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bits stuff > Mock PTS 3 > Flashcards

Mock PTS 3 Flashcards

1
Q

STEMI management

within what time frame must PCI be done

A
  • within 2 hours of onset

- PCI is first line treatment for STEMI if it can be performed within 2 hours of onset

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2
Q

STEMI management
if PCI no possible then what
+ time frame

A
  • fibrinolysis with IV Tenecteplase is done

- this should be within 12 hours

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3
Q

first line diagnostic investigation for HF

A

NT-proBNP

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4
Q

gold standard investigation for diagnosing HF

A

Echocardiogram

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5
Q

chest x ray signs of HF

A 
ABCDE
A: alveolar oedema
B: Kerley B lines
C: Cardiomegaly 
D: Dilated upper lobe vessels
E: pleural effusion
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6
Q

QRisk3

what this for ?

A

10-year probability of CV event

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7
Q

Modified Duke Criteria

what this for ?

A

Infective endocarditis criteria

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8
Q

gold standard for diagnosing valvular disease

A

echocardiogram

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9
Q

ECG
Sawtooth flutter waves
what is it

A

atrial flutter

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10
Q

ECG changes associated with AF

A
  • Absent P waves
  • narrow QRS
  • irregularly irregular ventricular rhythm
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11
Q

what is Kusmall breaths

what is it a sign of

A
  • deep, rapid breathing pattern

hyperventilation meant to get rid of carbon dioxide in the blood (seen in DKA)

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12
Q

ECG changes of hyperkalaemia

A

Absent P, Long PR interval, Wide QRS, Tall Tented T waves (Go, Go long, Go wide, Go tall= Gonner)

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13
Q

ECG changes of hypokalaemia

A

U waves

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14
Q

name the Cardiomyopathy types

A
  • dilated
  • restrictive
  • hypertrophic
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15
Q

postural hypertension diagnosis

A
  • systolic drop >20mmHg
    OR
  • systolic BP drops to less than 90 (from any original starting point)
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16
Q

pyrexia meaning

A

a rise in the temperature of the body; frequently a symptom of infection

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17
Q

what kind of pain does pericarditis present with

A
  • sharp pleuritic chest pain

- worse on lying down and relieved by leaning forwards

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18
Q

abdominal aortic aneurysm investigation

A

Urgent imaging

  • bedside aortic ultrasound
  • CT angiography (CTA) is required
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19
Q

gold standard test for acromegaly

A

oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

increased glucose should suppress in GH in healthy individual

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20
Q

most common cause of secondary hypoadrenalism

A

long term corticosteroid usage

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21
Q

investigation for Addisons

A

short synacthen test (ACTH stimulation test)

administer synacthen (artificial ACTH) => if cortisol level fails to rise => primary insufficiency (Addisons)

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22
Q

carcinoid syndrome presentation

A

flushing and diarrhoea, cardio involvement

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23
Q

carcinoid syndrome treatment

A

somatostatin analogue (octreotide)

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24
Q

gold standard investigation for crohns disease

A

colonoscopy + mucosal biopsy

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25
Q

most common cause of SBO

A

surgical adhesions

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26
Q

what is Enlarged Virchow’s node commonly associated with

A

gastric cancer

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27
Q

first line treatment for mild UC

A

Mesalazine (aminosalicylate)

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28
Q

what is the most common leukaemia of adults

A

AML

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29
Q

in what condition are Roth spots found

A

infective endocarditis

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30
Q

HL WCC ?

A

can be high or low (counter intuitive but true)

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31
Q

major risk factors for DVT

A
  • Trauma
  • immobility
  • surgery
  • malignancy
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32
Q

in what are Heinz bodies seen

A

G6PD deficiency

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33
Q

acute pancreatitis presentation

A
  • sudden-onset mid-epigastric or left upper quadrant abdominal pain, which often radiates to the back (severe pain)
  • Nausea and vomiting
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34
Q

what is benzene exposure a risk factor for ?

A

renal cell carcinoma

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35
Q

gold standar investigaiton to diagnose Wilsons disease

A

Liver biopsy

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36
Q

a1-antitrypsin deficiency inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

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37
Q

what virus most likely to be young children

A

rotavirus

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38
Q

what virus most likely to be in care home resident

A

noravirus

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39
Q

what kind of diarrhoea does Campylobacter jejuni cause

A

bloody

40
Q

Haemohromatosis inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

41
Q

Haemohromatosis presentation

A
  • fatigue
  • erectile dysfunction
  • arthralgia
  • bronze skin
  • diabetes mellitus
  • chronic liver disease signs
  • cardiac failure
42
Q

dodgy air conditioner in Spain. what condition ?

