MODULE 1 Flashcards

0
Q

People who has a defect in this enzyme turns red after drinking even just one bottle of alcohol.

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

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1
Q

Process of combining 2 identical atoms.

A

Catenation

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2
Q

Defective enyzme that leads to the accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood after alcohol consumption

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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3
Q

Aspirin inhibits the _________ which will convert arachidonate to prostaglandins and thromboxanes.

A

Cyclooxygenase

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4
Q

Functions to transport FA to them mitochondria where FA oxidation takes place.

A

Carnitine

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5
Q

Form of melanin that is brown-black in color.

A

Eumelanin

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6
Q

Formation of this type of melanin occurs in the presence of glutathione

A

Pheomelanin

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7
Q

Cell division in prokaryotic organisms is via which process?

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission
D. Augmentation

A

C. Binary fission

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8
Q

Site of protein synthesis in the cell.

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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9
Q

Site of the cytochrome P450 in the liver.

A

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

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10
Q

Site of glycosylation.

A

Golgi Apparatus

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11
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The mitochondria most likely evolved from bacteria that were engulfed by an ancestral eukaryotic cell living in symbiosis with their host.

A

TRUE

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12
Q

Also called microbodies. Function to protects sensitive cell components from oxidative attacks.

A

Peroxisomes

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13
Q

Functions to digest material ingested by endocytosis and recycle cellular components.

A

Lysosomes

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14
Q

Constituent of cilia; Composed of the protein tubulin

A

Microtubules

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15
Q

Consist of actin; Responsible for intracellular movements

A

Microfilaments

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16
Q

Prominent parts in the cell subject to mechanical stress.

A

Intermediate filaments

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17
Q

The following processes occur in the cytosol EXCEPT:

A. PPP
B. Glycolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Oxidation of Fatty Acids

A

D. Oxidation of Fatty Acids

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18
Q

Major component of cell wall.

A

Cellulose

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19
Q

Process of isolating specific organelles in relatively pure form, free of contamination by other organelles.

A

Subcellular Fractionation

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20
Q

A step of subcellular fractionation that involves the disruption of cell to liberate its constituents.

A

Homogenization

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21
Q

Content of the final supernatant in centrifugation corresponds to:

A. RER
B. Plasma membrane
C. Cytosol
D. Nucleus

A

C. Cytosol

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22
Q

Which of the following organelle:marker pairing is NOT correct?

A. Mitochondria : Glutamic Dehydrogenase
B. Nucleus: DNA
C. Golgi Apparatus: Galactosyl transferase
D. Cytosol: Glucose-6-Phosphatase

A

D. Cytosol: Glucose-6-Phosphatase

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23
Q

Marker for the plasma membrane

A. Uric acid oxidase
B. Catalase
C. Na+ - K+ ATPase
D. Glutamic dehydrogenase

A

C. Na+ - K+ ATPase

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24
Q

Uses Catalase or Uric Acid Oxidase as marker.

A

Peroxisomes

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25
Q

Alternating double bonds that yield a very stable structure within a molecule is a phenomenon also called __________.

A

Resonance

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26
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Hydrocarbons are polar and soluble in water.

A

False. They are nonpolar substances and are insoluble in water.

27
Q

C==O is called __________.

A. Carbonyl
B. Carboxyl
C. Ether
D. Ester

A

A. Carbonyl

28
Q

Formed by combining an acid and an alcohol.

A

Ester

29
Q

Combination of a phosphate and a carboxyl group, or two or more phosphate groups gives __________.

A

Acid Anhydride

30
Q

Composed of two or more elements.

A

Compounds

31
Q

Formed when two or more atoms unite on the basis of their electron structures.

A

Molecules

32
Q

Bond that links alphaGlucose and betaFructose to form Sucrose.

A

Alpha 1➡️2 Glycosidic bond

33
Q

Form of fatty acid with the presence of a ‘kink’ in the chain.

A

Unsaturated Fatty Acid

34
Q

A polymer of 3 or more amino acids forms a __________.

A

Polypeptide

35
Q

Classification of protein with an axial ration of less than 10.

