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MM Development > MM Embryology 2 > Flashcards

MM Embryology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

separation between neural plate and epidermis

A

neural crest induction

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2
Q

expressed Wnt and e-cadherin during induction

A

epidermis

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3
Q

expresses BMP and n-cadherin during induction

A

neural plate

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4
Q

what is required for neural plate induction, antagonizes ventral Shh

A

BMP

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5
Q

what mediates epithelial-mesenchymal transformation and downregulates E-cadherin in neural plate for later migration

A

Slug/Snail

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6
Q

Zic7, Msx1/2, Pax3, Cadherin 6B

A

border specifiers: prevent neural crest progenitors from becoming epidermis or neural tube

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7
Q

FoxD3 and SoxE

A

neural crest specification and delamination

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8
Q

at delamination, NC cells are still

A

multipotent and heterogenous

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9
Q

allows migration via actin polymerizatoin

A

Rho B

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10
Q

expressed in interactions between NC cells

A

Cadherin 7

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11
Q

dorsolateral migrators (between epidermis and dermis) become

A

melanocytes

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12
Q

ventrolateral migrators (through anterior sclerodome) become

A

dorsal root ganglia, sympathetic chain ganglia, schwann cells (PNS)

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13
Q

NC cells express Eph receptor so that

A

ephrins can prevent them from entering posterior somites

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14
Q

cranial NC become

A

mesectoderm (CT of head and neck)

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15
Q

pharyngeal arch a NC differentiates in is determined by

A

Hox genes

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16
Q

Post-otic NC become

A

sympathetic ganglion, enteric nervous system, adrenal medulla

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17
Q

BMP7 (from aorta) makes NC become

A

sympathetic ganglion

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18
Q

GGF makes NC become

A

schwann cells

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19
Q

Endothelin + Wnt makes NC become

A

melanocytes

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20
Q

enteric plexus is derived from

A

NC tissue

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21
Q

NC cells headed to enteric express ____ and ride along ____ gradient

A

Ret, GDNF

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22
Q

what is required to migrate past the cecum?

A

endothelins

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23
Q

agangliosis (no ganglions, pseudoobstruction and dilation) caused by

A

Chagas disease (parasite)

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24
Q

Ret/GDNF defect causes agangliosis in

A

Hirshprung’s disease

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25
Q

defect in ET-3 endothelin receptor causes

A

Megacolon! (no plexus past cecum)

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26
Q

What signals ectoderm to form neural plate?

A

inhibition of BMP signals

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27
Q

neural tube forms by zips from

A

the middle

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28
Q

defects in neural tube closure cause posterior herniations called

A

spina bifida

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29
Q

Least severe SB, open vertebra

A

occulta

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30
Q

second least severe SB, meninges exposed

A

meningocele

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31
Q

second most severe SB, meninges and cord exposed

A

myelomeningocele

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32
Q

most severe SB, cord exposed

A

myeloschisis

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33
Q

anterior hernias in tube

A

cranial bifidum

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34
Q

second most severe CB, brain out

A

encephalocele

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35
Q

most severe CB, no telencephalon (anterior embryonic forebrain)

A

anencephaly

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36
Q

what tube region grows fastest?

A

forebrain

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37
Q

intrinsic factor in A/P hindbrain

A

Hox

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38
Q

extrinsic factor in patterning hindbrain

A

retinoic acid

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39
Q

dorsal structures in brain: signal

A

BMP/TGFbeta from roofplate

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40
Q

ventral structures in brain: signal

A

SSH from notocord and floorplate

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41
Q

ventral patterning defects in brain result in

A

Holoprosencephaly (forebrain does not divide)

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42
Q

defects in synapse formation and refinement

A

autism, rett syndrome, x-linked retardation

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43
Q

Long-range attractive for axon pathfinding

A

Netrins, DCC

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44
Q

Long-range repulsive for axon pathfinding

A

Slits, Robo

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45
Q

Short-range attractive for axon pathfinding

A

Laminin

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46
Q

Short-range repulsive for axon pathfinding

A

Eph-EphR, Sema-plexins

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47
Q

while crossing, midline ____ interacts with axonal ______ to prevent recrossing

A

Slit, Robo

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48
Q

merkels cartilage (malleus and incus), mastication muscles

A

Arch 1

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49
Q

typanic cavity, middle ear,

A

Pouch 1

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50
Q

eardrum

A

Groove 1

51
Q

stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, part of body and lesser horn of hyoid, muscles of facial expression

A

Arch 2

52
Q

palatine tonsil

A

Pouch 2

53
Q

common carotid, greater horn of hyoid, stylopharyngeus

A

Arch 3

54
Q

thymus, inferior parathyroids (migrates below pouch 4)

A

Pouch 3

55
Q

aorta, right subclavian

A

Arch 4

56
Q

superior parathyroid, ultimobranchial body (thyromedullary cells)

A

Pouch 4

57
Q

ductus arteriosis

A

Arch 6

58
Q

laryngeal cartilages, larygeal and most pharyngeal muscles

A

Arch 4-6

59
Q

all PA nerve components are formed by

A

neuroectoderm cells

60
Q

all PA muscle comes from

A

mesoderm

61
Q

Pouch 1 is between

A

Arch 1 & 2

62
Q

malformed external ear? Check for _____ defects.

