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bits stuff > MedSoc SBA 1 > Flashcards

MedSoc SBA 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what increased if patient likely to have HCC

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

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2
Q

what is lactate dehydrogenase a marker of

A

testicular cancer

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3
Q

management for GCA

A

IV methylprednisolone

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4
Q

what is pain of cluster headache like

A
  • episodic
  • unilateral
  • pain rises to a crescendo
  • often nocturnal, wakes patient up
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5
Q

trigeminal neuralgia pain

A
  • unilateral facial pain in the trigeminal distribution
  • Electric-like shooting or stabbing pain caused by innocuous (non-harmful) stimuli like
    washing or shaving the area, or talking
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6
Q

symptoms to indicate mitral stenosis

A
  • coughing up blood

- flushed appearance

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7
Q

most common cause of microcytic anaemia

A

iron deficiency

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8
Q

what psoriatic arthritis synovial fluid like

A

raised WBC

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9
Q

3 criteria in diagnosing angina

A
  • Central, heavy and tight -> radiates to arm, jaw or neck
  • Precipitated by exercise, emotion, temperature
  • Relieved by rest/sublingual GTN
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10
Q

after IV fluids what do you give in DKA

A
  • insulin AND dextrose infusion
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11
Q

gold standard diagnostic test for renal stones

A

CT KUB

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12
Q

what type of genetic inheritance does Huntington’s show

A

autosomal dominant

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13
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy inheritance pattern

A

X-linked recessive

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14
Q

treatment for intussusception

A

air- enema

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15
Q

what added to β-lactam antibiotics in order to inhibit β-lactamase?

A

Clavulanic acid

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16
Q

explain glucose and proteins levels in bacterial CSF

A
  • Glucose: low, as bacteria consume it

- Protein: high, as the bacteria produce enzymes

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17
Q

what JAK-2 mutations associated with

A

polycythaemia vera and essential thrombocythemia.

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18
Q

gold standard treatment for Parkinson’s

A

levodopa

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19
Q

what things come from ectoderm

A

usually anything in contact with the outside

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20
Q

what things come from endoderm

A

If it lines the inside - GI tract and foregut

derivatives, lining of the urinary and reproductive systems, and the thyroid and parathyroids

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21
Q

what things mesoderm

A

If it’s somewhere in the middle - musculoskeletal system, the muscles of the intestines, the reproductive system, kidneys, lining of body cavities

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22
Q

haemochromatosis management

A
  • therapeutic phlebotomy until the ferritin and iron levels drop to normal
  • desferrioxamine can be given for management.
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23
Q

what is Clostridium difficile treated with

A

Vancomycin

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24
Q

what type bacteria is V. cholerae

A

gram-negative curved bacillus

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25
Q

what Abx for v. cholerae

A

Doxycycline or Azithromycin

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26
Q

what counts as early menopause

A

<45

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27
Q

risk factors for OA

A

S - Steroid use
H - Hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypercalciuria
A - Alcohol and tobacco use (12 units per week is within guidelines)
T - Thin (BMI <18.5)
T - Testosterone (low)
E - Early Menopause (earlier than 45)
R - Renal or liver failure
E - Erosive / inflammatory bone diseases (myeloma; RA)
D - Dietary calcium low / malabsorption / DMT1

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28
Q

what specific to dermatomyositis

A

Anti Mi-2

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29
Q

gold standard investigation for portal hypertension?

A

Hepatic venous pressure gradient

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30
Q

which antibodies is present as a pentamer in circulation?

A

IgM (letter M has 5 points)

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31
Q

most common GI cause of Guillain Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

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32
Q

what drug used to treat IBS-related diarrhoea

A

Loperamide - anti-motility drug

33
Q

describe seizures in the temporal lobe

A
  • memory phenomena like deja vu
  • hallucinations of smell or taste (uncal involvement) or sound (auditory cortex).
  • automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing or fiddling
34
Q

describe seizures in the frontal lobe

A

motor features such as the Jacksonian

march where the seizure ‘marches’ up or down the motor homunculus starting in face or thumb

35
Q

describe seizures in parietal lobe

A

sensory disturbances such as tingling, numbness or pain

36
Q

describe seizures in occipital lobe

A

visual disturbances such as spots, lines, or flashes

37
Q

serum copper levels in Wilsons disease

A

low

38
Q

turners syndrome karyotype

A

45, XO

39
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

47, XXY

40
Q

what is tumour lysis syndrome

A

caused by release of uric acid from cells destroyed in chemo

41
Q

what drug (group) can cause build up of urate crystals in the joints

A

thiazide diuretic

42
Q

normal range for cardiac ejection fraction

A

50-75%

43
Q

Where is an adenocarcinoma of the pancreas most likely to originate from?

