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MedSoc SBA 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what increased if patient likely to have HCC

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

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2
Q

what is lactate dehydrogenase a marker of

A

testicular cancer

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3
Q

management for GCA

A

IV methylprednisolone

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4
Q

what is pain of cluster headache like

A
  • episodic
  • unilateral
  • pain rises to a crescendo
  • often nocturnal, wakes patient up
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5
Q

trigeminal neuralgia pain

A
  • unilateral facial pain in the trigeminal distribution
  • Electric-like shooting or stabbing pain caused by innocuous (non-harmful) stimuli like
    washing or shaving the area, or talking
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6
Q

symptoms to indicate mitral stenosis

A
  • coughing up blood

- flushed appearance

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7
Q

most common cause of microcytic anaemia

A

iron deficiency

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8
Q

what psoriatic arthritis synovial fluid like

A

raised WBC

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9
Q

3 criteria in diagnosing angina

A
  • Central, heavy and tight -> radiates to arm, jaw or neck
  • Precipitated by exercise, emotion, temperature
  • Relieved by rest/sublingual GTN
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10
Q

after IV fluids what do you give in DKA

A
  • insulin AND dextrose infusion
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11
Q

gold standard diagnostic test for renal stones

A

CT KUB

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12
Q

what type of genetic inheritance does Huntington’s show

A

autosomal dominant

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13
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy inheritance pattern

A

X-linked recessive

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14
Q

treatment for intussusception

A

air- enema

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15
Q

what added to β-lactam antibiotics in order to inhibit β-lactamase?

A

Clavulanic acid

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16
Q

explain glucose and proteins levels in bacterial CSF

A
  • Glucose: low, as bacteria consume it

- Protein: high, as the bacteria produce enzymes

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17
Q

what JAK-2 mutations associated with

A

polycythaemia vera and essential thrombocythemia.

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18
Q

gold standard treatment for Parkinson’s

A

levodopa

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19
Q

what things come from ectoderm

A

usually anything in contact with the outside

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20
Q

what things come from endoderm

A

If it lines the inside - GI tract and foregut

derivatives, lining of the urinary and reproductive systems, and the thyroid and parathyroids

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21
Q

what things mesoderm

A

If it’s somewhere in the middle - musculoskeletal system, the muscles of the intestines, the reproductive system, kidneys, lining of body cavities

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22
Q

haemochromatosis management

A
  • therapeutic phlebotomy until the ferritin and iron levels drop to normal
  • desferrioxamine can be given for management.
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23
Q

