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molbio > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

conditions or diseases associated with
pathogens.

A

Infectious Diseases

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2
Q

microorganisms or microbes which
has the capability to cause diseases.

A

Pathogens

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3
Q

Most commonly encountered pathogens are

A

bacteria, fungi, virus, & parasites

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4
Q

HOW TO IDENTIFY THAT A DISEASE/CONDITION IS
CAUSED BY AN INFECTIOUS AGENT?

A
  • diagnosis itself is done by the physician.
  • MedTech isolates the pathogens from different clinical
    specimens.
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5
Q
  • Classical or traditional way of identifying organisms.
  • Phenotype focuses more on the physiologic properties of
    microorganisms.
    o Dealing with something we can observe either
    through the naked eye or with microscope
A

PHENOTYPING ANALYSIS

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6
Q

Most common example of microscopic assays for identifying
is through the ____

o To determine the absence or presence of a
microorganism on the sample
o _____ has no name yet.

A

Staining Procedure

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7
Q

One of the most important artificial environments is
the______

A

culture medium

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8
Q

Nucleic Acid Amplification Techniques

  • The molecular detection of pathogens directly in clinical specimens such as blood, tissue, bronchoalveolar lavage
    fluid, and other body fluids most often is accomplished
    through PCR-BASE AMPLIFICATION
A

DIAGNOSIS USING NAATS

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9
Q
  • This technique can overcome low sensitivity to improve the
    specificity of conventional phenotypic tests.
A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Techniques

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10
Q

Common target for the following microorganisms:

A

▪ Bacteria – 16S rRNA or 23S rRNA
▪ Fungi – 18S rRNA

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11
Q
  • The most common sequencing assay is Next Generation
    Sequencing (NGS) technique.
  • Under the sequencing assay, the most common target is
    the 16S rRNA.
A

DIAGNOSIS WITH SEQUENCING

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12
Q
  • _____ are fastidious, facultative, intracellular zoonotic, and arthropod vector-borne bacteria distributed among mammalian reservoirs worldwide
  • unique feature of these species is that they are under
    the group of Spirochetes
A

BARTONELLAE SPECIES

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13
Q

Because of their hemotropic lifestyle, Bartonellae typically are transmitted by
arthropods within mammalian reservoir
communities

A

blood-sucking

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14
Q
  • fever,
  • malaise,
  • headache,
  • rash,
  • lymphadenopathy,
  • psychiatric disorder,
  • bone and joint pain,
  • anemia,
  • various inflammatory
  • vascular proliferative disorders.
A

symptoms associated with Bartonella infections

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15
Q
  • One of the mostcommon arthropod associated with Borrelia species are TICKS
  • Infected with this genus is associated with a unique sign which is a characteristic bull’s eye like rash.
A

TICKS

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16
Q

Using the traditional microbiology method for diagnosing
bacterial isolate, this species may actually be seen by ____

A

performing blood smear preparation

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17
Q
  • These bacteria are a known cause of sexually transmitted
    diseases (STDs) in the United States.
  • They are clinically important because majority of the
    infected individuals are presented as having asymptomatic
    (mild) signs and symptoms.
A

CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS

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18
Q

one of the best and common targets
for amplification technique because it contains introns which can be amplified via a multicopy

A

CRYPTIC PLASMID

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19
Q
  • For detecting the transmission pattern or the pattern of
    spread
  • For forensic purposes for cases associated with sexual
    assault
  • Typing is based mainly on discrimination of the 15 different
    serovars encoded by the ompA (omp1) gene
    o Different strains can be detected using the
    particular technique
A

REASONS AND APPLICATIONS OF TYPING CHLAMYDIA
TRACHOMATIS

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20
Q
  • Another organism that is difficult to grow using the classical method because they are considered as anaerobic organism.
A

CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICILEA

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21
Q

an anaerobic, Gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus that can be found in the environment and the gastrointestinal tract of animals and humans

