Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Board Prep > Module 17 Regional Anesthesia > Flashcards

Module 17 Regional Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Highest points of spinal column

A

L3

C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lowest points of spinal column

A

T6

S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Spinal cord extends from foramen magnum to what level in adults

Newborn

A

L1 adult

L3 newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Widest area of epidural space

Narrowest

A

L2 widest

C5 narrowest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Principle site of action for neuraxial is

A

Nerve root of spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Total amount of CSF

A

150ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amount of CSF produced and absorbed daily

A

500ml/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Apnea with neuraxial occurs due to

A

Hypoperfusion of respiratory centers in medulla 2/2 severe hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Midline approach for spinal pass through what structures

A 
Skin
SQ
Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Epidural space
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For lateral approach will not pass through what structures

A

Supraspinous ligament

Interspinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Volume calculation for epidural

A

1-2ml of LA per segment to be blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Order in which nerves are blocked with neuraxial

A 
B
C and A-delta
A-gamma
A-beta
A-alpha
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Average distance from skin to epidural space in adult

A

4-6cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Volume of LA for caudal block

A

1ml/kg to get to T10-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Typical US frequency for clinical imaging

A

2-12 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pneumonic for nerves supplied by each cord of brachial plexus

A

MUM

PAR

LMM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nerve responsible for

Extension of elbow
Supination of forearm
Extension of wrist and fingers

A

Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nerve responsible for

Pronation of forearm
Flexion of wrist
Opposition of middle, forefinger and thumb
Flexion of lateral 3 fingers

A

Median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nerve responsible for

Flexion of wrist
Adduction of all fingers
Flexion and opposition of medial two fingers to thumb

A

Ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nerve responsible for

Flexion at elbow

A

Musculocutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cervical plexus block

Volume

A

4ml per level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Block for shoulder surgery

A

Interscalene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Interscalene block frequently misses what nerve

A

Ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Volume for interscalene block

A

40ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Block known as spinal of arm

A

Supraclavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Greatest risk of supraclavicular block

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Volume for supraclavicular block

A

20-30ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Block for forearm and hand procedures

A

Infraclavicular

29
Q

Volume for infraclavicular

A

20-30ml

30
Q

Block for surgery at or below the elbow

A

Axillary block

31
Q

Volume of axillary block

A

40ml

32
Q

Nerve blocks at elbow (ulnar, median, and radial) what volume

A

4ml

33
Q

Which block at elbow has high incidence of neuritis

A

Ulnar

34
Q

Volume for ulnar and median wrist block

A

3ml

35
Q

Radial nerve block at wrist what volume

A

6ml

36
Q

Digit block volume

A

2ml per side of finger

37
Q

Block to provide anesthesia for anterior thigh, knee, medial foot

A

Femoral “3 in one”

38
Q

Volume for femoral

A

30ml

39
Q

Sensation to heel and medial sole of foot

A

Posterior tibial

40
Q

Sensation to dorsum of foot and toes 2-5

A

Superficial peroneal

41
Q

Sensory or medial legs angle and upper foot

A

Saphenous

42
Q

Supplies posterolateral calf and lateral foot. 5th toe

A

Dural

43
Q

Supplied toe Elenor’s and sensation to medial dorsal for toe 1 and 2

A

Deep peroneal

44
Q

For a procedure requiring a tourniquet on the leg, a minimum sensory level of what is required for block?

A

T8

45
Q

Landmarks for caudal block

A

Sacral Cornu and sacra hiatus

46
Q

For caudal block in children what is LA dose

A

0.5ml/kg

47
Q

Damage to what nerve causes inability to adduct thumb

A

Ulnar

48
Q

Damage to what nerve causes inability to abduct thumb

A

Radial

49
Q

Which nerve can be damaged by AC IV

A

Median

50
Q

What nerves are anesthetized in popliteal block

A

Tibial and common peroneal (branches of sciatic)

51
Q

Sural nerve is branch of what nerve

A

Tibial nerve (branch of sciatic)

52
Q

Ankle block placed laterally between lateral malleolus and Achilles blocks which nerve

A

Sural

53
Q

infiltration on dorsal foot from medial malleolus to extensor digitorum longus blocks which nerve

A

Saphenous and superficial peroneal

54
Q

Block placed at intermalleolar line between extensor difitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus blocks which nerve

A

Deep peroneal

55
Q

Block placed posterior to medial malleolus blocks which nerve

A

Posterior tibial nerve

56
Q

Dose for intralipid in LAST treatment

A

20% intralipid 1.5 ml/kg over 1 minute

Infusion 0.25 ml/kg/min

57
Q

What are medication adjustments for ACLS with LAST

A

Decrease epi dose

Avoid calcium channel blockers and beta blockers

Avoid LA

Amiodarone preferred for ventricular dysrhythmias

58
Q

Diplopipa following spinal results from palsy of what nerve

A

CN VI abducens

59
Q

Most common complication of neuraxial

A

Backache

60
Q

Early opioid induced depression of ventilation occurs when?

Is due to what

A

Within 2 hours

Due to systemic absorption of opioid

61
Q

Late (delayed) opioid induced ventilatory depression occurs when?

Is due to what?

A

6-12 hours after injection

Due to cephalad spread in CSF to respiratory centers in medulla

MORHPINE

62
Q

Most common side effect of spinal opioids

A

Puritis

63
Q

Pain initiated or caused by primary lesion, dysfunction, or transitory perturbation in PNS or CNS

A

Neurogenic pain

64
Q

Pain initiated or caused by primary lesion or dysfunction in nervous system

A

Neuropathic pain

65
Q

Pain due to a stimulus which does not normally provoke pain

A

Allodynia

66
Q

Increased response to stimulus which is normally painful

A

Hyperalgesia

67
Q

Disturbance of function or pathological change in a nerve

A

Neuropathy

68
Q

Signs of dysfunction including numbness, weakness, or loss of DTR referable to a specific spinal nerve

A

Radiculopathy

Board Prep (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions