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bits stuff > Mock PTS 2 > Flashcards

Mock PTS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is in CHADS-VASc?

and what’s it for?

A
  • Congestive Heart Failure
  • Hypertension
  • Age (75+=2)
  • Diabetes
  • Stroke/ TIA/ Thromboembolism
  • Vascular disease
  • Age (65-74)
  • Sex category (female=1)

risk of stroke following AF

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2
Q

what kind of pulse associated with atrial fibrillation

A

irregularly irregular

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3
Q

what is pulses paradoxus

A

BP drops significantly during inspiration, seen in severe Asthma, COPD, blood loss and cardiac conditions.

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4
Q

describe murmur

aortic stenosis

A

ejection systolic crescendo decrescendo murmur (and a slow rising, narrow pulse pressure), heard loudest on expiration

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5
Q

describe murmur

Aortic regurgitation

A

early diastolic decrescendo murmur (and a collapsing pulse)

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6
Q

describe murmur

Mitral regurgitation

A

apical pansystolic murmur.

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7
Q

describe murmur

mitral stenosis

A

apical mid diastolic rumble

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8
Q

describe murmur

Pulmonary stenosis

A

ejection systolic murmur heard loudest on inspiration

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9
Q

3 cardinal signs of heart failure

A

sob, fatigue, ankle oedema

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10
Q

other (not cardinal) signs of HF

A

cold peripheries, raised JVP, hypotension, cyanosis, oedema and increased weight

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11
Q

explain MaRRoW on ECG

A

Right bundle branch block
- The first letter is M so lead 1 has a complex
resembling an M (R wave)
- 6th letter is W so lead 6 has a complex resembling a W (Slurred S wave).

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12
Q

what BP reading is stage 1 Hypertension

A

> 140/90

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13
Q

what BP reading is stage 2 Hypertension

A

> 160/100

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14
Q

what coeliac poo like

A

pale smelly stools that are hard to flush away.

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15
Q

crohns pain distribution

A

right side of abdo (usually)

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16
Q

UC pain distribution

A

lower left quadrant of abdo

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17
Q

what used to treat UC

A

Sulfasalazine (aminosalicylates)

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18
Q

how does mucosal ischaemia cause peptic ulcers

A

stomach cells not supplied with enough oxygen => die + don’t produce mucin => gastric acid attack those cells => cells die and ulcer formation

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19
Q

treatment for H. pylori infection

A
  • clarithromycin/metronidazole
  • amoxicillin
  • PPI (omeprazole/lansoprazole)
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20
Q

first line investigation when expected bowel obstruction

A

CT

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21
Q

what is achalasia

A
  • lower oesophageal sphincter fails to open during swallowing causing a back-up of food into the oesophagus
  • peristalsis is reduced, which is needed to pass food down along the oesophagus, this often results in the food being brought back up
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22
Q

describe duodenal ulcer pain with regards to eating

A

they cause pain several hours after eating and the pain gets better when eating

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23
Q

male:female ratios of crohns and UC

A

UC: equal
crohns: female skewed

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24
Q

which has a stronger genetic link. crohns or UC ?

A

crohns

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25
Q

what is Dermatitis Herpetiformis

A

associated with coeliac

itchy bumps

immunological response to gluten which manifests in the skin

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26
Q

gold standard investigation for bowel cancer

A

colonoscopy

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27
Q

where are most colon cancers found

A

distal colon

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28
Q

diverticula risk factors

A

not alcohol !

  • low fibre diet
  • obesity
  • NSAIDS
  • Smoking
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29
Q

most common cause of AKI

A

acute tubular necrosis

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30
Q

is hyper or hypovolaemia more likely to cause AKI

A

hypo

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31
Q

most common cause of pyelonephritis

what pathogen

A

E. coli

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32
Q

first line Abx for pregnant woman with UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin (7 days)

33
Q

what is reiters syndrome

A

can’t pee, see or climb a tree => reactive arthritis

34
Q

what pathogen can only cats pass on

A

Toxoplasma gondii

35
Q

TTP treatment

+ don’t to what

A

plasma exchange

treat asap without without diagnostic confirmation - medical emergency !

don’t give platelets !