A

Legionella pneumophila

43
Q

what given immediately to patients with suspected meningococcal septicaemia

A

IM benzylpenicillin

44
Q

most common UTI causative organism

A

E. coli

45
Q

what agar used to grow mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Lowenstein- Jensen

46
Q

test to distinguish between Staphylococcus and streptococcus

A

catalase test

47
Q

describe MRC scale

A
  • Grade 1: Breathless with strenuous exercise
  • Grade 2: Short of breath when hurrying or when walking up hill
  • Grade 3: Walks slower than people of the same age or stops for breath when walking at own pace on flat
  • Grade 4: Stops for breath after walking 100m on flat
  • Grade 5: Too breathless to leave the house/breathlessness on changing clothes.
48
Q

what will present with stony dull percussion

A

pleural effusions

49
Q

which antibody is most commonly associated with GPA

A

C-ANCA

50
Q

pattern or inheritance for Von-Willebrand’s disease

A

autosomal dominant

51
Q

what FEV1/FVC to indicate obstructive disorder

A

FEV1/FVC <0.7

52
Q

what is Bronchiectasis

A

chronic infection leading to permanent dilatation of the airways

53
Q

ongoing asthma treatment

A

1) SABA / SAMA
2) *If steroid responsive/asthmatic = Add LABA + ICS
2) *If not steroid responsive / non-asthmatic= Add LABA + LAMA
3) Oral theophylline
4) Long term oxygen therapy

54
Q

most common CAP pathogen

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

55
Q

most common HAP pathogen

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

56
Q

is testosterone or oestrogen a risk factor for PE

A

oestrogen (and HRT)

57
Q

diagnostic investigation for sarcoidosis

shows what

A
  • tissue biopsy - showing a non-caseating granuloma
58
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae gram stain

A

gram positive diplococci

59
Q

Neisseria meningitidis gram stain

A

gram negative diplococci

60
Q

TIA management

A
  • aspirin
  • atorvastatin
  • Then clopidogrel replaces aspirin for long-term secondary prevention.
61
Q

first line investigation for suspected TB

A

CXR

62
Q

what seen on X-Ray of person with TB

A
  • hilar enlargement due to lymphadenopathy
  • pleural effusion
  • consolidation with cavitation
63
Q

what type of lesion is usually present in TB

A

caceating granuloma

64
Q

what type of staining for TB

A

Ziehl-Neelsen staining (acid fast bacteria)

65
Q

gold standard diagnostic test for CF

A

sweat test (test for chloride conc)

66
Q

what cancer is asbestos associated with

A

mesothelioma

67
Q

what is Horner’s syndrome

A
  • ptosis - drooping of the eyelid
  • miosis - pupillary constriction
  • anhidrosis - lack of sweat on the affected side
68
Q

pathophysiology of chronic asthma

A

narrowing of the airway due to:

  • smooth muscle contraction
  • thickening of the airway by cellular infiltration and inflammation
  • presence of secretions within airway lumen
69
Q

investigation to confirm asthma

A

spirometry

70
Q

example of asthma ICS

A

budesonide

71
Q

example of asthma Leukotreine receptor antagonist

A

montelukast

72
Q

example of asthma LABA

A

formoterol

73
Q

what cancer to smokers usually get

A

squamous cell carcinoma

74
Q

lung cancer most commonly diagnosed in non smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

75
Q

what hormones can Paraneoplastic small cell lung cancer secrete

A
  • ACTH (cushings)
  • ADH (SIADH)
  • GH (acromegaly)
76
Q

similarity and difference between TB and sarcoidosis

A
  • CXR shows bilateral hilarity lymphadenopathy
  • TB: caseating granuloma
  • Sarcoidosis: non-caseating granulomas
77
Q

causes of bronchiectasis

A
  • post infection
  • immunodeficiency
  • idiopathic
  • airway obstruction (inhaled foreign body)
78
Q

what complication from repeated coughing

A

pneumothorax

79
Q

COPD complications (3)

A
  • recurrent pneumonia
  • cor pulmonale
  • lung cancer
80
Q

Haemophilus influenza gram stain

A

gram negative coccobacillus

81
Q

Abx for H. influenza

A

Co-amoxiclav, doxycycline

82
Q

pneumothorax risk factors

A
  • tall and slender build
  • cigarette smoking
  • previous pneumothorax
  • COPD
  • acute sever asthma
83
Q

symptoms of pulmonary embolism

A
  • shortness of breath
  • chest pain
  • sweating
  • dizziness
  • haemoptysis
84
Q

pleural effusion vs pneumothorax on percussion

A
  • Pleural effusion: dull on percussion

- Pneumothorax: hyper-resonant on percussion

85
Q

name hidden places for psoriasis

A
  • scalp
  • genitals
  • behind the ear
  • inside the ear
  • soles of feet
86
Q

septic arthritis risk factors

A
  • age (over 80)
  • prosthetic joint
  • penetrating trauma
  • immunosuppression
  • pre-existing joint disease (RA, OA)
  • systemic blood Bourne infection
  • IVDU
87
Q

what primary cancers can spread to bone (5)

A
  • breast
  • prostate
  • kidney
  • lung
  • thyroid
88
Q

give instructions for how allendronic acid should be taken

A
  • taken once a week
  • on an empty stomach
  • remain upright for at least half an hour after taking
89
Q

name joint where Herbeden’s nodes occur

A

DIP

90
Q

name joint where Bouchard’ nodes occur

A

PIP

91
Q

describe RA hand deformities

A
  • boutonnieres deformity
  • ulnar deviation
  • trigger finger
  • swan neck deformity
92
Q

what condition is GCA associated with

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

93
Q

What marker used to monitor SLE

A

ESR

94
Q

woman has a lot of miscarriages.

what condition ?

A

anitphospholipid syndrome

95
Q

osteomyelitis risk factors

A
  • Decreased sun exposure: decreased sun exposure leads to less vit D activation
  • Diet: decreased dietary vit D leads to less vit D available for bone mineralisation

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