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ACVIM General Boards > MOA of drugs > Flashcards

MOA of drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Heparin

Effects on triglycerides?

A

Bounds lysine on AT III enhancing AT III’s ability to neutralize thrombin (factor II) and factors IX, X, XI, XII

Increase release of lipoprotein lipase (LPL) with insulin (decrease TG), then an effective alternative Tx for high triglycerides induced acute pancreatitis

Heparin decreases TG and Cho

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2
Q

Aspirin

A

Irreversibly inhibits production of thromboxane by inhibiting COX (arachidonic acid —>PGH2)

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3
Q

Antiemetics MOA

  1. 5HT3 antagonist: ___, ___, ___
  2. 5HT4/serotonin agonist: ___, ___, ___
  3. Dopamine-2 antagonist: ___, ___, ___
  4. NK-1 receptor antagonist: ___
  5. Proton pump inhibitor: ___ (inhibit P450)
  6. H2 antagonist: ___, ___ (inhibit P450), ___
A

Antiemetics MOA

  1. 5HT3 antagonist: ondansetron, metoclopramide, cisapride
  2. 5HT4/serotonin agonist: cisapride, metoclopramide, erythromycin
  3. D-2 antagonist: metoclopramide, domperidone, chlorpromazine
  4. NK-1 receptor antagonist: maropitant
  5. Proton pump inhibitor: omeprazole (inhibit P450)
  6. H2 antagonist: famotidine, cimetidine (inhibit P450), ranitidine
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4
Q

What microorganisms are resistant to penicillin and beta-lactam?

A

Pseudomonas and Mycobacterium

Mycoplasma??

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5
Q

Four anaerobic antibiotics

A

amoxicillin, cephalexin, metronidazole, clindamycin

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6
Q

NSAID which causes irreversible COX inhibittion

A

Aspirin

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7
Q

Omeprazole

A

Irreversibly binds H-K ATPase at parietal cell
Inhibits CYP 450
Decreased CSF production

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8
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Binds to cyclophilins which associated with Ca dependent calcineurin-calmodulin complexes
Stopping dephosphoorylation of NFAT
Decreases IL-2 production in G0 phase T cells
Also cyclosporine can inhibit insulin release

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9
Q

Allopurinol

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

Dalmatians, English bulldogs, liver dysfunction

Dalmatians thought to be due to uric acid transport defect which prevents movement of uric acids into hepatocytes for conversion to allantoin by uricase.

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10
Q

4-MP

A

Competitively inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase preventing formation of oxalic acid if given early to EG ingestion cases

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11
Q

What organisms not killed by Clavamox?

A

Enterococci

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12
Q

Which skin layer prevents drug absorption?

A

Stratum corneum

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13
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine on bronchi, vessels iris?

A

Bronchi: dilation of bronchi
Vessels: vasodilation of muscle/liver (beta2), vasoconstriction of other vessels (beta1)
Iris: mydriasis

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14
Q

Most common neurotransmitter in sympathetic post-ganglionic nerve ending?

A

NE

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15
Q

What will heparin lower with blood work?

A

Triglycerides and cholesterol due to increased LPL with heparin

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16
Q

What drug is a platelet adhesion inhibitor?

A

GPIIb/IIIa inhibitor

GP = glycoprotein

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17
Q

Levetiracetam

A

Inhibits SV2A which is a voltage-gated Ca channel located on membrane on synaptic vesicles in the neuronal and endocrine system

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18
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

A

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH) necessary for purine synthesis
The rate-limiting enzyme in the de novo synthesis of guanosine nucleotides

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19
Q

Azathioprine

A

purine analogue that inhibits RNA and DNA synthesis
decreases T cell mainly
may decreases CD8 and NK cells (cell mediated immunity effect)
functions as competitive purine antagonist

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20
Q

PPA (phenylpropanolamine)

A

Stimulate alpha receptors in urethral sphincter
Used for urinary incontinence (Proin)
Selective norepinephrine releasing agent

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21
Q

Phenobarbital

A

GABA mimetic
Causes influx of Cl into the cell, creating a more negative RMP; harder to depolarize
AE: necrolytic dermatitis, decreases total and free T4

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22
Q

Potassium bromide (KBr)

A

Bromide ions compete with Cl transport and membrane hyper polarization and raising seizure threshold
High dietary Cl will enhance renal excretion of KBr
AE: allergic pneumonitis in cats which can be fetal

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23
Q

Zonisamide

A

Inhibits Na and Ca channels and increases GABA effects
Increases total T4
T-type Ca channel, voltage gated Na channel inhibitor, facilitate dopaminergic/serotonergic neurotransmitter

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24
Q

Felbamate

A

Dicarbamate that blocks NMDA-mediated excitation, potentate GABA-mediated inhibition, inhibits voltage-sensitive Na and Ca channels

25
Q

Prazosin

A

alpha 1 antagonist that works on internal and external urethral sphincter

26
Q

Tx for overstimulation of nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?

A

2PAM
2PAM competes with organophosphates which inhibit Achetylcholinesterase) and dissociated them.
Atropine and glycopyrolate only work at muscarinic receptor.
No pure nicotine receptor inhibitor.

