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molbio > Molbio midtermquiz > Flashcards

Molbio midtermquiz Flashcards

1
Q

After heating and cooling the mixture, which of the following catalyzes the synthesis of complementary strands of
DNA?
a. ribonucleotides
b. Taq polymerase
c. deoxyribonucleotides
d. DNA molecules

A

Taq polymerase

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2
Q

DNA is visualized by including in the gel an intercalating dye is:
a. eosin dye
b. basic dye
c. ethidium bromide.
d. methylene blue

A

ethidium bromide.

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3
Q

Pfu polymerase is superior over Taq polymerase because:
a. of lesser quantity of enzyme required
b. of lower temperature required
c. of faster polymerase activity
d. of more accurate amplification

A

of more accurate amplification

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4
Q

Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from _____________.
a. Homo sapiens
b. Escherichia coli
c. Thermus aquaticus
d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

A

Thermus aquaticus

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5
Q

A method that requires a set of four specifically designed primers that can recognize six distinct regions on the
target DNA
a. SDA
b. LAMP
c. RPA
d. RCA

A

LAMP

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6
Q

A technique used to amplify multiple target sequences in a single PCR reaction using multiple primer sets.
a. Loop Mediated Isothermal Amplification
b. Real-Time PCR
c. Conventional PCR
d. Multiplex PCR

A

Multiplex PCR

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7
Q

An enzyme that uses RNA as the template to make complementary DNA (cDNA)
a. DNA Polymerase
b. Taq Polymerase
c. Oligo Dt primer
d. Reverse Transcriptase

A

Reverse Transcriptase

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8
Q

Fidelity in amplification may be decreased in which of the following conditions?
a. Increased concentrations of Taq polymerase
b. Increased concentrations of dNTPs
c. Decreased concentrations of dNTPs
d. Decreased MgCl2

A

Increased concentrations of dNTPs

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9
Q

It is adjusted to a value above the background of the reaction
a. Sample
b. Threshold
c. Internal control
d. Baseline

A

Threshold

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10
Q

Low to no yield of PCR products may be a result of which of the following
a. Decreased MgCl2 and Increased dNTPs
b. Increased MgCl2 and Decreased dNTPs
c. None
d. Decreased MgCl2 and Decreased dNTPs

A

Decreased MgCl2 and Decreased dNTPs

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11
Q

Small fluorescent molecules that are attached to oligonucleotides in order to function as probes
a. Reporter
b. Fluorescence
c. Fluorophores
d. Quencher

A

Fluorophores

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12
Q

Their mechanism of action relies on the 5′–3′ exonuclease activity of Taq polymerase
a. Hydrolysis Probe
b. Analogues of nucleic acids
c. Scorpion Primer probe
d. Cyclicons

A

Hydrolysis Probe

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13
Q

This PCR technique was designed to to improve sensitivity and specificity.
a. Loop Mediated Isothermal Amplification
b. Nested PCR
c. Multiplex PCR
d. Real-Time PCR

A

Nested PCR

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14
Q

What would be the effect on the PCR reaction if any of the following circumstances arose:
1) there are no primers in
the reaction,
2) enough dNTPs
3) there is Taq polymerase in the reaction?

a. Non-specific PCR of random templates will occur
b. PCR would proceed normally
c. Amplicons will not be produced, false negative result
d. The reaction will cease after a few cycles

A

Amplicons will not be produced, false negative result

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15
Q

Which consists of primer molecules that have attached to each other because of strings of complementary bases
in the primers?
a. Primer dimers
b. Hairpin loops
c. Thymidine dimers
d. Amplicons

A

Primer dimers

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16
Q

Which of the following PCR techniques is the gold standard for testing COVID-19 infection?
a. Real-Time PCR
b. Loop Mediated Isothermal Amplification
c. Multiplex PCR
d. Conventional PCR

A

Real-Time PCR

17
Q

What is the difference between a deoxyribonucleotide and a dideoxyribonucleotide?
a. A deoxynucleotide is missing a 5’-phosphate group.
b. A deoxynucleotide is missing a 3’-hydroxyl group on its sugar.
c. A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 5’-phosphate group.
d. A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 3’- hydroxyl group on its sugar.

A

d. A dideoxynucleotide is missing a 3’- hydroxyl group on its sugar

18
Q

To sequence DNA by Maxam-Gilbert method, the DNA must first be made in single stranded form.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

TRUE

19
Q

Which of the following is a chemical sequencing method?
a. DNA chip sequencing
b. Real-time PCR
c. Sanger
d. Maxam-Gilbert

A

Maxam-Gilbert

20
Q

How many types of dDNTPs are used in Sanger technique?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1

A

4

21
Q

When setting up a Sanger sequencing reaction, each reaction should include template DNA, deoxyribonucleotides,
dideoxyribonucleotides, buffer, DNA polymerase, and _______.
a. Forward AND reverse DNA probes
b. Forward OR reverse DNA probes
c. Forward AND reverse primers
d. Forward OR reverse primer

A

Forward OR reverse primer

22
Q

When a dideoxyribonucleotide is added to the DNA strands being synthesized:
a. replication of the strand is speeded up
b. replication of the strand stops
c. replication of the strand is not affected
d. replication of the strand continues

A

replication of the strand stops

23
Q

What is the most widely used sequencing technique principle?
a. Chemical modification sequencing
b. A and B
c. Maxam-Gilbert sequencing
d. Chain termination sequencing

A

Chain termination sequencing

24
Q

To sequence DNA by Sanger method, the DNA must first be made in single stranded form.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

A

TRUE

25
Q

Which of the following sequencing techniques requires strands amplification?
a. Chemical modification sequencing
b. Chain termination sequencing
c. Maxam-Gilbert sequencing
d. A and

A

Chain termination sequencing

26
Q

Mrr
a. Type IV
b. Type III
c. Type I
d. Type II

A

Type IV

27
Q

ATP, SAM, Mg2+
a. Type I
b. Type IV
c. Type III
d. Type II

A

Type I

28
Q

Cleaves at sites away from recognition site
a. Type III
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type I

A

Type I

29
Q

Cleave at sites 25-27 bp from recognition site
a. Type III
b. Type IV
c. Type I
d. Type II

A

Type III

30
Q

EcoB
a. Type II
b. Type IV
c. Type III
d. Type I

A

Type I

31
Q

Cleave close to or within recognition sequence
a. Type III
b. Type IV
c. Type II
d. Type I

A

Type IV

32
Q

Cleave within or at a short distance from the recognition site
a. Type IV
b. Type I
c. Type II
d. Type III

A

Type II

33
Q

ATP, Mg2+
a. Type III
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type I

A

Type III

34
Q

EcoPI
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type III

A

Type III

35
Q

BamHI
a. Type IV
b. Type I
c. Type III
d. Type II

A

Type II

molbio (17 decks)

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