A

Arch 1&2

63
Q

external face develops

A

4-6 weeks

64
Q

primary palate develops

A

5-7 weeks

65
Q

secondary palate develops

A

6-8 weeks

66
Q

completion of soft palate

A

8-12 weeks

67
Q

mouth forms from disintegrated oropharyngeal membrane at

A

4 weeks

68
Q

this, derived from ectoderm and NC mesenchyme, forms frontal nasal process

A

periprosencephalon

69
Q

frontonasal process becomes

A

medial and lateral nasal processes

70
Q

mandibular and maxillary process come from

A

pharyngeal arch 1

71
Q

clefts fill in by differential mesenchyme proliferation (rare site of defect)

A

merging

72
Q

Epithelium-covered surfaces contact, fuse, and break down (common site of defect)

A

fusion

73
Q

the three sites of facial fusion

A

MNP and maxillary, LNP and MNP, palatal shelves at midline

74
Q

oronasal membrane breaks down when to form choana?

A

6 weeks

75
Q

what allows horizontalization of secondary palate in week 8?

A

increased production and hydration of FCM

76
Q

placodes arise ____ to neural crest, between _____ and epidermis

A

lateral, neural plate

77
Q

placodes arise from panplocodal ______

A

ectoderm

78
Q

placodes give rise to

A

special sense organs, cranial ganglia of branchiomeric nerves in pharyngeal arches

79
Q

Six1&2, Six 4&5, Eya, surrounding tissue, Pax genes

A

Tfs and influences on placode formation

80
Q

lens and olfactory system come from which placodes?

A

V2, V3

81
Q

lens forms by

A

invagination

82
Q

otic and nasal placodes form by

A

invagination and delamination

83
Q

in olfaction, placode also gives rise to

A

basal cells and support cells

84
Q

optic nerve and retina are located

A

in the optic stalk and cup, from the forebrain

85
Q

neural crest contributions to eye

A

choroid, sclera, cornea, pupillary membrane, chambers of eyes

86
Q

utricle, semicircular canal for vestibular system come from

A

dorsal otic vesicle

87
Q

saccule and cochlea come from

A

ventral otic vesicle

88
Q

Statoacoustic ganglion on CNVIII comes from

A

delaminates otic vessicle cells.

89
Q

faces, simian crease, mental retardation, heart disease

A

Trisomy 21 (Down)

90
Q

short stature, webbed neck, swollen hands, gonadal dysgenesis

A

Missing X (Turners)

91
Q

midline defects, CNS malformations, CHD, poor growth

A

Trisomy 13

92
Q

clenched hands, rocker-bottom feet

A

Trisomy 18

93
Q

FGFR3 defect

A

achondroplasia

94
Q

PAX6 defect

A

aniridia

95
Q

NEUROD1 defect

A

pancreatic agenesis

96
Q

TTF1 defect

A

thyroid agenisis

97
Q

NKX2.5 defect

A

congetial heart disease

98
Q

ZIC3 defect

A

holoprosencephaly (forebrain does not divide)

99
Q

doublecortin defect

A

lissencephaly (smooth brain)

100
Q

IUGR, premature, neurocognitive

A

nicotine

101
Q

long philtrum, small eyes, CHD, growth deficiencies, behavioral

A

fetal alcohol

102
Q

yellow/brown teeth, decreased bone growth

A

tetracycline

103
Q

IUGR microencephaly, mental retardation, distal phalangeal hypoplasia

A

hydantoin (anti-epileptic phenytoin)

104
Q

cleft palate, craniofacial dysmorphism, neural tube defects

A

retinoic acid (first five weeks)

105
Q

short limbs, ears, cardia problems, GU anomalies

A

thalidomide

106
Q

cataracts, CHD, deafness

A

rubella (week 6)

107
Q

IUGR, micromelia, blindness, cerebral calcification, heptosplenomegaly

A

CMV (most common viral)

108
Q

when is ionizing radiation an issue?

A

10-18weeks, at high dose

109
Q

amniotic bands, cysts, twins can cause

A

mechanical malformations

110
Q

apoptosis in blastocyst

A

outer signal inner (BMPs), only saved if in contact with BM

111
Q

BMP7 activates MSX which inhibits FGF

A

apoptosis in digits

112
Q

activation of FGFR in digits

A

syndactyly (webbed digits)

113
Q

apoptosis in heart

A

makes two chambers into four

114
Q

zVAD

A

inhibits apoptosis in heart

115
Q

both great arteries connect to right ventricle

A

double outlet right ventricle

116
Q

lens is made translucent by

A

apoptosis!

117
Q

fusion of palate requires

A

caspaces!

118
Q

50% of postmitotic neurons die postnatally by

A

apoptosis!

119
Q

cysteine proteases that cleave after asparate residues

A

caspaces!

120
Q

cytochrome c in mitochondria is sequestered from _____, usually blocked from release by ____

A

Caspase 9, BCL2

121
Q

BAK and BAX

A

apoptotic signals that poke holes in mitochondria to leak cytochrome c

122
Q

APAF1 from cytochrome c

A

cleaves caspase 9 to activate

123
Q

active caspase 9

A

cleaves caspase 3 which starts proteolysis

MM Development (9 decks)

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