of primer
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24
Q

LAMP PCR requires this range of
temperature:

A

60-65°C

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25
The sequence recognized by the enzyme is the same in the forward and reverse sense.
palindromic restriction endonuclease
26
Example of spontaneously generated mutation:
Uncorrected error committed by DNA polymerase
27
Which of the following is not a practice for autoclaving?
All items should have a masking tape
28
What makes Sanger technique superior over Maxam-Gilbert technique for DNA sequencing?
- Uses less hazardous reagents -Can sequence longer DNA -It is widely used for sequencing
29
DNA length is measured in units called
base pairs
30
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the hemoglobin gene, resulting in the substitution of a single amino acid in the mature protein. This mutation could be detected by all of the following methods EXCEPT:
Western blot analysis
31
It uses pressurized steam to kill infectious agents
Autoclaving
32
It is the standard concentration used in staining DNA in gels
-0.5 – 1 ug/ml
33
Acts as a cofactor to create the DNA chain
Magnesium ions
34
After chemical modification of bases, this reagent will generate breaks on the strands
Piperidine
35
-Inhibits the reaction of thymine for the Conly reaction
Hydrazine + Salt
36
Hydrolyzes pyrimidines
Hydrazine
37
Modifies purine bases in the template
Formic acid
38
Adds methyl group to Guanine
Dimethylsulphate
39
Fidelity in amplification may be decreased in which of the following conditions?
Increased concentrations of dNTPs
40
Which of the following IS NOT a biological activity of Reverse transcriptase?
DNA ligase activity
41
It is routinely used to stain DNA in agarose and polyacrylamide gels
Ethidium bromide
42
Which is INCORRECT regarding Restriction Endonucleases applied in molecular techniques?
-They have modification activity.
43
It protects the host DNA from being cleaved.
Methyltransferase
44
Which of the following is TRUE for optimizing a primer?
Optimal G-C content should range between 40-60%.
45
Which stage of a PCR is affected by the primers’ melting temperature?
Annealing
46
What is the most widely used sequencing technique principle?
-Chain termination sequencing
47
Which is the easiest, fastest and most economical method of detecting mutation?
DNA sequencing
48
It is a premixed solution that contains most of the components necessary to run a PCR assay
Master Mix
49
Which of the following is FALSE?
Check if there is a buffer that indicates 25% activity for each enzyme
50
This conformation is the fastest to migrate in an agarose gel
Form I
51
What is the volume of dNTPs in a 50ul reaction if the stock concentration = 10mM; Final concentration= 0.2mM?
-1ul
52
In this type of electrophoresis, the mobility of DNA molecules is highly dependent on the electrical field applied to the gel
-Pulsed-field electrophoresis
53
PCR variant that requires partitioning of the template:
Digital PCR
54
How many types of dDNTPs are used in Sanger technique?
4
55
Which of the following is a chemical sequencing method?
Maxam-Gilbert
56
What is the difference between a deoxyribonucleotide and a dideoxyribonucleotide?
A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 3'- hydroxyl group on its sugar.
57
This is a modification of PCR which is designed to improve sensitivity and specificity of amplification.
Nested PCR
58
What will happen if there is a low concentration of MgCl in the reaction?
No PCR product will be seen
59
Sickle cell anemia is an example of
-Missense mutation
60
Which of the following statement is TRUE?
Reaction conditions will vary based on the enzyme.
61
PCR Supermix is a ready-to-use mixture of DNA polymerase, salts, magnesium and dNTPs for efficient amplification.
TRUE
62
This PCR method is also used to detect different viral, bacterial and other pathogens in a single reaction.
Multiplex PCR
63
Which technique uses southern blotting?
-RFLP
64
Why do the restriction endonucleases NOT cleave the genome of the microorganism they belong to?
Because the sequences recognized by the endonuclease are appropriately methylated in the genomic DNA for their protection.
65
Single stranded nucleic acid primer sequences may form hairpin loop due to the presence of:
complementary sequences within its length
66
Which of the following is TRUE for EtBr?
Bands with DNA of less than 5 ng DNA may not be visible after staining
67
How many DNA duplex is obtained from one DNA duplex after 3 cycles of PCR?
8
68
Which statement is a FALSE statement?
All mutations have harmful effects on an individual.
69
The restriction enzyme SmaI recognizes a 6- base pair, “palindromic” sequence in double stranded DNA. The first three bases of one strand are given: 5´ C C C ()()() 3´. What are the last three bases of this restriction site?
-G G G
70
To sequence DNA by Sanger method, the DNA must first be made in single stranded form.
True
71
Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from
Thermus aquaticus
72
Which is INCORRECT regarding restriction endonucleases?
Cleave methylated DNA
73
Which of the following recommended concentrations or volume is a mismatched?
MgCl2+ : 1.0-6.0 mM
74
A DNA fragment was cut by HaeIII into three fragments and PstI cuts into two fragments. How many DNA bands do you expect from a double digest in gel electrophoresis?
5
75
The recognition site of the restriction endonuclease BalI is 5’ T G G C C A 3’. If it cuts the site between G and C, what type ends will be produced?
Blunt ends
76
When a dideoxyribonucleotide is added to the DNA strands being synthesized:
replication of the strand stops
77
Which consists of primer molecules that have attached to each other because of strings of complementary bases in the primers?
-Primer dimers
78
What type of bonds is present during gelation?
Hydrogen bond
79
What is the temperature that breaks apart hydrogen bonds during denaturing stage?
-95°C
80
Which is INCORRECT regarding restriction endonucleases?
They degrade DNA completely
81
Agarose gel is matrix
Negatively charged
82
Which of the following statements is true about migration of biomolecules?
Rate of migration is directly proportional to current
83
Which of the following sequencing techniques requires strands amplification?
Chain termination sequencing
84
Which is INCORRECT regarding AlleleSpecific PCR?
It requires blotting on a nylon membrane
85
Which DOES NOT use restriction endonucleases?
DNA microarray
86
Low to no yield of PCR products may be a result of which of the following?
-Decreased MgCl2+ and decreased dNTPs
87
What are the factors to consider in choosing a DNA polymerase?
-Thermostability -Specificity -Fidelity
88
If a restriction endonuclease has only one cleavage site in a circular plasmid DNA, how many bands do you expect in gel electrophoresis?
one
89
It is the tracking dye to monitor the progress of gel electrophoresis
Bromphenol blue
90
To sequence DNA by Maxam-Gilbert method, the DNA must first be made in single stranded form.
true
91
Which of the following PCR Techniques is used for mass testing for COVID19 infection?
Reverse Transcription Real-Time PCR

molbio (17 decks)

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