Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Felder 3rd semester > Module 2 Anti-Microbials Part 2 > Flashcards

Module 2 Anti-Microbials Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the action of an Aminoglycoside (2)

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

Alters cell wall function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Are Aminoglycosides Bactericidal or Bacteriostatic

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the gram for Aminoglycosides

A

Gram - (Some gram +)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aminoglycosides are usually combines with

A

Beta lactams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aminoglycosides combined with Beta lactams treat (3)

A

E coli
Serratia
Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aminoglycosides by themselves treat (3)

A

UTI
Tuberculosis
Hepatic coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common drug for Aminoglycosides

A

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What 3 drugs are used for lowering ammonia level (Hepatic coma) (Aminoglycosides)

A

Kanamycin
Paromomycin
Neomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are (4) common side effects of Aminoglycosides

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Neuromuscular blocking
Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much time in between should be space Neuro blockers and Aminoglycosides

A

48-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should a peak and trough be taken

A

30-60 min before and after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are (3) things we should monitor with a patient taking an Aminoglycoside

A

Resp Rate
Complaints related to hearing
I and O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define : Myasthenia gravis

A

Area of muscular weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the action of a Fluoroquinolones / Quinolone

A

Prevent bacterial DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are Fluoroquinolones / Quinolones Bactericidal or Bacteriostatic

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Are Fluoroquinolones / Quinolone Broad Spectrum or Narrow Spectrum

A

Broad Spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the (6) indications for Fluoroquinolones / Quinolone

A 
UTI
Bone and joint infections 
Lower respiratory infections 
GI tract infections 
STDs
Skin and soft tissue infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fluoroquinolones / Quinolones can be used Prophylactically for

A

Inhalation of Anthrax spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aminoglycosides can be used prophylactically for

A

Bowel Preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a major adverse effect of Fluoroquinolones / Quinolones

A

Tendon rupture (Tendonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When can Tendonitis occur after taking a Fluoroquinolones / Quinolone

A

2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two main drugs for Fluoroquinolones / Quinolone

A

Ciprofloxacin

Levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should Fluoroquinolones / Quinolones be infused

A

Over 60 min q 12-24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Steroid use along with Fluoroquinolones / Quinolone increases the risk of

A

Tendon rupture (Tendonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Don’t use Fluoroquinolones / Quinolones for (2)

A

Under 18

Pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

We should take precaution for patients taking Fluoroquinolones / Quinolones if they have a history of (2)

A

Seizures

Dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the action of a Glycopeptide (3)

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis,
increases cell wall permeability,
inhibits RNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Are Glycopeptides Bactericidal or Bacteriostatic

A

Bacteriocidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Are Glycopeptide gram + or gram -

A

Gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When do we use a Glycopeptide

A

When there is a serious infection and other drugs aren’t responding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the indications for Glycopeptides (2)

A

C-diff

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the main drug for Glycopeptide

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the first line of treatment for severe C-diff, MRSA

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If C-diff if developed from Vancomycin by Mouth what should we do

A

D/C drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do we infuse Vancomycin

A

dilute from 100-200ml over 60-120min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 4 major adverse effects for Glycopeptides

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Leukopenia
Hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a syndrome Glycopeptides can cause

A

Red Man Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When should we not use Glycopeptides (3)

A

VRE
Hearing loss
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What two other drug groups increase toxicity of Glycopeptides

A

Aminoglycosides

Loop Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What two drug groups are used to treat VRE

A

Tetracyclines

Aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How are Glycopeptides infused

A

PICC line

Dilute in 200ml over 1-2hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the action of an Antitubercular med

A

Disrupt growth of mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Anti Mycobacterium meds are also called

A

Antitubercular meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Are Antitubercular meds bacteriostatic or bactericidal

A

bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the length of therapy for a Antitubercular med

A

6-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the first thing done before administering an antitubercular med

A

TB test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If tb test is positive what is the next step

A

Chest X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If chest x-ray is positive what is the next step

A

Sputum Culture / Acid fast bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In a Sputum Culture for Antitubercular med what is the terminology for checking it

A

Acid fast bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Is positive skin test and negative acid fast bacillus what will doctor do

A

Order prophylactic tx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

All Antitubercular meds are given

A

PO / Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the Antitubercular Prophylaxis drugs

A

INH (Isoniazid)

RIF (Rifampin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Primary tx. for active TB

A

RIF (Rifampin)
INH (Isoniazid)
EMB (Ethambutol)
PZA (Pyrazinamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Secondary tx. for Active TB

A

Streptomycin (Aminoglycoside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many drugs minimum will active TB be treated with and why

A

Active TB will always be treated with 3 or more drugs to decrease bacterial resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If patient cannot take Isoniazid (INH) they will take

A

RIF (Rifampin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the 4 major side effects for Isoniazid (INH)

A

Peripheral Neuropathy (Numbness and tingling)
Hepatotoxicity
Hepatitis
Optic Neuritis (Inflammation in nerves in eyes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In patients with Peripheral Neuropathy they can have a deficiency in

