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molbio > MOLBIO FINALS > Flashcards

MOLBIO FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

DNA extraction from plant tissues are
difficult due to

A

Presence of secondary metabolism and
polysaccharides

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2
Q

In inorganic extraction of RNA, proteins and
DNA are precipitated using

A

High Salt Concentration

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3
Q

A ready-to-use reagent used for cell lysis for
RNA extraction

A

TRizol

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4
Q

What method does not provide efficient
recovery of clean DNA

A

Inorganic Extraction

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5
Q

In this step, the cell and the nucleus are
broken open to release the DNA inside

A

Lysis

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6
Q

How would you interpret the extracted
sample if 260/280 ratio is too low <1.8?

A

Protein Contamination

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7
Q

Which of the following is not acceptable for
DNA extraction?

A

The flow-through is discarded after the
addition of elution buffer

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8
Q

Clear liquid that lies above the solid
residue after centrifugation

A

supernatant

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9
Q

An enzyme that degrades RNA

A

RNAses

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10
Q

What is added to ensure the stability of the
DNA

A

TE buffer

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11
Q

Fidelity in amplification may be decreased
in which of the following conditions

A

Increased concentrations of dNTPs

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12
Q

Low to no yield of PCR products may be a
result of which of the following

A

Decreased MgCl2+ and decreased
dNTPs

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13
Q

What would be the effect on the PCR
reaction if any of the following
circumstances arose: 1) There are no
primers in the reaction, 2) enough dNTPs in
the reaction, 3) there is Taq polymerase in
the reaction

A

PCR would proceed normally

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14
Q

Pfu polymerase is superior over Taq
polymerase because

A

of more accurate amplification

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15
Q

At what temperature does annealing of
primers to the template takes place
A. 5 Degrees Celsius the melting point
of primer
B. 47-60 C
C. 10-20 C below the melting point of
primers

A

Ans. A, B and C
A. 5 Degrees Celsius the melting point
of primer
B. 47-60 C
C. 10-20 C below the melting point of
primers

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16
Q

A method that requires a set of four
specifically designed primers that can
recognize six distinct regions on the target
DNA

A

LAMP

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17
Q

After heating and cooling the mixture,
which of the following catalyzes the
synthesis of complementary strands of
DNA?

A

Taq polymerase

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18
Q

Which of the following PCR Techniques is
used for mass testing for COVID19
infection?

A

Reverse Transcription Real-time PCR

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19
Q

The PCR technique was developed by:

A

Mullis

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20
Q

An enzyme that uses RNA as the template
to make complementary DNA (cDNA)

A

Reverse Transcriptase

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21
Q

Each band on the gel represents a different
protein (or protein subunit); _____ proteins
move through the gel more _____
than_____ proteins and therefore are found
nearer the _____ of the gel.

A

Smaller, rapidly, larger, bottom

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22
Q

Plastic combs are used to create
indentations, or wells, into which the DNA is
loaded

A

True

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23
Q

Which of the following is the most
preferred buffer condition for agarose gel
electrophoresis?

A

Buffer of pH 7

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24
Q

Unknown samples are often run alongside a
DNA Ladder, containing known lengths of
DNA for comparison. The gel is then placed
in a container, called a gel tank or box, filled
with conductive, pH controlled buffer
solution, usually Tris-acetate- EDTA or TrisBorate-EDTA and an electrical field is
applied along the length of the gel.

A

Both Statements are true

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25
Q

Which the following statements is/are true
about the stacking gel?
i. The stacking gel solution contains
acrylamide.
ii. It is on the top of the separating gel.
iii. It is used to dilute the protein sample
before it enters the main separating gel. iv.
It is into this gel that the wells are formed
and the proteins loaded.

A

i, ii, & iv only

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26
Q

Electrophoresis can be used in a range of
diagnostic tests, primarily in the screening
of genetic disorders but also to identify
abnormal proteins.

A

True

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27
Q

The following basic reagents required for
agarose gel electrophoresis are:
1. The agarose powder, to make the gel;
2.Buffer stocks to make the running buffer;
3. Loading dye to mix with DNA & DNA
Ladders to compare DNA lengths;
4. DNA stain for visualizing DNA

A

1,2,3,4

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28
Q

In SDS-PAGE, protein sample is first treated
with detergent sodium dodecyl sulfate
(SDS), in order to:

A

Make the protein become negatively
changed

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29
Q

The sample is then fractionated by
electrophoresis through a _______. As all
the proteins now have an _______ to mass
ratio, they are separated on the basis of
their _____.