27
Q

Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA, Actigall)

A

UDCA is secreted into bile, it becomes protonated, leaving one HCO3 ion.
Protonated UDCA becomes reabsorbed into hepatocytes resulting in the net secretion of one HCO3 ion which draw water into the bile.
Also has immunomodulatory effects; inhibition of IL-1, IL-2, Ig from B cells
Replaces more toxic hydrophobic bile acids with hydrophilic bile acid.

28
Q

Dirlotapide

A

Inhibits release lipoproteins and reduces fat deposition. Used for weight loss (Slentrol)

29
Q

Pentoxyphylline

A

Non-specific PDE inhibitor

30
Q

Thienopyridines (Clopidogrel, Plavix)

A

Inhibits ADP induced platelet aggregation without effects on COX

31
Q

Oclacitinib MOA and side effects

A

JAK 1 and 3 inhibitor
Inhibit IL-31
AEs: vomiting and diarrhea in 5%

32
Q

Trilostane

A

Inhibits 3-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

pregnenelone to progesterone

33
Q

Erythromycin

A

motilin agonist

5HT4 agonist

34
Q

Misoprostol

A

PGE1 analogue
inhibits secretion of gastric acid
increase bicarb

35
Q

Prednisone

A

Inhibits phospholipase which concerts phospholipids to arachidonic acid
Stabilize membranes
Inhibits chemotactic factors
Inhibits elastase

36
Q

Methimazole

A

Inhibits thyroperoxidase
No oxidation of iodide to iodine
GI AEs in 10% of cats
Excoriation AEs in 2-3% of cats in face and neck
Neutropenia and thrombocytopenia in 3-9% of cats

37
Q

Leflunomide

A

pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor

inhibits mitochondria enzyme dehydroratate dehydrogenase and cell arrest in G1 phase

38
Q

Drug interaction between enrofloxacin and theophylline

A

Reduce theophylline dosage by 30% due to enro increase the bioavailability of theophylline

39
Q

Nitroimidazole

A

redox reaction crease DNA damage?

40
Q

Diaminopyrimidine

A

inhibits production of THF doom DHF?

41
Q

Diazoxide

A

Inhibits insulin secretion by opening ATP sensitive potassium channel of beta cells of pancreas
Tx of choice for insulinoma

42
Q

How reverse diazepam?

A

Benzodiazepine reversal with flumazenil

43
Q

Gabapentin

A

Binds to voltage gated Ca channel

Release of excretory neurotransmitter is inhibited by decreasing influx of Ca

44
Q

Felbamate

A

Anti-convulsant
NMDA inhibitor, GABA mediate neuronal inhibitor
Increases the activation of Na channel and decreasing sustained high frequency firing of action potential, then reduce excretory neurotransmitter

45
Q

Maropitant

A

Neurokinin (NK) 1 receptor antagonist

46
Q

Transposons

A

Allows transfer of DNA from plasmid to chromosome (Ab resistance)

47
Q

Transdermal methimazole

A

Transdermal formulation in pluronic lecithin organogenesis (PLO)
Absorption across stratum corneum
Significantly lower GI AEs (4% of cats) compared to oral methimazole

48
Q

Methotrexate

A

Folic acid analogue
Competitively inhibits DHFR (dehydrofolate reductase) and depletes the pools of reduced folates
Reduced folates are required in conversion of dUMP to dTMP and for purine synthesis, then inhibits DNA synthesis

49
Q

Hydroxyurea

A

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and resulting in depletion of deoxyribonucleotide pools

50
Q

Which lesion does gentamicin damage in the kidney?

A

Proximal tubule

51
Q

Amphotericin B

A

Irreversibly binds to sterole, causing membrane pores to form rapidly effective. Also has immunomoduratory effects.
Nephrotoxic

52
Q

Theophylline

A

Inhibits PDE, causing smooth muscle relaxation, improving mucociliary clearance, and improve diaphragm contractility.
Drug interaction with Baitryl
Antagonized by beta blockers

53
Q

Ca gluconate in hyperklemia

A

Raises threshold potential of cardiac myocyte to restore gap between resting and threshold.

54
Q

What drugs does phenobarbital increase clearance?

A

oral antiicoagulants, chloramphenicol, doxycycline, steroids, beta blockers, theophilline, metronidazole.
Rifampin decrease the effects of phenobarbital.

55
Q

Estrogen toxicity

A

Direct effect on one marrow though estradiol-1-beta receptor, induction of myelopoiesis inhibitor factor.

56
Q

ABX penetrates BBB

A

Metronidazole, TMS, chloramphenicol, erythromycin, azithromycin
Weak penetration: 3rd generation of cephalosporin, rifampin, fluoroquinolone, doxy, tetracycline, penicillin, clindamycin

57
Q

Acarbose

Alpha glucosidase inhibitor

A

Competitive inhibitor of alpha glucosidase enzyme

58
Q

Glipizide

Sulfonylureas

A

Improve insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells

ACVIM General Boards (21 decks)

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