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MedSoc SAQ 2 Flashcards

1
Q

COPD CXR signs

A
  • hyperinflation
  • flattened diaphragm
  • increased intercostal spaces
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2
Q

sensitive and specific tests for RA

A
  • sensitive: rheumatoid factor

- specific: anti- ccp antibodies

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3
Q

life threatening complication of RA

A

Felty’s syndrome

  • RA
  • splenomegaly
  • neutropenia
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4
Q

extra articular manifestations of RA

A
  • sjorgens
  • pleuritis, pleural effusions
  • glomerulonephritis
  • atherosclerosis
  • MI
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5
Q

causes of cauda equine syndrome

A
  • disc herniation
  • tumour
  • abscess
  • trauma
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6
Q

cauda equina management

A
  • immediate hospital admission
  • emergency MRI scan
  • Decompression surgery
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7
Q

how should blood cultures be taken for patients with suspected endocarditis

A
  • 3 cultures
  • from 3 different sites
  • taken at different times
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8
Q

dukes major criteria

A
  • blood cultures positive for endocarditis

- evidence of endocardial involvement (echocardiogram showing vegetation)

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9
Q

dukes minor criteria

A
  • temperature >38

- vascular phenomena (janeway lesions, splinter haemorrhages, Roth spots, oslers nodes)

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10
Q

what is Glasgow-Blatchford Bleeding Score (GBS)

A

Stratifies upper GI bleeding patients

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11
Q

oesophageal tear management

A
  • surgery: upper GI endoscopy and clipping

- high dose PPI post surgery

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12
Q

gold standard for suspected urinary tract stones

A

non contrast CT (KUB)

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13
Q

anatomical ares where urolithiasis are likely to become stuck in urinary tract (3)

A
  • Ureteropelvic junction
  • Ureteral crossing of iliac vessels
  • Ureterovesical junction
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14
Q

what can urinary tract stones be formed of

A
  • cholesterol
  • bilirubin
  • calcium
  • uric acid
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15
Q

radiological intervention to treat renal tract stones

A

ultrasound shock wave lithotripsy

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16
Q

side effects of bisphosphonates

A
  • Oesophagitis

- oesophageal ulcers

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17
Q

how take bisphosphonates

A
  • Take on an empty stomach
  • with a full glass of water
  • Stand or sit upright for 30 minutes after taking them
  • Wait 30 minutes - 2 hours before eating food or drinking any other fluids
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18
Q

Neisseria Meningitidis gram stain

A

gram negative diplococci

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19
Q

common meningitis causing organism (apart from Neisseria Meningitidis)

gram stain

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

gram positive cocci

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20
Q

2 bedside tests to examine meningitis

A
  • Kernig’s test

- Brudzinski test

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21
Q

gold standard investigation for meningitis

A

lumbar puncture

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22
Q

what empirical antibiotic for meningitis

A

cefotaxime

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23
Q

what would CXR of aortic stenosis show

A
  • cardiomegaly
  • dilated ascending aorta
  • pulmonary oedema
  • calcification of aortic valve
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24
Q

what does raised Gamma-GT indicate

what especially raised in

A

damage to liver and bile ducts

especially raised in alcohol misuse

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25
Q

alanine transaminase (ALT) function

what do high levels indicate

A

enzyme that helps convert protein into energy

this rises with liver damage

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26
Q

Aspartate transaminase (AST) function

what do high levels indicate

A

enzyme that helps metabolise amino acids

High AST indicates liver damage or muscle damage

27
Q

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) function

what do high levels indicate

A

found in liver and bone and involved in protein catabolism

high ALP indicates liver diseases (like blocked bile duct) or certain bone diseases