A

C. difficile

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22
Q

The main reason why this is the most commonly used assay is because the bacteria become pathogenic when it
releases a toxin

A

TISSUE CULTURE CYTOTOXIN ASSAY

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23
Q
  • It is a one-step, rapid, and specific screening method for C.
    difficile toxin genes.
A

MULTIPLEX PCR

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24
Q
  • common cause of upper and lower respiratory tract infections in children and adults
  • recognized as one of the most common pathogens causing
    community-acquired pneumonia in
    certain populations, especially in children among whom infection can lead to severe pneumonia requiring
    hospitalization.
  • It does not retain any dye (stain). Thus, their presence cannot be observed because it is the only bacteria that does
    not contain a cell wall
A

MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE

25
Q

To detect this species, the most widely applied NAAT for
detection is ____

A

PCR

26
Q

o 16S rRNA
o P1 – most commonly used and best targets for
identification. It contains the signature sequence of
the species.
o Tuf
o parE
o dnak
o pdhA
o ATPase operon
o CARDS toxin gene (mpn372)
o repMp1

A

different gene targets

27
Q
  • includes Gram-negative, small, obligate intracellular, nonmotile, pleomorphic coccobacilli bacteria transmitted by
    arthropods.
  • main clinical manifestations of a ____ syndrome in humans are fever, rash, and eschar with different
    combinations, but they are not pathognomonic.
A

RICKETTA SPECIES

28
Q

THREE SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS

A
  • Fever
  • Rash
  • Eschar (blackening of the infected area)
29
Q

based mainly on recognition of
sequences from different targets:
o 16S rRNA gene
o Protein-coding genes (i.e., outer membrane
protein)

A

Molecular detection

30
Q

considered as the best specimen to use

A

skin or eschar biopsy and
autopsy organ tissue

31
Q

In specific situations in which there are no other options, _______ also can be performed from plasma, serum, paraffin-embedded tissues, or even fixed-slide specimens.

A

molecular detection

32
Q

It is one of the most common isolates in the laboratory.

  • . In a classical method of culturing microorganisms, S. aureus are
    most isolated because it causes a wide variation of
    diseases.
A

STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS

33
Q

MOLECULAR TECHNIQUES USED FOR DETECTION

A
  • PCR
  • REAL-TIME-PCR
  • WHOLE GENOME SEQUENCING
34
Q

best molecular diagnostic tool for MRSA detection

A

PCR

35
Q

latest development in the direct MRSA
detection and identification

A

Real-time PCR

36
Q

method that could be used to predict resistance, assess virulence, and type
isolates at the highest possible resolution.

A

Whole Genome Sequencing

37
Q
  • Also, a causative agent of pneumonia.
  • Primers used in PCR testing are specific to repetitive
    regions and genes encoding:
    o rRNA
    o Pneumococcal surface adhesion A molecule
    (psaA)
    o Pneumolysin (ply)
    o Penicillin binding protein
    o Autolysin (lytA) – best and most commonly used
A

STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE

38
Q
  • It is a counterpart of S. aureus because it also causes a
    wide variety of infections and conditions.
  • It is also termed as Group A Streptococcus (GAS).
A

STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES

39
Q

identifies specific rRNA sequences of
Streptococcus pyogenes in pharyngeal specimens by a single-stranded chemiluminescent nucleic acid probe

A

GASDirect test

40
Q

o It is applied for primary testing
o It is used as a backup test to negative antigen tests
o Batch screening of throat cultures

A

MAIN ADVANTAGES OF THE ASSAY

41
Q
  • the leading cause of neonatal
    sepsis and meningitis and is responsible for high mortality
    and morbidity, particularly in invasive infections of neonates.
  • It is also an important pathogen in elderly patients and those with underlying diseases that impair immunological defense mechanisms against pathogenic microbes.
  • It is also known as Group B Streptococcus (GBS).
A

STREPTOCOCCUS AGALTIAE

42
Q
  • Instead of the newborn, the mother is screened for the
    detection of the colonization of GBS.

o The mother is screened because some female
individuals contain colonization of GBS in their
vaginal area.
o A vaginal swab or rectal swab are performed.

