Mock PTS 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Management for MI

A
  • use of GTN spray
  • administer O2 (only if hypoxaemic, pulmonary oedema or continuing myocardial ischaemia)
  • analgesia- (e.g morphine and a co-prescribed antiemetic),
  • dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin and clopidogrel/ticagrelor)
  • restore patency to occluded artery (PCI or thrombolytic drug).
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2
Q

what drug class is this. name example.

Inhibition of aldosterone receptor in the distal tubules

A

potassium sparing diuretic

spironolactone

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3
Q

what drug class is this. name example.

inhibition of cyclooxyrgenase enzyme in the proximal tubule

A

aspirin

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4
Q

what drug class is this. name example.

inhibition of L-type voltage gated calcium channels in the nephron

A

CCB

amlodipine

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5
Q

what drug class is this. name example.

Inhibition of sodium chloride transporter in the distal convoluted tubule

A

thiazide like diuretic

bendroflumethiozide

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6
Q

what drug class is this. name example.

inhibition of sodium/potassium/chloride symporter in loop of Henle

A

loop diuretic

furosemide

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7
Q

what would aortic stenosis present with

and what would be hear on auscultation

A

Aortic stenosis would present with syncope and angina, and on auscultation an ejection systolic murmur would be heard

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8
Q

what would aortic regurgitation present with and what would be heard on auscultation

A

Aortic regurgitation would present with symptoms to similar symptoms as aortic stenosis (syncope and angina), with an early diastolic/Austin Flint murmur heard on auscultation

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9
Q

how would tricuspid regurgitation be heard

A

Tricuspid regurgitation may present with signs of right-sided heart failure, this pansystolic murmur is not heard at the apex but at the left lower sternal edge.

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10
Q

What are common MI ECG changes

A

Myocardial infarction ECG changes include:

  • ST elevation
  • ST depression
  • T wave inversion
  • abnormal Q wave
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11
Q

name conditions where absent T waves are commonly seen

A

Absent P waves are typically seen in SVT, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter

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12
Q

what are tall tented T waves characteristic of

A

hyperkalaemia

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13
Q

When are wide QRS complexes commonly seen ?

A

patients with bundle branch blocks

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14
Q

a blood pressure over what requires pharmacological intervention

A

135/85

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15
Q

Caucasian under 55. what antihypertensive drug ?

contraindicated to it? then what?

A

ACEI - ramapril

if contraindicated, ARB: losartan

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16
Q

what does cor pulmonate present with

A

sob

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17
Q

what does LBBB present with

A

usually asymptomatic

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18
Q

what is used to determine stroke risk after a TIA

A

ABCD2

  • Age (>60)
  • BP (>140/90)
  • clinical features (speech disturbance, unilateral weakness)
  • Duration of TIA
  • Diabetes
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19
Q

What is used to calculate stroke risk in patients with AF

A

CHA2DS2-VASc

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20
Q

what is used to determine the risk of DVT or PE

A

wells score

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21
Q

what is conns disease

A

primary hyperaldosteroinism: adrenal adenoma => stimulate adrenal to secrete increased aldosterone

(low renin, high aldosterone)

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22
Q

does aldosterone increase or decrease potassium excretion

A

increase

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23
Q

what is Addisons disease

A

primary adrenal insufficiency: adrenal glands damaged => decreased aldosterone + decreased cortisol (usually autoimmune)