28
Q

excess alcohol can lead to a deficiency in what vitamin

A

B1

29
Q

what drug to manage alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide

30
Q

delirium tremors symptoms

A
  • acute confusion
  • delusions and hallucinations
  • tremor
  • tachycardia
  • hypertension
31
Q

cause of microcytic anaemia

A 
T – Thalassaemia
A – Anaemia of chronic disease
I – Iron deficiency anaemia
L – Lead poisoning
S – Sideroblastic anaemia
32
Q

man go to Spain

what pneumonia

A

Leigonella pneumophilia

33
Q

pneumonia in HIV patients

A

Pneumocystitis jirovecii

34
Q

symptoms experienced by patent with peripheral vascular disease

A
  • numbness in feet
  • absent distal pulses
  • intermittent claudication
35
Q

gold standard investigation for peripheral arterial disease

A

CT angiogram

36
Q

first line investigation for peripheral arterial disease

A

ankle branchial pressure index (ABPI)

37
Q

give examples of exudative effusions

A
  • TB
  • lung cancer
  • pneumonia
38
Q

give examples of transudative effusions

A
  • hypoalbuminemia
  • nephrotic syndrome
  • congestive cardiac failure
39
Q

what is pulsus paradoxus a sign of

A
  • acute asthma
  • COPD exacerbation
  • cardiac tamponade
40
Q

what is beck’s triad and what is indicative of

A

pericardial tamponade

  • hypotension
  • distended jugular veins
  • muffled heart sounds
41
Q

first line treatment for von Willebrand’s disease

A

vasopressin analogue (DDAVP)

42
Q

what inheritance is G6PD deficiency

A

x linked recessive

43
Q

what is the antibody target in primary biliary cholangitis

A

Jo-1

44
Q

what drug first line prevention of cluster headaches

A

CCB - verapamil

45
Q

describe effect of super antigens

A

a molecule that causes non-specific polyclonal T-cell activation

46
Q

describe pagets

A

disease of excessive bone turnover (formation and reabsorption)
not coordinated => patch areas of high density (sclerosis) + low density (lysis)

47
Q

where does pagets disease typically affect

A
  • skull
  • femur
  • pelvis
  • spine (vertebrae)
48
Q

pagets presentation

A
  • bone pain
  • bone deformity
  • fractures
  • hearing loss
49
Q

pagets management

A
  • bisphosphonates
  • NSAIDs
  • Ca and Vit D supplementation
50
Q

pagets complications

A
  • spinal cord compression

- osteosarcoma

51
Q

different types of diarrhoea

A
  • dysentry
  • osmotic
  • inflammatory
52
Q

GI reg flags for cancer

A
  • rectal bleeding
  • change in bowel habits for more than 6 weeks
  • anaemia
  • family history
  • unintentional weight loss
  • age > 60
53
Q

symptoms of SBO

A
  • Vomiting
  • nausea
  • constipation
  • abdominal distention
  • Intermittent abdominal pain
54
Q

investigation for SBO

A

abdominal CT

55
Q

what would be seen on radiography of SBO

A

Dilated jejunum and/or ileum, Absence of gas in bowel distal to the obstruction

56
Q

initial supportive management of SBO

A

drip and suck management

  • nil by mouth
  • insert nasogastric tube to decompress the bowel
  • start IV fluids and correct electrolyte imbalances
57
Q

complication of SBO

A

bowel ischaemia

perforation

58
Q

causes of gastritis

A
  • Helicobacter pylori infection
  • NSAIDs
  • alcohol abuse
  • Mucosal ischaemia
59
Q

test for H. pylori

A
  • Helicobacter pylori urea breath test

- Helicobacter pylori faecal antigen test.

60
Q

what antibodies do you look for in coeliac

A

IgA tTG

IgA EMA

61
Q

complications of diverticulitis

A
  • large bowel obstruction
  • large bowel perforation
  • bleeding
  • fistula formation
62
Q

first line drug used to treat haematemeis from ruptured oesophageal varies

A
  • IV Terlipressin acts as a vasodilator to control variceal bleeding
  • if contraindicated then IV somatostatin
63
Q

investigation for acute appendicitis

A

CT

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