A

Vitamin B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What substance increases risk of Hepatitis and Hepatotoxicity

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In patients with hepatitis what should be monitored

A

Liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the 3 major side effects for EMB (Ethambutol)

A

Optic Neuritis
Decreased Red and Green discrimination
Increased uric acid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In patients with Optic Neuritis what should be done

A

Baseline vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the 2 major side effects for RIF (Rifampin)

A

Discolored body secretion (Reddish Urine)

Decreased effects of Oral contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the major concern of increased uric acid levels

A

Concern over gout patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the 3 major side effects of PZA (Pyrazinamide)

A

Increased Uric acid levels
Ototoxic
Nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What should be done routinely for patients on PZA (Pyrazinamide)

A

I/O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is an important patient teaching before administering Antitubercular meds

A

Explain to them drugs do not cure, they slow down the growth, rendering them non-infectious

68
Q

(Antitubercular) Relapse can occur when

A

latent organisms become a problem

69
Q

Before administering Antitubercular meds what are the 4 Baseline things we should do

A

Liver and Kidney function
Vision
Weight
Hearing

70
Q

(Antitubercular) DOT is used for

A

emphasizing early detection of TB, supervised and supports patients. Makes sure patient has adequate drug supply

71
Q

What are the 5 things Antitubercular meds may interact with

A 
Digoxin 
Birth control pills 
Oral anticoagulants
Phenytoin 
Verapamil
72
Q

What is the action of Antiprotozoals

A

Kill parasites

73
Q

Are Antiprotozoals Bacteriostatic or Bactericidal

A

Bacteriocidal

74
Q

Antiparasitic or Anti-hemolytic meds may also be called

A

Antiprotozoals

75
Q

What are the 6 indications for Antiprotozoals

A 
Trichomonas 
C diff
H pylori 
Malaria 
Dysentery 
Giardiasis
76
Q

What are the two major meds for Antiprotozoals

A

Flagyl

Quinine

77
Q

In patients with Malaria what is important to monitor

78
Q

What are the 7 adverse effects of Quinine

A 
Neurotoxic
Gastrotoxic
Hepatotoxic
Bone Marrow Suppression 
Cinchonism 
Cardiotoxicity 
Photosensitivity
79
Q

What are the 5 adverse effects of Flagyl

A 
Neurotoxic
Gastrotoxic 
Nephrotoxic 
Bone Marrow Suppression  
Metallic taste
80
Q

Flagyl is used to treat (5)

A 
Anaerobic bacteria 
H. Pylori 
C-diff
Amebiasis 
Trichomonas Chlamydia
81
Q

Flagyl can cause what Superinfection

A

Candida Albicans

82
Q

If alcohol is used with flagyl it can cause

A

Antabuse like reactions

83
Q

Quinine is mainly used to treat

84
Q

If using Quinine prophylactically how should drug be used

A

Weekly
1-2 weeks before travel
6-8 weeks after
Must be on same day weekly

85
Q

What is important not to consume when taking Quinines

A

Acidic foods, antacids

86
Q

What is the action of Antivirals

A

Inhibit viral/organism replication

87
Q

Antivirals keeps virus from

A

penetrating cells of host

88
Q

What are the 7 indications for Antivirals

A 
All types of viral infections 
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes Simplex
Herpes Zoster
Influenza type a and b  
Respiratory Syncytial Virus 
Hepatitis 
HIV
89
Q

It is important to teach patient that Antivirals

A

do not cure viral infection, it justs slows it down

90
Q

What are the possible routes for Antivirals

A

PO, Parenteral, Topical

91
Q

What are the 4 Antivirals

A

Acyclovir
Valtrex
Amantadine
Oseltamivir

92
Q

Acyclovir is used to tx

A

Herpes virus

93
Q

Valtrex is used to tx

A

Herpes virus

94
Q

Amantadine is used to tx

A

Influenza, Parkinsons

95
Q

Oseltamivir is used to tx

96
Q

What are the major side effects of Antivirals (6)

A 
Hypersensitivity (Rash,fever) 
Neurotoxic 
Nephrotoxic 
Crystalluria 
Gastroxicity 
Hematological
97
Q

Because Antivirals can cause crystalluria what should we teach patient

A

increase fluids

98
Q

In Herpes simplex if lesions are present

A

Abstinence is necessary

99
Q

In Herpes simplex if lesions are not present

A

Use barriers

100
Q

In Herpes simplex if topical

A

Cover lesion (use gloves when applying)

101
Q

Antifungals can also be called

A

Antimycotics

102
Q

Antifungals are used to tx.