A

CULTURE METHOD

43
Q
  • Performed for the rapid detection of GBS
  • Main target genes include:
    o sip
    o cfb – responsible for the release of CAMP factor
    and the most commonly used for detection
    o scpB
    o ptsI
A

CONVENTIONAL AND REAL-TIME PCR ASSAYS

44
Q
  • It uses probes that targets the cfb gene.
  • When using this technique, 4 to 6 primers are used and
    detection of the species is within 90 minutes
A

LAMP METHOD

45
Q
  • through PCR Probes and PCR Formats.
  • directly in clinical specimens most often is accomplished through PCR-based DNA amplification or isothermal amplification
  • The main targets include: rDNA, cytochrome b, β-tubulin,
    calmodulin, enolase, chitin synthase, and heat-shock
    protein.
  • Aside from amplification techniques, sequencing techniques
    can also be used.
A

MOLECULAR DETECTION OF FUNGI

46
Q
  • Aspergillosis, defined as an infection caused by organisms
    included in the genus Aspergillus, constitutes a spectrum of
    diseases that range from allergic reactions to disseminated
    disease in immunocompromised hosts
  • Majority focuses on this species among clinically significant
    fungi
A

ASPERGILLUS

47
Q

rapid and accurate diagnosis

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests (NAATs)

48
Q

targeting fungal rDNA have been used for the detection of Aspergillus in fresh and FFPE tissues without requiring nucleic acid extraction or
amplification

A

In situ hybridization (ISH) probes

49
Q
  • classified as a member of the family Retroviridae and genus Lentivirus based on the biological, morphological,
    and genetic properties.
    -
A

HUMAN IMMUNODEFCIENCY VIRUS

50
Q

the most virulent and pathogenic, and
when people talk about HIV without stating the
type of virus they usually are referring to HIV-1.
This occurs globally

A

HIV-1

51
Q

constrained only to some areas of Central and Western Africa.

A

HIV-2

52
Q

Codes for CORE
STRUCTURAL
CHON
Main focus of
molecular
detection – P24

A

gag

53
Q
  • Transcribes RNA
    into DNA
  • Degrades RNA
  • Makes HIV
    particles into
    complete and
    functional HIV
    virus
  • Inserts viral DNA
    into host DNA
A

pol (polymerase)

54
Q
  • Binds to CD4
    receptors
  • Required for viral
    fusion of the cell
A

env (envelope)

55
Q

One of the most commonly performed confirmatory test for HIV detection is through______

A

WESTERN BLOT and ENZYME
BASED PCR

55
Q

One of the most commonly performed confirmatory test for HIV detection is through______

A

WESTERN BLOT and ENZYME
BASED PCR

56
Q
  • It contains lots of strains which causes different types of
    infection
  • highly tissue tropic, and infection is limited to
    stratified epithelium at either cutaneous or mucosal
    surfaces, usually at specific body sites
  • The vast majority of HPV types cause benign warts of the
    skin or genital region.
A

HUMAN PAPILLOMAVIRUS

57
Q
  • of genomic organization of HPV16
    ORF. P97 refers to dominant promoter.
  • All PVs are similar in their genetic organization and
    appearance under electron microscope. URR, upstream
    regulatory region.
  • Medically important gene that is targeted/detected is the E6
    and E7.
A

SCHEMATIC DIAGRAM OF HPV 16 AND HPV 18

58
Q
  • Viral hepatitis is a serious public health problem requiring
    early diagnosis and timely treatment.
  • A number of hepatitis viruses already have been characterized based on their molecular structure and named alphabetically as hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D, E, and G (HAV, HBV, HCV, HDV, HEV, and HGV, respectively).
  • These are hepatotropic and noncytopathic in nature and
    cause liver damage by immune mediated cell lysis.
A

HEPATITIS VIRUSES

molbio (17 decks)

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