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Board Review Final sets a > Board Review Final Set 12 > Flashcards

Board Review Final Set 12 Flashcards

1
Q

The IP protective layer is made of… (2 choices)

A

Carbon fiber
OR
magnesium

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2
Q

What layer of the CR plate grounds it to eliminate electrostatic charge and absorbs light to improve spatial resolution?

Where is it found in the plate?

A

Conductive layer

Between phosphor and support layers

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3
Q

What’s the purpose of the light shielding (reflective) layer of the CR imaging plate?

A

Prevents light from erasing data or leaking through the backing, decreasing spatial resolution.

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4
Q

List the 6 layers of the CR IP in order

A

Protective
Phosphor (PSP)
Conductive
Support
Light shielding (reflective)
Protective backing

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5
Q

In reference to the CR reader, what do “slow scan” and “fast scan” refer to?

A

Slow scan is the constant yet slow travel of the IP through the rollers in the CR reader.

Fast scan is the movement of the red laser across the IP

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6
Q

For both the Fuchs and Judd methods of imaging the dens/C1-C2, what positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR?

If this cannot be achieved, what should you do with the CR?

A

MML perpendicular

Or, angle CR to be parallel to the MML !

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7
Q

For a Judd and a Fuchs, the CR, parallel to the MML, should enter at what point to project the dens within the foramen magnum?

A

Fuchs, to MSP directly inferior to the tip of the mandible.

Judd, to MSP thru the midoccipital bone–1 inch inferior to mastoid tips

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8
Q

A PA projection of the mandible with no CR angle:

What portions of mandible are visualized, and where should the CR exit?

A

Visualize rami, lateral portion of body.

CR to exit junction of lips.

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9
Q

Employing a 20 to 25 degree cephalad CR angle to exit the acanthion, on a PA mandible, will visualize what portion of the mandible?

A

TMJ region and heads of condyles visible through mastoid processes

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10
Q

AP Axial Towne for skull vs mandible:

What is the difference in the CR angle?

CR entry point?

A

For skull, CR is 30 degrees caudal (if OML is perpendicular) or 37 if IOML.

Skull CR enters 2.5 inches above glabella to pass thru foramen magnum.

Mandible, CR is 35 or 42 (OML or IOML), CR enters glabella (or 1 inch superior)

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11
Q

Axiolateral/axiolateral oblique mandible, if CR of 25 deg. Ceph cannot be achieved, what can be done?

A

Combination of head tilt and CR angle to equal 25 degrees

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12
Q

Axiolateral mandible vs axiolateral TMJ, what is the main difference in the CR?

A

Mandible, angle up (25)

TMJ, angle down (15 degrees for Law, 25 to 30 for Schuller)

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13
Q

What effect does average atomic number of tissue have on Compton scatter?

A

None! It influences probability of photoelectric interaction but not Compton.

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14
Q

3 components of a CT imaging system

A

Gantry
Computer
Operator console

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15
Q

5 main parts of the CT gantry

A

Xray tube
Detector array
High voltage generator
Collimator assembly
Motorized patient couch

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16
Q

A software system’s ______ determines the grayscale available for when the xray image is displayed

A

Dynamic range

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17
Q

What ONE change in image factors can be made that would increase both Compton and photoelectric absorption at the same rate?

A

Increase tissue thickness

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18
Q

Operative cholangiography may be performed to… (3 reasons)

A

Visualize biliary stones or neoplasm
Determine function of hepatopancreatic ampulla
Examine patency of biliary tract

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19
Q

Why do moving grids lead to increased patient dose?

A

The CR is not always centered to the grid as it moves, so lateral decentering occurs, diminishing density, requires increased tech. Factors.

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20
Q

Fluoroscopic tabletop intensity must not exceed ___ mGya/min. /mA

A

21 mGya/min/mA!!
Or just 100 mGya/min

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21
Q

Which of the following are early effects of radiation exposure, and which are late/long term/somatic effects?

Cataractogenesis
Carcinogenesis
Blood changes
Embryologic damage
Life span shortening

A

All are long term except for blood changes!