36
Q

treatment of polycythaemia rubra vera

A
  • phlebotomy

- low dose aspirin

37
Q

what is FRAX score

A

gives 10 year probability of fracture

38
Q

what is HAS-BLED score

A

Estimates risk of major bleeding for patients on anticoagulation to assess risk-benefit in atrial fibrillation care

39
Q

what is protein target of rituximab

A

CD20 (only found on B cells)

40
Q

what cancers is rituximab used to treat

A

NHL, CLL

41
Q

first line treatment for severe/complicated malaria

A

IV artesunate

42
Q

what is Rhabdomyoma

A

Benign striated muscle neoplasm

43
Q

what is Leiomyoma

A

Benign smooth muscle neoplasm

44
Q

what is Leiomyosarcoma

A

Malignant smooth muscle neoplasm

45
Q

what is Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Malignant striated muscle neoplasm

46
Q

describe barrets oesophagus metaplasia

A

oesophageal stratified squamous cells => SIMPLE columnar cells

47
Q

what Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

condition involving an obstruction of the Hepatic vein via either a tumour or a thrombus => Hepatic ischaemia => liver failure

48
Q

first line pharmaceutical treatment for paracetamol overdose

A

N-acetyl cysteine

49
Q

what is very elevated amylase suggestive of

A

acute pancreatitis

50
Q

wants chariots triad associated with

A

ascending cholangitis

51
Q

describe BMI ranges

A

normal: 18.5 - 24.9
overweight: 25.0—29.9
obese: 30+

52
Q

1st line treatment of withdrawal seizures

A

chlordiazepoxide

53
Q

wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by deficiency in what vitamin

A

B1 (thiamine)

54
Q

what is alendronic acid

+ SE

A
  • bisphosphonates

- oesophagitis

55
Q

periarticular erosions seen on x ray. What condition is this?

A

gout

56
Q

what seen on x ray in psoriatic arthritis

A

pencil in cup

57
Q

first line management for ankylosing spondylitis

if severe?

A

NSAID

Infliximab, alongside other DMARDs and anti-TNF drugs

58
Q

how does pseuodgout present

A

mono arthritis (usually knee), low grade fever

59
Q

first thing to do with suspected stroke ?

A

CT imaging of head

60
Q

adult patients with acute ischaemic stoke should revise alteplase treatment within what time after onset of their symptoms

A

<4.5 hours

61
Q

most common cause of infective exacerbation of COPD

A

haemophilus influenza

62
Q

what asthma treatment can cause fine tremor

A

salbutamol (short acting beta agonist)

63
Q

what lung cancer most commonly seen in non-smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

64
Q

which lung cancer associated with asbestos

A

mesothelioma

65
Q

which lung cancer associated with asbestos

A

mesothelioma

66
Q

normal HR

A

60-100 bpm

67
Q

normal RR

A

12 - 20 (maybe a bit less)

68
Q

temp over what is a fever

A

38 degrees Celsius

69
Q

oxygen saturation below what is sever asthma

A

<92%

92-97 % is moderate

70
Q

what low BP

A

<90/60mmHg

71
Q

what lung disease can alpha-1-antitrypsin disease cause

A

COPD

72
Q

which gene mutated in CF

A

Transmembrane Conductance Regulator (CFTR)

73
Q

what does CF gene mutation do

A

causing dysregulation of salt and fluid movement across cell membranes, this leads to really thickened secretions, affecting the respiratory, GI and reproductive systems

74
Q

what is the most common type of lung cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

75
Q

in bronchiectasis, what is common finding on CT

A

signet ring sign

76
Q

common cause of HAP

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

77
Q

describe typical person for spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Young males with a low BMI

marfans

78
Q

what is site for needle thoracotomy to treat pneumothorax

A

A needle thoracostomy goes in the 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line on the same side as the pneumothorax

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