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Board Review Final sets a > Mixed Review Deck 7 > Flashcards

Mixed Review Deck 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Oblique L spine: correct obliquity is demonstrated by the pedicles (eye of Scottie dog) demonstrated where?

A

Halfway between the midpoint of the vertebral bodies and the lateral border of the vertebral bodies.

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2
Q

On an oblique L spine, the pedicles seen _____ (in relation to the vertebral bodies) indicates over-rotation? Under-rotation?

A

Pedicles seen closer to the midline of the vertebral body indicates over rotation. If they are closer to the lateral border of the vertebral body, this indicates under-rotation.

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3
Q

In evaluating lateral knee radiographs, the distal margin of the medial condyle is ___ in shape, while the lateral condyle margin is ___.

A

Medial is convex, lateral is flat.

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4
Q

Lateral knee: if the medial condyle is seen the joint space (its distal margin seen distal to the distal margin of the lateral condyle), what is the correction?

A

Cephalic CR angulation was insufficient.

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5
Q

Give the voltage wave (VW) correction factors (or generator correction factors) for calculating heat units

A

single phase: 1
for 3-phase or high frequency: 1.4

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6
Q

Point lesions (damage to a structural molecule, such as DNA) occur when there is disruption in …

A

single chemical bonds

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of tube failure?

A

electrical arcing

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8
Q

What is electrical arcing?

A

When, during the final stage of an exposure, the filament electrons jump to the glass of the envelope, possibly causing a crack in the glass.

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9
Q

During processing of the PSP image, what layer of the IP is responsible for directing the (isotropically emitted) blue light toward the processor’s light collecting optics and photodetector?

A

the IP’s reflective layer

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10
Q

The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the activating source has ceased is termed …

A

phosphorescence

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11
Q

Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public’s exposure to human-made radiation?

A

90%

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12
Q

Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using …

A

radiopaque objects (placed at each corner of the light field before an exposure is made)

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13
Q

Why should 70 kV NOT be exceeded during an IVU?

A

Because the iodine-based contrast given during this exam gives optimal opacification at 60-70 kVp

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14
Q

What is the BEST way to reduce magnification distortion (and why?)

A

Decrease OID. This is better than the other option (increasing SID), because an increase in SID would require an increase in exposure factors as well.

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15
Q

What quality control test of a CR reader is done using a small lead block?

A

erasure thoroughness test (for complete erasure) done by exposing the lead block, then erasing, then re-exposing the plate without the block

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16
Q

Quality assurance deals with ____ while quality control deals with ___

A

QA: people
QC: equipment

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17
Q

What does TQM refer to?

A

Total Quality Management (another term for quality control)

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18
Q

How often is filtration tested, and what does this measure?

A

Tested annually; it measures beam quality by doing a half value layer measurement.

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19
Q

What is used to do a quality control test of filtration/beam quality?

A

digital dosimeter

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20
Q

How often is collimation accuracy (light field/beam congruence) tested, and what is the tolerance?

A

tested semi-annually; tolerance within 2% of SID.

Remember it was always wrong at Riverbend so it definitely should be semi annual!!!

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21
Q

How often is the effective focal spot tested, and what is the tolerance?

A

annually; within 50% of equipment specs

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22
Q

What are the 3 tests of effective focal spot size, and which is most accurate?

A

slit camera, star test pattern, and pin-hole camera. slit camera is most accurate

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23
Q

kVp and exposure linearity are both tested ___ (how often?) and have a tolerance level of ___

A

annually; 10%

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24
Q

How often is the timer tested for accuracy? It must be accurate within ___ % of exposures over ___ ms

A

annually; within 5% of exposures over 10 ms

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25
Q

How often are lead aprons tested for cracks, and how are they tested?

A

annually they are tested using fluoroscopy equipment

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26
Q

The spinning top test and synchronous spinning top are used to test what 2 things?

A

timer accuracy AND rectifier function

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27
Q

What type of equipment does the synchronous spinning top test vs. the spinning top teset?

A

synchronous spinning top tests 3-phase equipment and will display arcs rather than dots; the spinning top test tests single phase equipment and displays a series of dots.

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28
Q

Synchronous spinning top test: A 3-phase full-wave rectified current would expose a 360 degree arc each ___; a 1/12 second exposure should expose a ___ degree arc.

A

second
1/12 sec exposure: 30 degree arc

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29
Q

For spinning top tests and synchronous spinning top tests: if the test is off by a few dots or arcs, the issue is probably with the ____. If the variance is exactly half the expected number of dots or arcs, the problem is likely to be _____.

A

a few dots or arcs: timer accuracy

exactly half: rectifier failure

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30
Q

What tools are used to test exposure linearity and reproducibility?