A

Head of the pancreas

44
Q

gold standard investigation for kidney stones

A

Non-contrast CT KUB

45
Q

What histological change is seen occurring to the lower oesophageal mucosa in Barrett’s Oesophagus?

A

stratified squamous epithelium => simple columnar epithelium

46
Q

ongoing asthma treatment

A

1st line: SABA
2nd line: Add low-dose ICS (SABA + ICS)
3rd line: Trial additional LTRA for 4-8 weeks (SABA + ICS + LTRA)
4th line: If LTRA does not control, stop LTRA and start LABA (SABA + ICS + LABA)

47
Q

what’s stage 1 hypertension

A
  • Clinic blood pressure ranging from 140/90 -159/99 mmHg

- Subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average blood pressure ranging from 135/85 - 149/94 mmHg

48
Q

primary biliary cholangitis, male vs female

A

90% of cases are female

49
Q

which clotting factors are vitamin K dependant

A

X, IX, VII and II

1972

50
Q

first line investigation for renal cell carcinoma

A
  • ultrasound

- CT

51
Q

what is given before surgery for phaeochromocytoma

A

phenoxybenzamine (alpha blocker)

52
Q

what compresses upon the median nerve, causing the

symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

transverse carpal ligament

53
Q

Epidural haemorrhage on CT

A

hyperdense convex shape

54
Q

what is Addisons disease

A

to primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal gland cannot produce hormones such as cortisol,

55
Q

what would FBC show for menorrhagia

A
  • Hb low (due to blood loss)
  • MCV reduced (due to iron deficiency)

microcytic anaemia

56
Q

what is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis

A
  • high blood amylase

- raised urinary amylase

57
Q

what is anticipation

A

successive generations have more (trinucleotide) repeats leading to earlier age of onset and more severe symptoms

58
Q

Which bacterial structure do glycopeptide antibiotics target?

A

cell wall

59
Q

give example of Glycopeptides

A

vancomycin

60
Q

Management of Addisonian crisis

A

STAT dose of 100mg hydrocortisone

61
Q

side effect Ethambutol

A

optic neuritis

62
Q

Parkinson’s triad

A
  • resting tremor
  • cogwheel rigidity
  • badykinaesia
63
Q

what acute onset chest pain that is characteristically relieved by leaning forward

A

pericarditis

64
Q

pulsus paradoxus is a sign of what

A
  • cardiac tamponade

- acute asthma or COPD

65
Q

what is cardiac tamponade

A

accumulation of a large amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity that compresses the heart and reduces cardiac function

66
Q

what is Orthopnoea

A
  • difficulty breathing when lying down

- is a classic symptom of heart failure

67
Q

describe JVP in ride sided heart failure

A

raised: systemic congestion => raised venous pressure

68
Q

BNP

  • released from where
  • in response to what
A

released from ventricles in response to overfilling of the chambers of the heart

69
Q

Leads I, v5, v6 and aVL

which bit of heart

A

lateral => circumflex

70
Q

Leads v3 and v4

which bit of heart

A

Anterior => LAD

71
Q

wolff-parkinson-white syndrome ECG presentation

A 
delta wave
(caused by the accessory conduction pathway)
72
Q

x-ray findings in heart failure

A

ABCDE

  • Alveolar oedema
  • Kerley B lines (Interstitial oedema)
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels
  • Pleural effusion
73
Q

signs of RHF

A

raised JVP, pitting edema and ascites

due to systemic congestion

74
Q

signs of RHF

A

raised JVP, pitting edema and ascites

due to systemic congestion

75
Q

first-line investigation in patients with symptoms typical for stable angina

A

CT coronary angiography

76
Q

what first line anti-hypertensive drug for people with type 2 diabetes of any age

A

ACEI - ramapril

77
Q

most common cause of aortic stenosis

A

senile calcification of the valve

78
Q

pericarditis treatment

A

NSAIDS and colchicine

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