A

Globular

36
Q

The following are examples of non-covalent bonds EXCEPT:

A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Electrostatic bonds
C. Van der Waals forces
D. Peptide bonds

A

D. Peptide bonds

37
Q

Link two portions of polypeptide chain through a cystine residue.

A

Disulfide bonds

38
Q

Which of these is not a true bond:

A. Electrostatic bond
B. Disulfide bond
C. Hydrophobic interaction
D. Van der Waals forces

A

C. Hydrophobic interaction

39
Q

Reagent that cleaves the carboxylic side of lysine and arginine.

A

Trypsin

40
Q

Cleaves Asn-Gly bonds.

A

Hydroxylamine

41
Q

Mild acid hydrolysis cleaves this type of bond.

A. Arg-Arg
B. Pro-Pro
C. Asp-Pro
D. Arg-Pro

A

C. Asp-Pro

42
Q

Fundamental unit of collagen.

A

Tropocollagen

43
Q

Collagen has a Gly-X-Y sequence. Y is usually?

A

Proline or hydroxyrpoline

44
Q

The following statements are true about tropocollagen EXCEPT:

A. Undergoes aldol condensation.
B. Consist of 4 polypetide chain in R-handed helix.
C. Stabilized by H bonds.
D. Have 3 residues/turn on a L-handed helix.

A

B. Consist of 4 polypetide chain in R-handed helix.

45
Q

Composed of stacked anti-parallel beta sheets. Consists largely of glycine, serine, and alanine.

A

Silk Fibroin

46
Q

Heat shock proteins.

A

Chaperonins

47
Q

Large multi-subunit proteins that accelerate the folding process by providing a protected environment where polypeptides fold into their native conformations and form quaternary structure.

A

Molecular chaperones

48
Q

The secondary structure of myoglobin contains a very high proportion (75%) of ___________.

A

Alpha helices

49
Q

Myoglobin comprises of how many right handed helices?

A

8

50
Q

The oxygen binding site contains a heme prosthetic group with _______ in the center and ________ residues located above and below.

A

Fe 2+, Histidine

51
Q

The 4 pyrrole molecules in heme are linked by….

A

Alpha methylene bridges

52
Q

The protoporphyrin is consist of the following EXCEPT:

A. 2 methyl groups
B. 2 vinyl groups
C. 4 methyl groups
D. 2 propionate side chains

A

A. 2 methyl groups

53
Q

HgA in adults consist of 4 subunits namely:

A

2 alpha and 2 beta

54
Q

The quaternary structure of the fully oxygenated high affinity form of hemoglobin (HbO2) is said to be in:

A

Relaxed state

55
Q

The tertiary configuration of low affinity, deoxygenated hemoglobin (Hb) is said to be in:

A

Taut state

56
Q

The curve of oxygen binding to hemoglobin is _________ in shape. In contrast the oxygen binding curve for myoglobin is __________.

A

Sigmoidal, hyperbolic

57
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Myoglobin has a greater affinity than hemoglobin for oxygen at all oxygen pressures.

A

TRUE

58
Q

The alpha-globin genes are on chromosome ____ and the beta-globin genes are on chromosome ____.

A

16, 11

59
Q

Fetal hemoglobin is composed of:

A

2 Zeta and 2eta subunits

60
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Hemoglobin Saki: BLeu➡️ Pro

A

TRUE

61
Q

BHis146➡️Leu

A

Hemoglobin Cowtown

62
Q

Caused by a single nucleotide substitution (A to T) of valine for glutamate at position 6 on the B-subunit of hemoglobin. GAG to GTG.

A

Sickle cell anemia

63
Q

In hemoglobin M, histidine F8 has been replaced by what amino acid?

A

Tyrosine

64
Q

An abnormal hemoglobin in which leucine is substituted for arginine in the alpha chain (92), results in high oxygen affinity.

A

Chesapeake

65
Q

Most common prion diseases.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

66
Q

What is the molecular pathogenesis of prion diseases?

A

Change in conformation of the normal/native PrPC to PrPSC.