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22
Q

Give the usual sequence of filling for barium enema

A

Rectum, sigmoid, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon

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23
Q

To produce similar receptor exposure on 3 phase equipment (either 6 or 12 pulse) as single phase, mAs should…

A

Be halved

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24
Q

Formula for the Nyquist frequency

A

1 / (2 x pixel pitch, in mm)

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25
Q

What determines the maximum spatial resolution in digital imagin

A

The Nyquist frequency (which is based on pixel pitch) 1 / (2 x pixel pitch in mm)

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26
Q

Medical and dental radiation account for what percentage of public exposure to human made radiation?

A

90%

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27
Q

Public exposure to medical ionizing radiation has increased by ___ in thr last 25 yrs

A

4 x (quadrupled)

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28
Q

2 main forms of COPD

A

Chronic bronchitis
Pulmonary emphysema

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29
Q

Is asthma a form of COPD?

A

Not officially. Some experts feel it should be, other do not.

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30
Q

What condition may develop if oxygen is given via a non-rebreathing mask to a patient with COPD?

A

CO2 narcosis

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31
Q

Most appropriate oxygen mask for patient with COPD?

A

Venturi mask, to minimize risk of CO2 retention

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32
Q

What type of oxygen mask can deliver high concentrations of oxygen in emergency situations?

A

Non-rebreathing

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33
Q

Emergency drug given to reduce bronchospasm

A

Isoproterenol (Isoprenaline Macure)

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34
Q

A. What is the average IV flow rate in drops per minute?

B. At this rate, the patient receives approx. __ mL/hr

A

A. 15-20 drops/min.
B. 60 mL/hr

35
Q

What causes strep throat?

A

The bacterium streptococcus pyogenes

36
Q

If a diabetic patient is fasting for a procedure and took their normal insulin dose in the morning they may exhibit…

Some sx: (tachycardia or bradycardia?) Skin? Mental? Breath?

A

Hypoglycemia or “diabetic insulin reaction”

Tachycardia, diaphoresis, confusion, weakness, sweet smelling breath

37
Q

Adult cpr compression rate

A

100 to 120 compressions/minute

38
Q

Which patient can tolerate hip.flexion to no more than 90 degrees fairly well: pt whose hip replacement was via the anterior, or posterior, approach?

A

Anterior

39
Q

Quinidine sulfate and lidocaine (Xylocaine) are both what type of medications?

A

Antiarrhythmic

40
Q

Atropine, scopolamine and belladonna are…

A

Anticholinergics

41
Q

Diuretic drug that can treat edema in CHF or kidney disease, and is also used for high bp?

A

furosemide (Lasix)

42
Q

Nitroglycerine and verapamil are both ____ drugs

A

Vasodilator

43
Q

Type of shock associated with pooling of blood in peripheral vessels

A

Neurogenic

44
Q

To reduce back strain while moving patients should you push or pull?

A

Pull

45
Q

Adrenergic meds are vaso______, stimulate the _____ nervous system to _____ BP and ______ the smooth muscle of the respiratory system.

Give 1 example.

A

Vasopressor.
Sympathetic NS
Increase BP
relax

Epinephrine (,adrenaline)

46
Q

Patients taking what type of BP medication are at increased risk of anaphylactic reactions to iodinated contrast,?

Which BP meds are a risk during cardiac catheterization?

A

Contrast rx: beta-adrenergic blockers

Card cath: calcium channel blockers

Think ABC anaphylaxis-beta
Calcium channel-cardiac cath

47
Q

Corticosteroid drug that acts as anti-inflammatory, preventing or reducing tracheobronchial edema and minimizing possibility of respiratory arrest during allergic reactions

A

methylprednisolone (,Solu-Medrol)

48
Q

Per the ACR, what is typical dosage of contrast for a pediatric patient?

A

1.5 to 2 mL/kg

49
Q

In a lateral elbow, humeral epicondyles are ___ to the IR

A

Perpendicular

50
Q

Fluoroscopic II ‘s brighten the fluoroscopic image ____ to _____ times

A

5,000 to 20,000

51
Q

2 major reasons pt dose is so much higher in fluoro?

A

Much shorter SOD than x-ray
Long exposure times!

52
Q

Typical ESE rate in fluoro;
What about in boost mode?

A

17.5 mGy/min

Boost: up to 175 mGy/min.

53
Q

Digital fluoro acquires how many images per second?

A

1 to 10

54
Q

Pulsed fluoro will decrease patient dose as long as the pulse rate is below…

A

30 pps

55
Q

For flat panel digital fluoro, interrogation time and extinction time must be less than…

A

1 ms

56
Q

Why does fluoroscopic patient dose decrease when the II is positioned closer to the patient?

A

Because the decrease in SID will increase the xray photons at the input phosphor, causing ABC to decrease mA to compensate.

57
Q

Type of fluoroscopic distortion caused by the curvature of the input screen and diminished electron focusing precision at the image periphery?

A

Pincushion distortion

58
Q

An isotope is an atom that gains or loses a(n)…

A

Neutron

59
Q

The stomach, liver, spleen and pancreas all receive arterial blood from …

A

The celiac axis (celiac trunk)

60
Q

1st branch of abdominal aorta

A

Celiac trunk (celiac axis)

61
Q

The BaF:Eu2 (Europium doped barium fluorohalide) crystal of the PSP is usually in the form of ____ or _____ phosphors.

What 3rd shape of phosphor shows better x-ray absorption and less light diffusion?

A

Granular or turbid

Needle shaped/columnar, e.g. cesium iodide, less light diffusion

62
Q

When the barium fluorohalide absorbs energy. 2 groups of electrons form.

The 1st initiates a _____.
The 2nd becomes trapped in the phosphor’s halogen ions and form ___.

A

Immediate luminescence (primary excitation)

“Color center” or “F center”

63
Q

What error (artifact) can occur when sampling frequency is less than 2x the bandwidth of the input signal?

A

Aliasing (moire effect)

64
Q

____ appears as superimposed images slightly out of alignment (an “image wrapping” effect)

A

Aliasing

65
Q

Why does using the 15% rule ro decrease mAs decrease patient dose?

A

Increased kV means a more penetrating beam

66
Q

If the planes of the tube and grid are not parallel, what grid error occurs?

A

Off level grid

67
Q

Advantage of high grid frequency (many lead strips per inch)

Disadvantage?

A

Less visibility of strips bc they are thinner.

Disadvantage, thinner strips let more scatter through.

68
Q

1 advantage and 1 disadvantage of aluminum as grid interspace material rather than plastic or fiber

A

Advantage: filters more scatter. Less grid lines.

Disadvantage: greater increase in patient dose

69
Q

DR spatial resolution is controlled by ___ and ___
In CR it is controlled by ___ and ___

A

DR. pixel pitch and DEL size of TFT

CR: Pixel pitch, sampling frequency

70
Q

Modulation transfer function refers to the amount of ____ and _____ of a system component or entire imaging system

A

Blur and contrast

71
Q

Which veins join to form the portal vein

A

Splenic and superior mesenteric

72
Q

Does copd increase or decrease subject contrast?

A

Increases! Increased air in lungs causes them to appear much darker

73
Q

Magnitude of the signal difference in the remnant beam due to different absorption characteristics of the tissues/structures making up the part

A

Subject contrast

74
Q

Rotavirus requires ____ precautions

What sx does it usually cause and in what populations?

A

Contact

Diarrhea, vomiting in infants and young children

75
Q

Increased kVp results in ____ differential attenuation of the beam

A

Decreased

76
Q

Selected kV must not differ from actual more than ____ in general radiography and ____ in mammo?

A

General: plus or minus 4 kV
Mammo: 5% of kVp

77
Q

Besides spinning tip tests what other tool is used for timer accuracy?

A

Digital dosimeter. More simple, accurate.

78
Q

An increase in HVL indicates increaze in actual kVp, OR …

A

Deposition of vaporized tungsten

79
Q

PSP and IP can only be cleaned with…

A

Anhydrous ethanol

80
Q

In CT, 1 Hounsfield unit equals what % difference between tissues attenuation characteristics and that of distilled water

A

0.1%

81
Q

In CT , a pitch less than 1 indicates…

A

Oversampling (overlap of slice data)

82
Q

The CT tube must tolerate ___ HUs while still having a ____ focal spot.

The anode must be capable of ____. It produces a ____ xray beam

A

Several million
Small
High speed rotation
Pulsed

83
Q

Increased kVp does what to DQE?

A

Decreases DQE

Board Review Final sets a (12 decks)

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