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bits stuff > MedSoc SAQ 1 + Tom's Mock > Flashcards

MedSoc SAQ 1 + Tom's Mock Flashcards

1
Q

gold standard test to diagnose unstable angina

A

angiography

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2
Q

extra articular manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis

A

5 A’s:

  • anterior uveitis
  • autoimmune bowel disease
  • apical lung fibrosis
  • aortic regurgitation
  • amyloidosis
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3
Q

what beside test to assess mobility of spine

A

schober’s test

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4
Q

describe schobers test

A
  • Have the patient stand, locate L5 vertebrae, mark a point 10cm above and 5cm below
  • Ask patient to bend over forwards as far
    as they can and measure the distance between the two points
  • distance of less than 20cm => reduced lumbar movement => support And. Spon. diagnosis
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5
Q

X-ray finding of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • bamboo spine
  • fusion of sacroiliac joint
  • squaring of vertebral bodies
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6
Q

ankylosing spondylitis treatment

A
  • NSAIDS
  • steroids (prednisolone) during flare ups
  • anti TNF (infliximab)
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7
Q

what PEFR is acute/severe asthma

A

33-50%

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8
Q

what PEFR is moderate asthma

A

50-75%

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9
Q

what is life threatening asthma

A

PEFR below 33%

oxygen sats less than 92%

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10
Q

acute sever asthma attack management

A
  • SABA (salbutamol)
  • oxygen
  • systemic corticosteroid (oral prednisolone, IV hydrocortisone)
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11
Q

risk factors for migraine

A
  • cheese
  • OCP
  • lack of sleep
  • alcohol
  • anxiety
  • exercise
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12
Q

migraine treatment

A
  • NSAIDS (Ibuprofen)
  • if severe: triptan (almotriptan)
  • anti-emetic + hydration
  • prophylaxis: Amitriptyline
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13
Q

migraine prophylaxis

A

Amitriptyline

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14
Q

what type of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis

A
  • type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

- IgE mediated hypersensitivity

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15
Q

anaphylaxis management

A
  • ABCDE
  • position supine + remove trigger
  • IM adrenaline
  • establish airways + high flow oxy
  • IV fluids
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16
Q

how does adrenaline work

A

beta adrenergic receptor agonist

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17
Q

what antibiotic contraindicated in pregnancy

A

trimethoprim

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18
Q

crohns risk factors

A
  • white ancestry
  • family history
  • smoking
  • NSAIDS
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19
Q

gold standard investigation for IBD

A
  • colonoscopy + biopsy
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20
Q

in what would you see cobblestone mucosa (histology)

A

crohns disease

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21
Q

describe goblet cells in crohns and UC

A

crohns: increase in goblet cells
UC: goblet cell depletion

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22
Q

crohns treatment

A
  • steroids (oral prednisolone) during flare up

- maintain remission: azathioprine or methotrexate

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23
Q

non malignant causes of lymphadenopathy

A
  • infection
  • sarcoidosis
  • SLE
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24
Q

which cells are involved with CLL

A

B cells

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25
Q

what would CLL FBC look like

A
  • lymphocytosis
  • thrombocytopenia
  • anaemia
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26
Q

what would CLL blood film look like

A
  • smudge/smear cells present
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27
Q

CLL complications

A
  • infection

- transition to NHL

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28
Q

cushings syndrome vs cushings disease

A

Cushing disease (pituitary adenoma) is a specific type of Cushing syndrome

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29
Q

cushings presentation

A
  • Mood change
  • Acne
  • Buffalo hump
  • Osteoporosis
  • Moon face
  • Thinning of skin
  • central obesity
  • oligomenorrhoea
  • abdo striae
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30
Q

Cushing’s diagnostic test

A
  • brain MRI
  • dexamethasone suppression test: cortisol level not suppressed
  • abdo CT: could be small cell lung cancer
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31
Q

complications of Cushing’s

A
  • Bone fractures
  • depression and mood changes
  • hypertension
  • diabetes
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32
Q

non pharmacological management for OA

A
  • physiotherapy
  • weight loss
  • activity/ exercise
  • occupational therapy
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33
Q

OA pharmacological management

A
  • topical NSAID (diplofenac)

- oral paracetamol, NSAIDS, opiates

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34
Q

what does ABCD2 scoring stand for

A 
A: Age >60 (1 point)
B: BP >140/90 (1 point)
C: Clinical features
- Speech disturbance without weakness (1 point)
- OR unilateral weakness (2 points)
D: Duration
- Symptoms 10-59 minutes = 1 point
- Symptoms >60 minutes = 2 points
D: Diabetes mellitus in patient history (1 point)
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35
Q

ischaemic stroke treatment

A

thrombolysis - altepase with 4.5 hrs

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36
Q

TB risk factors

A
  • exposure to infection
  • IVDU
  • immunosuppressive drugs
  • alcoholic
  • HIV infection
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37
Q