A

step wedge and densitometer

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31
Q

Fluoroscopy equipment exposure rate is tested with a ____ and exposure should not exceed _____

A

digital dosimeter
100 mGy(air)/minute

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32
Q

Fluoroscopic exposure rate must not exceed …

A

100 mGy(air)/minute

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33
Q

Digital display monitors must be calibrated to the ….

A

DICOM Grayscale Standard Display Function (GSDF)

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34
Q

DICOM PS3.14 is a standard that controls the …

A

lookup table of the monitor display

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35
Q

Widening of intercostal spaces is characteristic of…

A

Emphysema

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36
Q

Pneumothorax is typically accompanied by…

A

Atelectasis

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37
Q

An increase of 1.0 mm added aluminum filtration would have what effect on the tube’s mGy(a) output?

A

Decreased mGy(a), because the filtration would absorb low energy photons, decreasing beam quantity.

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38
Q

To superimpose the femoral condyles on a mediolateral knee, the CR angle for each of these patients should be …

-average pt
-short pt with wide hips
-tall pt with narrow pelvis

A

Avg: 5 to 7 cephalad
Short/wide: 7 to 10 ceph
Tall/narrow: 5 degrees ceph

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39
Q

Which structure will usually contain air, in the prone recumbent position in a sthenic patient in a double contrast UGI?

A

Gastric fundus

40
Q

The medial extension of the descending colon is the…

A

Sigmoid colon

41
Q

Which tangential axial projection of the patella requires complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris for accurate diagnosis?

A

Merchant (supine/40 degrees of flexion)

42
Q

Where is the safest area for the radiographer to stand when a cross table lateral C-arm projection is performed?

A

On the image intensifier side of the table bc the scatter exposure rate on the entrance surface of the patient is greater than the exit surface (typically, 2 to 3 times greater)

43
Q

During a cross table lateral C arm fluoroscopic procedure, what side of the patient produces the most scatter, and how much more?

A

The entrance surface (on the tube side) where the primary beam enters. Typically exposure rate here is 2 to 3 x greater than on the exit surface.

44
Q

Give levels of gallbladder for …
Hypersthenic
Sthenic
Hyposthenic/asthenic

A

Hyper: T10-T11
Sthenic: T12-L1
Hypo/asthenic: L3-4

45
Q

Level of stomach for each body habitus

A

Hypersthenic: T9-12
Sthenic” T10-T 11 or 12
Asthenic or hypo: T11-L5

46
Q

For a UGI study, what are the 2 oblique positions and their degree of obliquity?

A

RAO, 40 to 70 degrees (larger patients are more oblique)

LPO, 30 to 60 (larger pt more oblique)

47
Q

For a barium swallow, the most important position is the RAO drinking, at a degree of ….

Where is the CR?

How do you evaluate rotation?

A

35 to 40 degrees
CR to T5/6 (2 to 3 in. Below jug notch)

Esophagus between vertebrae and heart; patient is under rotated if the esophagus is over the spine

48
Q

The jejunum’s feathery appearance is due to…

A

Mucosal folds, not villi!

49
Q

When does timing begin in a small bowel series

A

When the patient starts drinking contrast

50
Q

Sm bowel series is done prone to…

A

Compress small bowel

51
Q

Small bowel series. When contrast reaches the terminal ileum, the patient is taken to the fluoro room for…

A

TI imaging (terminal ileum imaging)

52
Q

Difference between lateral rectum in a single vs double contrast enema

A

Single: lateral (vertical beam)
Double: cross table lateral (prone–ventral decubitus) for air fluid separation.

53
Q

What image is sometimes called the butterfly position?

A

AP or PA axial sigmoid (BE)

54
Q

Angle for axial sigmoid to elongate rectosigmoid region

A

AP, 30 to 40 deg. cephalad to ASIS
PA. 30 to 40 deg. caudal to ASIS.

“Toes up, angle up”

55
Q

Barium atomic number

A

56

56
Q

Ionic contrast has (higher or lower) osmolality than nonionic

A

Higher! Greater chance of reaction

57
Q

Barium enema is generally better tolerated and retained if the barium is what temp?

A

Cool or actually cold (40 to 45 F)

58
Q

Higher iodine concentration in contrast means ____ osmolality?

A

Higher

59
Q

Condition that can occur due to contrast (especially high osmolar) administration, resulting in deformation and shrinkage of RBC’s, or hemolysis

A

Hyperosmolality

60
Q

What quality of contrast can cause the patient a burning or stinging sensation as it travels through the vessels?

A

High viscosity. Greater iodine concentration means higher viscosity.

61
Q

Which of these contrast agents are high osmolality and which are low

Omnipaque
Conray
Isovue
Optiray

A

Conray is high
The other 3 are low

62
Q

Urological studies: what general types of studies are structural, and which are functional?

A

Structural: retrograde
Functional: antegrade

63
Q

Voiding cystourethrogram: what position is used for male vs female voiding?