what is Clostridium difficile treated with

A

Vancomycin

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24
Q

what type bacteria is V. cholerae

A

gram-negative curved bacillus

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25
what Abx for v. cholerae
Doxycycline or Azithromycin
26
what counts as early menopause
<45
27
risk factors for OA
S - Steroid use H - Hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypercalciuria A - Alcohol and tobacco use (12 units per week is within guidelines) T - Thin (BMI <18.5) T - Testosterone (low) E - Early Menopause (earlier than 45) R - Renal or liver failure E - Erosive / inflammatory bone diseases (myeloma; RA) D - Dietary calcium low / malabsorption / DMT1
28
what specific to dermatomyositis
Anti Mi-2
29
gold standard investigation for portal hypertension?
Hepatic venous pressure gradient
30
which antibodies is present as a pentamer in circulation?
IgM (letter M has 5 points)
31
most common GI cause of Guillain Barre syndrome
Campylobacter Jejuni
32
what drug used to treat IBS-related diarrhoea
Loperamide - anti-motility drug
33
describe seizures in the temporal lobe
- memory phenomena like deja vu - hallucinations of smell or taste (uncal involvement) or sound (auditory cortex). - automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing or fiddling
34
describe seizures in the frontal lobe
motor features such as the Jacksonian | march where the seizure ‘marches’ up or down the motor homunculus starting in face or thumb
35
describe seizures in parietal lobe
sensory disturbances such as tingling, numbness or pain
36
describe seizures in occipital lobe
visual disturbances such as spots, lines, or flashes
37
serum copper levels in Wilsons disease
low
38
turners syndrome karyotype
45, XO
39
Klinefelter syndrome
47, XXY
40
what is tumour lysis syndrome
caused by release of uric acid from cells destroyed in chemo
41
what drug (group) can cause build up of urate crystals in the joints
thiazide diuretic
42
normal range for cardiac ejection fraction
50-75%
43
Where is an adenocarcinoma of the pancreas most likely to originate from?
Head of the pancreas
44
gold standard investigation for kidney stones
Non-contrast CT KUB
45
What histological change is seen occurring to the lower oesophageal mucosa in Barrett’s Oesophagus?
stratified squamous epithelium => simple columnar epithelium
46
ongoing asthma treatment
1st line: SABA 2nd line: Add low-dose ICS (SABA + ICS) 3rd line: Trial additional LTRA for 4-8 weeks (SABA + ICS + LTRA) 4th line: If LTRA does not control, stop LTRA and start LABA (SABA + ICS + LABA)
47
what's stage 1 hypertension
- Clinic blood pressure ranging from 140/90 -159/99 mmHg | - Subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average blood pressure ranging from 135/85 - 149/94 mmHg
48
primary biliary cholangitis, male vs female
90% of cases are female
49
which clotting factors are vitamin K dependant
X, IX, VII and II | 1972
50
first line investigation for renal cell carcinoma
- ultrasound | - CT
51
what is given before surgery for phaeochromocytoma
phenoxybenzamine (alpha blocker)
52
what compresses upon the median nerve, causing the | symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome
transverse carpal ligament
53
Epidural haemorrhage on CT
hyperdense convex shape
54
what is Addisons disease
to primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal gland cannot produce hormones such as cortisol,
55
what would FBC show for menorrhagia
- Hb low (due to blood loss) - MCV reduced (due to iron deficiency) microcytic anaemia
56
what is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis
- high blood amylase | - raised urinary amylase
57
what is anticipation
successive generations have more (trinucleotide) repeats leading to earlier age of onset and more severe symptoms
58
Which bacterial structure do glycopeptide antibiotics target?
cell wall
59
give example of Glycopeptides
vancomycin
60
Management of Addisonian crisis
STAT dose of 100mg hydrocortisone
61
side effect Ethambutol
optic neuritis
62
Parkinson's triad
- resting tremor - cogwheel rigidity - badykinaesia
63
what acute onset chest pain that is characteristically relieved by leaning forward
pericarditis
64
pulsus paradoxus is a sign of what
- cardiac tamponade | - acute asthma or COPD
65
what is cardiac tamponade
accumulation of a large amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity that compresses the heart and reduces cardiac function
66
what is Orthopnoea
- difficulty breathing when lying down | - is a classic symptom of heart failure
67
describe JVP in ride sided heart failure
raised: systemic congestion => raised venous pressure
68
BNP - released from where - in response to what
released from ventricles in response to overfilling of the chambers of the heart
69
Leads I, v5, v6 and aVL | which bit of heart
lateral => circumflex
70
Leads v3 and v4 | which bit of heart
Anterior => LAD
71
wolff-parkinson-white syndrome ECG presentation
``` delta wave (caused by the accessory conduction pathway) ```
72
x-ray findings in heart failure
ABCDE - Alveolar oedema - Kerley B lines (Interstitial oedema) - Cardiomegaly - Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels - Pleural effusion
73
signs of RHF
raised JVP, pitting edema and ascites | due to systemic congestion
74
signs of RHF
raised JVP, pitting edema and ascites | due to systemic congestion
75
first-line investigation in patients with symptoms typical for stable angina
CT coronary angiography
76
what first line anti-hypertensive drug for people with type 2 diabetes of any age
ACEI - ramapril
77
most common cause of aortic stenosis
senile calcification of the valve
78
pericarditis treatment
NSAIDS and colchicine

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