TB CXR signs

A

fibronodular opacities in upper lobes

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38
Q

first line prophylaxis for migraine

A

amitriptyline

39
Q

common cause of bacterial meningitis in kids

A

s. pneumonia

40
Q

investigation used to confirm an allergy

A

patch test

41
Q

polymyositis symtoms

A
  • struggle to get out of chair

- affect proximal muscles first

42
Q

polymyositis investigations

A
  • electormyography

- muscle biopsy

43
Q

in what are heberden’s nodes found

A

OA

44
Q

reiter’s triad (fancy terms)

A

arthritis, conjunctivitis, urethritis

45
Q

in what are syndesmophytes found

A

ankylosing spondylitis

46
Q

what antibodies found in SLE

A

anti-double stranded DNA antibodies

47
Q

describe OA pain

A
  • morning stiffness can be present
  • wears off much quicker than inflammatory arthritis
  • pain typically gets worse with activity
48
Q

NO in relation to B12

A

causes B12 deficiency (depletes b12)

49
Q

investigation to confirm diagnosis of CLL

A

Peripheral blood flow cytometry

50
Q

APML associated with what

AML
blood stuff

A
  • prolonged prothrombin
  • prolonged APTT
  • low fibrinogen
51
Q

what is Philadelphia chromosome translocation

A

t9-22

52
Q

what are typical symptoms of sarcoidosis

A

pulmonary symptoms as predominate (cough, dyspnoea)

53
Q

amyloidosis presentation

A

fatigue, weight loss, pre orbital purpura

54
Q

amyloidosis investigation

A

Diagnosis would require tissue biopsy and apple-green birefringenece

55
Q

PRV haemoglobin levels

A

increased

56
Q

polycythemia vera mutation

A

JAK2

57
Q

what affects APTT

A

intrinsic pathway compromised

increased in haemophilia A and b

58
Q

most common cause of SBO

A

adhesions

59
Q

what antibodies most specific for coeliac disease

A

IgA anti-endomysial antibodies

60
Q

what antibodies most sensitive for coeliac disease

A

IgA tissue-transglutaminase

61
Q

investigation to confirm diverticulitis

A

Abdominal CT

62
Q

Investigation for bowel cancer (check)

A

feacal occult blood test

63
Q

what artery affected in posterior duodenal ulcer erosion

A

gastroduodenal artery

64
Q

most common cause of reactive arthritis

A

Chlamydia

65
Q

first line treatment for psoriatic arthritis

A

NSAIDS - Ibuprofen

66
Q

-

A

-

67
Q

most common cause of septic arthritis (pathogen)

A

s aureus

68
Q

most common septic arthritis in young, sexual cite

A

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

69
Q

most common septic arthritis prosthetic joints

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

70
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism cause

PTH + Calcium levels

A

cause: parathyroid tumour
PTH: high
Calcium: high

71
Q

secondary hyperparathyroidism cause

PTH + Calcium levels

A

cause: low vit D, or CKD
PTH: high
Calcium: low

72
Q

tertiary hyperparathyroidism cause

PTH + Calcium levels

A

cause: parathyroid hyperplasia
PTH: high
Calcium: high
phosphate: high

73
Q

heberdens nodes are where and associated with what

A
  • bony swellings at the proximal interphalangeal joints

- OA

74
Q

what drug to treat Raynauds

A

Nifedipine

75
Q

how is legionnaire’s disease most commonly diagnosed

A

antigens in urine

76
Q

isoniazid (TB treatment) side effect

A

Isoniazid depletes B6 causing peripheral neuropathy

77
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does atopic asthma generally fall into

A

type 1

78
Q

what is goodpasture’s

A

(also known as anti-glomerular basement membrane disease)
This is an autoimmune disease affecting BM => leading to pulmonary haemorrhage and glomerulonephritis

Think of Goodpasture’s when someone is peeing and coughing blood.

79
Q

tension pneumothorax, where do you put the needle

A
  • 2nd intercostal space MCL just above the rib (intercostal nerves and vessels lie just below each rib)
  • left to right doesn’t matter (check this!)
80
Q

do BB cause bronchoconstriction or dilation ?

A

bronchoconstriciton

81
Q

does COPD cause finger clubbing

A

NO

82
Q

describe what to do with wells score results

A

> 2: DVT likely => compression ultrasound scan

<2: D-dimer test done first

83
Q

what inheritance is haemophilia A + B

A

x linked

84
Q

normocytic MCV

A

80-100

85
Q

in what condition is bench jones protein seen in urinary electrophoresis

A

multiple myeloma

86
Q

when does idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura usually present

A

in children following a viral infection

87
Q

ITP treatment

A
  • steroids (prednisolone)

- if severe: IV immunoglobulin

88
Q

in what are auer rods seen

A

AML

89
Q

in what are rouleaux aggregations seen

A

myeloma

90
Q

in what are smudge/smear cells seen

A

CLL

91
Q

in what are bite cells seen

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

92
Q

dormant malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

93
Q

how does B12 deficiency present

A

fatigue, palpitations, and headaches

pins and needles

bits stuff (8 decks)

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