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24
Q

how does Addisons usually present

A

lean, tanned, tired, tearful, hypotension

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25
what would be result of OGTT in suspected diabetic
- fasting glucose levels to be above 7mmol/mol | - 2hr GTT levels to be more than 11mmol/mol
26
Hypercalcaemia presentation
- stones, moans, groans, bones, thrones
27
3 symptoms of carcinoid syndrome
cardiac involvement, diarrhoea, flushing
28
what investigation is faecal calprotectin for
IBD
29
what investigation for coeliac
IgA tissue transglutaminase or endomysial antibody IgA-tTGA or EMA are specific for Coeliac disease duodenal biopsy
30
4 signs of appendicitis
tachycardic with a raised temperature, guarding and with rebound tenderness
31
what is rovsings sign and what is it a sign of ?
Pain in the right iliac fossa on palpation of the left is called Rovsing’s sign. - acute appendicitis
32
would you see diarrhoea or constipation in coeliacs disease ?
diarrhoea. would expect to see any constipation
33
how do you diagnose h pylori (2 ways)
- Carbon-13 urea breath test | - stool antigen test
34
what do g cells do
secrete gastrin which stimulates gastric acid secretion
35
what do chief cells secrete
pepsinogen
36
adverse effect of Contrast CT
anaphylactic reaction
37
what is the most common composition of renal stones
calcium oxalate (75% of cases)
38
man is a painter. what cancer he got?
bladder
39
common causes of UTIs
KEEPS - Klebsiella pneumoniae - E. coli - Enterococcus - Proteus - Staphylococcus saprophyticus
40
is minimal change disease nephritic or nephrotic
nephrotic
41
AKI has what effect on K
can't excrete potassium => hyperkalaemia => cardiac arrest
42
where do potassium sparing diuretics usually act
collecting tubule
43
which haematological disorder has pain when drinking alcohol
Hodgkins lymphoma
44
in what are auer rods found
acute myeloid leukaemia
45
gold standar investigation for DVT
doppler USS
46
would urine be dark due to increased RBC haemolytic
yes. because liver can't keep up => jaundice
47
define pharmacodynamics
action of drug on body (Dynamic = Drug)
48
define pharmacokinetics
action of body on the drug
49
what is the mechanism of action for penicillin antibiotics
inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
50
medication to treat heroin addiction
methadone
51
management for phaechromocytoma
alpha blockers (phenoxybenzamine)
52
what does c diff. cause
local inflammation of large intestine => significant diarrhoea
53
what does coffee ground vomit indicate
upper GI bleed | not gastroenteritis
54
TB treatment plus side effects
- Rifampicin: Red/orange discolouration of secretions (urine + tears) - Isoniazid: Peripheral neuropathy - Pyrazinamide: High uric acid levels→gout; - Ethambutol: Colour blindness + reduced visual acuity (EYE-thambutol)
55
which heart valve is most commonly affected in infective endocarditis
tricuspid (blood returning from systemic circulation)
56
most common cause of bacterial pneumonia
streptococcus pneumoniae
57
what does CURB65 stand for
- Confusion - Urea > 7mmol/L (HIGH) - Resp rate >30/min (HIGH) - BP (Sys <90mmHg, Dia <60mmHg) (LOW) - over 65
58
in what disease are Bouchard nodules seen
osteoarthritis
59
first line treatment for osteoporosis
- Alendronic acid (oral bisphosphonate) | - AdCal (vit D and calcium supplement)
60
second line treatment for osteoporosis
- introduction of Denosumab (monoclonal antibody to RANK ligand). This inhibits osteoclast activity and bone resorption
61
how do bisphosphonates work
enzyme inhibition which reduces osteoclast activity
62
gout management. acute and ongoing
aCute= aColchincine. Long term= allopuri-long (alopurinol)
63
which investigation is best for confirmed diagnosis of RA?
anti-CCP
64
what is osteoarthritis appearance on X-ray
LOSS - Loss of joint space - Osteophytes - Subchondral sclerosis - Subchondral cysts
65
first line treatment for migraine
NSAID
66
treatment for Gillian barre syndrome
IV immunoglobulin – contains antibodies. Given to help prevent harmful antibodies damage your nerves
67
causes of tension head ache
not dehydration ! - depression - lack of sleep - missed meals - stress
68
what type of pathogen is chicken pox
Chickenpox is a highly contagious illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a type of herpes virus
69
which pneumonia is most typically associated with AIDs
pneumocystis jirovecii
70
treatment for PE
- DOAC (apixaban) Thrombolysis (streptokinase) is reserved for massive PE, with haemodynamic compromise
71
what's another term for Ach receptor
muscarinic
72
what's in the 6 in 1 vaccine
diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib and Hepatitis B