A

Male: 30 degree rpo
Female: AP

64
Q

A voiding cystourethrogram involves (antegrade or retrograde?) flow of contrast into the _____ through a(n) ______, followed by ______for imaging during voiding.

A

Retrograde, bladder, urethral catheter, withdrawal of catheter

65
Q

What procedure involves retrograde injection of contrast through a ureteral catheter by a urologist as a surgical procedure?

A

Retrograde urography

66
Q

Retrograde cystography involves (retrograde or antegrade) flow of contrast into the bladder, driven by…

A

Retrograde, gravity

67
Q

Until a PSP is processes, electrons freed upon irradiation are stored in the ____ within the phosphor layer as a latent image.

A

Conduction band

68
Q

What is the PRIMARY cause of decreased spatial resolution on radiographs?

A

Patient motion

69
Q

When 2 objects of the same radiographic density touch one another, causing the border between the objects to disappear on the image, this is known as the ____ sign.

A

Silhouette sign.

70
Q

Reviewing a PA chest, you notice that the image does NOT show the right heart border because the right middle lobe is consolidated. This is an example of the _____.

A

Silhouette sign.

71
Q

This sign is usually seen on a chest CT and appears as a ground glass opacity surrounding a pulmonary nodule or mass, representing hemorrhage

A

Halo sign

72
Q

What type of contrast medium dissociates into 2 molecular particles in water?

A

Ionic agents

73
Q

If the metacarpals are of interest for a trauma hand xray, and the patient cannot extend the fingers fully for a PA projection, what alternate projection could you do?

A

AP hand. As the fingers are not of interest, this could work.

74
Q

What information is used to calculate a patient’s GFR?

A

Results of blood creatinine, and the patient’s age, race, and gender.

75
Q

What would be the best urography study to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?

A

Voiding cystourethrogram; vesicoureteral reflux only occurs during voiding.

76
Q

The CR is directed to the _____ joint when performing a lateral projection of the 4th toe.

A

Proximal interphalangeal

77
Q

What CR entry point is used for toes in AP, oblique, and lateral views?

A

AP and oblique use the metatarsophalangeal

Lateral uses the proximal interphalangeal

78
Q

The neck of the femur is angled anteriorly from the femoral body by approximately…

A

15 to 20 degrees

79
Q

What is primary shielding?

A

Shielding from the primary beam (that which is to pass through the patient)

80
Q

Collimation is a type of ____ shielding

A

Primary

81
Q

What is the formula for calculating the energy of a scattered photon created during a Compton interaction?

A

E(i) = E(s) + E(b) + E(ke)

Energy of the incident photon is divided between the energy of the scattered photon and the energy of the ejected electron. The ejected electron energy is E(b) + E(ke), the binding energy of the Compton (recoil) electron and the kinetic energy given to the Compton electron by the incident electron.

82
Q

Products of a Compton interaction

A

Recoil (Compton) electron and a Compton scattered photon.

83
Q

What is another term for a positive pressure switch?

A

A dead man switch

84
Q

The concept used in barrier design that describes the total beam-on time for a radiography room per week

A

Workload, calculated as mAs or mA minutes per week

85
Q

What is the average temporal artery temperature for a patient?

A

100 degrees

86
Q

What is image metadata?

A

Patient demographic and examination information is stored in every DICOM image as metadata.

87
Q

What is the purpose of the photomultiplier tube in a phosphor plate reader system?

A

It amplifies and CONVERTS LIGHT released from the imaging plate TO ELECTRONS that will be sent to the analog to digital converter.

88
Q

Charges separate in amorphous silicon, allowing electrons to travel toward the TFT, when…

A

An electric field is applied to the array (across the detector)

89
Q

During a BE, the enema tip should be inserted in the ____ direction initially while the patient is ____.

A

Anterior
Exhaling

90
Q

The BE tip is inserted ____ 1 to 1.5 inches, then inserted _____.

A

Anteriorly, then superiorly

91
Q

What is the local processing function of renumbering pixel values for an entire image domain?

A

Windowing

92
Q

During a mobile exam, after distance and shielding have been addressed, the radiographer will receive the least scattered radiation when standing at a _____ degree angle to a patient.

A

90

93
Q

What urographic procedure involves a urologist catheterizing the ureters and instilling water soluble iodinated contrast medium?

A

Retrograde urography

94
Q

This feature of fluoroscopy maintains image quality at thr lowest dose possible by maintaining SNR

A

AERC (automatic exposure rate control)

95
Q

What feature of fluoroscopy maintains brightness based on mA

A

Automatic brightness control (ABC)

96
Q

The rotating anode target material responsible for helping to cool and conduct electrons through the xray circuitry is comprised of what 4 materials, typically?

A

Tungsten, rhodium, molybdenum, graphite

97
Q

On a PA axial of mandibular rami, thr CR is angled 20 degrees in a ____ direction and should exit the ____.

A

Cephalic, acanthion

Board Review Final sets a (12 decks)

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