A

Polyacrylamide gel, identical charge,
mass

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30
Q

If 2% (w/v) of agarose in gel is used, what is
the effective separation size range of
double-stranded DNA?

A

0.1 – 3 kb

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31
Q

Place the following steps in MALDI-TOF in
their correct sequence. 1 Vaporized ions
travel towards the detector. 2 Sample is
vaporized 3 The matrix absorbs the
ultraviolet light and converts it to heat
energy 4 The sample for MALDI is uniformly
mixed in a large quantity of matrix.

A

4321

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32
Q

Cuvette of choice for measurement of
proteins

A

Glass

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33
Q

The end color of Lowry Method if positive
for protein

A

Blue-green color

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34
Q

In the experiment, product formation
(monitored as color intensity) is _________
the concentration of the antigen (BSA)
solution in the sample.

A

Proportional to

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35
Q

The most frequent application of agarose
gel electrophoresis is in molecular cloning.
This is the construction of recombinant DNA
molecules that are integrated into various
organisms to create genetic modifications.

A

Both statement are true

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36
Q

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent
assay) allows for rapid screening and
quantification of the presence of _______ in
a sample.

A

Antigen

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37
Q

Affinity chromatography relies on

A

Ligand binding abilities

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38
Q

In Western blot technique, the protein is
specifically detected by reacting it with:

A

Labeled antibody

39
Q

In order to stop the reaction between
enzyme and substrate, what process is
needed?

A

Add strong acid to sample

40
Q

The most popular method used with
proteomic analysis

A

Reverse phase HPLC

41
Q

Which of the following statements about
agarose gel electrophoresis is false?

A

Under the influence of the electric
field, positively charged DNA will migrate
towards the negative charged end of the
gel.

  • DNA is negative charged bc of phosphate
42
Q

Which of the following is an example of
fluorescent dyes for protein?

A

NilleRed

  • cydyes
  • sypro
43
Q

The higher the mass, the longer the
time of flight

A

MALDITOF-MS

44
Q

To apply an electrical field to the gel, you
will not need an electrophoresis power
supply. The gel tank, also called a gel box, is
the main component of the horizontal
agarose gel electrophoresis system.

A

the first statement is false and second
statement is true

45
Q

Which of the following amino acid residues
cannot absorb light at 280nm?

A
  • Tyrosine
  • Tryptophan
  • Phenylalanine
46
Q

Please arrange the following steps about
ELIZA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent
assay) in chronological order
i. incubate with antibody-enzyme complex
that binds primary antibody.
ii. coat surface with antigen, block
unoccupied sites with nonspecific protein.
iii. add substrate, formation of colored
product indicates presence of specific
antigen.
iv. incubate with primary antibody against
specific antigen

A

iii. add substrate, formation of colored
product indicates presence of specific
antigen

47
Q

Large molecules move through column more quickly

  • small molecules are trapped inside the beads
A

Size Exclusion Chromatography

48
Q

Which of the following will not affect the
rate of migration of DNA in agarose gels

A

DNA Concentration

49
Q

What is the role of goat anti-rabbit IgG
horseradish peroxidase conjugate in the
experiment?

A

Secondary Ab

50
Q

What is the purpose of using bromophenol
blue in the sample buffer?

A

To monitor the electrophoresis run

51
Q

Special Sample Requisition (Pacific
Biosciences RS II) EXCLUDE:

A

Single stranded format of RNA

52
Q

Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?

A

Pre analytical standards aim at quality,
format, and amount of specimen/sample
which should be documented in detail
OR
The analytical analysis mainly focuses on
the documentation and bioformatics
process

53
Q

External Quality Assurance is also known as

A

Proficiency Testing

54
Q

His task is to take charge of participation
and performance in quality assurance
schemes and to organize internal and
external audits. NO MORE THAN 2 WORDS.
ALL CAPS

A

QUALITY ASSURANCE

55
Q

In choosing the right analytical test, what
factor should we consider?

A

Amount of tissue available OR amount
of kits available

56
Q

Sample handling and receipt must follow
what ISO number?

A

15189

57
Q

What does TAT stands for? (all caps; add
space with every word)

A

TURN AROUND TIME

58
Q

All preventive maintenance and calibrations
must be scheduled and performed at least
as frequently as suggested by the
equipment manufacturers to ensure
continued accuracy, precision, and
extended usable life of the equipment in
EQA programs.

A

True

59
Q

Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?

A

The goal of the molecular diagnosis
procedure is to select the right test for each
patient, generating accurate, clinically
relevant results to optimally influence
clinical care and conserve health care
resources

60
Q

NABs perform surveillance in laboratories
every _ to _ years?