A

Fungal infections

103
Q

Deep infections are also referred to as

A

Serious infections

104
Q

What are 2 superficial infections Antifungals are used for

A

Tinea

Candida

105
Q

What are 2 examples of Tinea

A

Ringworms, Athletes foot

106
Q

What are the 5 Serious infections Antifungals are used for

A 
Histoplasmosis 
Coccidioidomycosis
Cryptococcosis 
Blastomycosis 
Aspergillus
107
Q

Onychomycosis is

A

Nail fungal infection

108
Q

What is the action of an Antifungal

A

Bind with ergosterol to disrupt cell membrane

109
Q

What are 4 common drugs used as Antifungals

A

Griseofulvin
Amphotericin
Mycostatin
Fluconazole

110
Q

Griseofulvin is the choice for

111
Q

Griseofulvin is related to

A

Penicillin so check for allergies

112
Q

How long does tx last for Griseofulvins

A

1-6 months

113
Q

What are 2 interactions for Griseofulvins

A

Decreases Oral contraception

Increases alcohol levels

114
Q

Amphotericin is used for

A

Systemic Infections (Deep infections)

115
Q

Amphotericin can be given

A

IV only (Piggyback) PICC line

116
Q

Before administering Amphotericin it is important to check if

A

Test dose was given to see how patient responds

117
Q

Amphotericin can cause _____________ we infuse over

A

Shake and bake syndrome

2-6 hours

118
Q

Amphotericin must be infused with ____ or else …

A

D5W or else precipitation will occur

119
Q

Amphotericin are premedicated _____ hours before with ……(5)

A 
3-4 hours before with 
ASA
Tylenol
Benadryl 
Antiemetics 
Mannitol
120
Q

When infusing Amphotericin it is important to use a

121
Q

Amphotericin should be kept away from

122
Q

Mannitol is used to

A

decrease fluid in brain

123
Q

Mycostatin is commonly used for

A

Oral candida

124
Q

How should we instruct patient to use Mycostatin

A

Swish Oral med suspension round then swallow

125
Q

Mycostatin is available in an

A

Oral trough

126
Q

Mycostatin is usually prescribed _____

127
Q

When symptoms are gone how long should Mycostatin be used for

128
Q

Fluconazole is choice drug for

A

Candida in immunosuppressed clients

129
Q

Fluconazole can cause (2)

A

drop in B/P

130
Q

Fluconazole is used

A

prophylactically

131
Q

Antifungals can cause 2 major side effects such as

A

Steven Johnson Syndrome

Arthralgia

132
Q

Arthralgia is

A

Joint pain

133
Q

Steven Johnson Syndrome is

A

Often, Stevens-Johnson syndrome begins with flu-like symptoms, followed by a painful red or purplish rash that spreads and blisters. Then the top layer of the affected skin dies and sheds.

134
Q

With used of Antifungals what levels may increase

135
Q

What 4 baseline tests should be done for Antifungals

A

CBC
Electrolytes
Liver, Kidney tests
Cardiac Function tests

136
Q

Patients taking Fluoroquinolone are encouraged to

A

Increase their fluid intake

137
Q

Rapid infusion of Vancomycin can cause

A

A sudden and profound fall in B/P

138
Q

How should a patient take Moxifloxacin and an Antacid

A

Take Moxifloxacin 4 hours before Antacid

139
Q

Which Antitubercular med is the only one that may be prescribed alone

140
Q

The most common side effect for Isoniazid is

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

141
Q

What is a dose related effect of Ethambutol

A

Optic Neuritis

142
Q

What Antitubercular med is contraindicated in patients with gout

A

Pyrazinamide

143
Q

What is the most common adverse effect for a patient receiving Acyclovir via the oral route

144
Q

Antiretroviral meds can result in

A

Body fat redistribution

145
Q

Mycotic infections are caused by

146
Q

How do anti-malarial drugs prevent or treat malaria

A

interferes with the life cycle of the protozoa causing the malaria

147
Q

What is the most important test to monitor in patients taking flucytosine

A

Renal function tests

148
Q

What is the most serious adverse reaction to a patient that has been prescribed Linezolid

A

Thrombocytopenia

149
Q

With what history should Fluoroquinolones be most cautiously given

A

History of seizures

150
Q

What is a major adverse reaction to a patient taking Fluoroquinolones

151
Q

What is a generalized adverse reaction of Rifampin

152
Q

What is a Severe adverse reaction of Isoniazid

A

Severe hepatitis

153
Q

What is a hepatotoxic reaction of Pyrazinamide

A

Severe jaundice

154
Q

Which antitubercular causes color perception difficulty

A

Ethambutol

155
Q

What is a major nursing intervention for a patient that has malaria

156
Q

Which side effect of Doxycycline for malaria shows up most

A

Photosensitivity

157
Q

Drug class for Amphotericin B

A

Antifungal

158
Q

Drug class for Nystatin

A

Antifungal

159
Q

Trade name for Nystatin

A

Mycostatin

160
Q

Drug class for Acyclovir

161
Q

Trade name for Acyclovir

162
Q

Trade name for Vancomycin

163
Q

Drug class for Vancomycin

A

Glycopeptide

164
Q

Drug class for Gentamicin

A

Glycopeptide

165
Q

Trade name for Neomycin (2)

A

Neo-Fradin

Neo-Tabs

166
Q

Drug class for Neomycin

A

Aminoglycoside

Felder 3rd semester (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions