Mock PTS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is in CHADS-VASc?

and what’s it for?

A
  • Congestive Heart Failure
  • Hypertension
  • Age (75+=2)
  • Diabetes
  • Stroke/ TIA/ Thromboembolism
  • Vascular disease
  • Age (65-74)
  • Sex category (female=1)

risk of stroke following AF

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2
Q

what kind of pulse associated with atrial fibrillation

A

irregularly irregular

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3
Q

what is pulses paradoxus

A

BP drops significantly during inspiration, seen in severe Asthma, COPD, blood loss and cardiac conditions.

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4
Q

describe murmur

aortic stenosis

A

ejection systolic crescendo decrescendo murmur (and a slow rising, narrow pulse pressure), heard loudest on expiration

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5
Q

describe murmur

Aortic regurgitation

A

early diastolic decrescendo murmur (and a collapsing pulse)

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6
Q

describe murmur

Mitral regurgitation

A

apical pansystolic murmur.

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7
Q

describe murmur

mitral stenosis

A

apical mid diastolic rumble

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8
Q

describe murmur

Pulmonary stenosis

A

ejection systolic murmur heard loudest on inspiration

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9
Q

3 cardinal signs of heart failure

A

sob, fatigue, ankle oedema

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10
Q

other (not cardinal) signs of HF

A

cold peripheries, raised JVP, hypotension, cyanosis, oedema and increased weight

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11
Q

explain MaRRoW on ECG

A

Right bundle branch block
- The first letter is M so lead 1 has a complex
resembling an M (R wave)
- 6th letter is W so lead 6 has a complex resembling a W (Slurred S wave).

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12
Q

what BP reading is stage 1 Hypertension

A

> 140/90

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13
Q

what BP reading is stage 2 Hypertension

A

> 160/100

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14
Q

what coeliac poo like

A

pale smelly stools that are hard to flush away.

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15
Q

crohns pain distribution

A

right side of abdo (usually)

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16
Q

UC pain distribution

A

lower left quadrant of abdo

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17
Q

what used to treat UC

A

Sulfasalazine (aminosalicylates)

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18
Q

how does mucosal ischaemia cause peptic ulcers

A

stomach cells not supplied with enough oxygen => die + don’t produce mucin => gastric acid attack those cells => cells die and ulcer formation

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19
Q

treatment for H. pylori infection

A
  • clarithromycin/metronidazole
  • amoxicillin
  • PPI (omeprazole/lansoprazole)
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20
Q

first line investigation when expected bowel obstruction

A

CT

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21
Q

what is achalasia

A
  • lower oesophageal sphincter fails to open during swallowing causing a back-up of food into the oesophagus
  • peristalsis is reduced, which is needed to pass food down along the oesophagus, this often results in the food being brought back up
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22
Q

describe duodenal ulcer pain with regards to eating

A

they cause pain several hours after eating and the pain gets better when eating

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23
Q

male:female ratios of crohns and UC

A

UC: equal
crohns: female skewed

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24
Q

which has a stronger genetic link. crohns or UC ?

A

crohns

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25
what is Dermatitis Herpetiformis
associated with coeliac itchy bumps immunological response to gluten which manifests in the skin
26
gold standard investigation for bowel cancer
colonoscopy
27
where are most colon cancers found
distal colon
28
diverticula risk factors
not alcohol ! - low fibre diet - obesity - NSAIDS - Smoking
29
most common cause of AKI
acute tubular necrosis
30
is hyper or hypovolaemia more likely to cause AKI
hypo
31
most common cause of pyelonephritis what pathogen
E. coli
32
first line Abx for pregnant woman with UTI
Nitrofurantoin (7 days)
33
what is reiters syndrome
can't pee, see or climb a tree => reactive arthritis
34
what pathogen can only cats pass on
Toxoplasma gondii
35
TTP treatment + don't to what
plasma exchange treat asap without without diagnostic confirmation - medical emergency ! don't give platelets !
36
treatment of polycythaemia rubra vera
- phlebotomy | - low dose aspirin
37
what is FRAX score
gives 10 year probability of fracture
38
what is HAS-BLED score
Estimates risk of major bleeding for patients on anticoagulation to assess risk-benefit in atrial fibrillation care
39
what is protein target of rituximab
CD20 (only found on B cells)
40
what cancers is rituximab used to treat
NHL, CLL
41
first line treatment for severe/complicated malaria
IV artesunate
42
what is Rhabdomyoma
Benign striated muscle neoplasm
43
what is Leiomyoma
Benign smooth muscle neoplasm
44
what is Leiomyosarcoma
Malignant smooth muscle neoplasm
45
what is Rhabdomyosarcoma
Malignant striated muscle neoplasm
46
describe barrets oesophagus metaplasia
oesophageal stratified squamous cells => SIMPLE columnar cells
47
what Budd-Chiari syndrome
condition involving an obstruction of the Hepatic vein via either a tumour or a thrombus => Hepatic ischaemia => liver failure
48
first line pharmaceutical treatment for paracetamol overdose
N-acetyl cysteine
49
what is very elevated amylase suggestive of
acute pancreatitis
50
wants chariots triad associated with
ascending cholangitis
51
describe BMI ranges
normal: 18.5 - 24.9 overweight: 25.0—29.9 obese: 30+
52
1st line treatment of withdrawal seizures
chlordiazepoxide
53
wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by deficiency in what vitamin
B1 (thiamine)
54
what is alendronic acid | + SE
- bisphosphonates | - oesophagitis
55
periarticular erosions seen on x ray. What condition is this?
gout
56
what seen on x ray in psoriatic arthritis
pencil in cup
57
first line management for ankylosing spondylitis if severe?
NSAID Infliximab, alongside other DMARDs and anti-TNF drugs
58
how does pseuodgout present
mono arthritis (usually knee), low grade fever
59
first thing to do with suspected stroke ?
CT imaging of head
60
adult patients with acute ischaemic stoke should revise alteplase treatment within what time after onset of their symptoms
<4.5 hours
61
most common cause of infective exacerbation of COPD
haemophilus influenza
62
what asthma treatment can cause fine tremor
salbutamol (short acting beta agonist)
63
what lung cancer most commonly seen in non-smokers
adenocarcinoma
64
which lung cancer associated with asbestos
mesothelioma
65
which lung cancer associated with asbestos
mesothelioma
66
normal HR
60-100 bpm
67
normal RR
12 - 20 (maybe a bit less)
68
temp over what is a fever
38 degrees Celsius
69
oxygen saturation below what is sever asthma
<92% | 92-97 % is moderate
70
what low BP
<90/60mmHg
71
what lung disease can alpha-1-antitrypsin disease cause
COPD
72
which gene mutated in CF
Transmembrane Conductance Regulator (CFTR)
73
what does CF gene mutation do
causing dysregulation of salt and fluid movement across cell membranes, this leads to really thickened secretions, affecting the respiratory, GI and reproductive systems
74
what is the most common type of lung cancer
adenocarcinoma
75
in bronchiectasis, what is common finding on CT
signet ring sign
76
common cause of HAP
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
77
describe typical person for spontaneous pneumothorax
Young males with a low BMI | marfans
78
what is site for needle thoracotomy to treat pneumothorax
A needle thoracostomy goes in the 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line on the same side as the pneumothorax