A

1-2

61
Q

Sequence alignment will give you
information such as the following EXCEPT

A

Location of the gene in the
chromosome

62
Q

In sequence alignment, the identity of two
residues (bases or amino acids) is indicated
by

A

Vertical line

63
Q

This is a method that positions the building
blocks (bases or amino acids) of biological
sequences in order to identify regions of
similarity that may have consequences for
functional, structural, or evolutionary
relationships.

A

Sequence alignment

64
Q

If you want to compare the DNA sequences
of a gene found in a man and a mouse to
determine if they have the same function,
which tool will you use?

A

EMBOSS Water

65
Q

Which is most critical in determining
annealing temperature of primers?

A

The melting temperature

66
Q

Which is true about primer length in PCR?

A

Longer primers provide adequate
specificity compared to shorter ones

67
Q

Which double-stranded DNA molecule has
the highest melting temperature?

A

An oligonucleotide with a large
number of repeating C-G-C codons

68
Q

When you want to align several DNA
sequences, which tool will you use?

A

MUSCLE

69
Q

Which of the following provides the amino
acid sequence and crystal structure of a
protein?

A

PDBj

70
Q

When you searched GenBank for the DNA
sequence of gene X, the coding sequence of
the that gene may be obtained by clicking
which feature of the search result

A

Cds

71
Q

When you do a BLAST search for a DNA
sequence, which shows a summary table of
all the alignments, sequence homology to
the Query sequence with the subject
sequence, and the Accession number?

A

Description Text Box

72
Q

Which GC content of primers is LEAST
desirable for a PCR?

A

38 percent

73
Q

Which will promote primer dimer
formation?

A

A run of Gs at the 3-prime end
- hairpin

74
Q

Which is INCORRECT regarding designing of
primers?

A

The reverse primer is derived from or
before the 5-prime sequence of the target
DNA.

3’ to ‘5

75
Q

In the GASDirect test for the identification
of Group A Streptococcus, the nucleic acid
probe used is:

A

Single stranded enzyme labelled
nucleic acid probe OR Single stranded
chemiluminescent

76
Q

DNA target/s for the molecular detection of
fungal infection

A

rDNA

77
Q

Highest amount of DNA is found in which of
the following samples?

A

Blood

78
Q

If one is handling a skin biopsy for molecular
assay, the proper handling temperature for
the said sample is:

A

On ice

79
Q

Main advantage of using Interphase – FISH
is:

A

No cell culture is required

80
Q

In order to achieve a purified protein
extract for MALDI – TOF MS, which of the
following is commonly added along with the
matrix?

A

Formic Acid

81
Q

Advantage/s of F-ISH

A

Ans. A and B
A. Automated method may be applied
B. Able to distinguish one disease from
another

82
Q
  • Diagnosis of inherited diseases
  • Evaluate remission of disease
A

Application/s of F-ISH /s of F-ISH

83
Q

If one is handling a heparinized peripheral
blood for molecular assay, the proper
handling temperature for the said sample is:

A

Room temperature

84
Q

Advantage/s of using whole genome
sequencing (WGS) for detecting MRSA

A

A. Virulence of the strain may be
assessed
B. Prediction of resistance is possible

85
Q

These are short sequences of bases that
repeat many times in a row which act as
fillers or spacers between the coding
portions of the chromosome.

A

Satellite DNA

86
Q

Sample/s that may be used for forensic
investigations

A

A. Bone
B. Hair
C. Blood

87
Q

Most widely applied NAAT for the diagnosis
of Mycoplasma pneumoniae is:

A

PCR

88
Q

When using the LAMP method for the
identification of Streptococcus agalactiae,
the probes used targets which of the
following gene?

A

cfb gene

89
Q

Modification of F-ISH wherein multiple
probes are used for a single chromosome

A

Multicolor FISH

90
Q

Which of the following is extracted for
MALDI – TOF MS microbial identification?

A

Protein

91
Q

Specimen that is used for the prenatal
analysis of possible chromosomal
abnormalities

A

Amniotic Fluid

92
Q

The most important pre-analytical
consideration for the successful microbial
identification using MALDI-TOF is:

A

Sample Extraction

93
Q

Screening for the possible colonization of
Streptococcus agalactiae using molecular
assays is needed for which group of
population?

A

Pregnant individual at 35th – 37th week
of gestation

94
Q

ompA gene is used as a target gene for the
identification of the different serovars of
which bacteria?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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