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Board Review Final sets a > Mixed Review Deck 11 > Flashcards

Mixed Review Deck 11 Flashcards

1
Q

How much barium is normally needed to perform a single contrast lower GI study?

A

1000-2000 mL to fill the large intestine

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2
Q

How do disinfectants differ from antiseptics?

A

Disinfectants are stronger and more toxic and used to kill microorganisms on nonliving objects.
Antiseptics eliminate/inhibit growth of microorganisms on living tissue.

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3
Q

What vertebrae must be seen on an AP axial c spine?

A

C3 to T2

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4
Q

As filtration is added, what happens to subject contrast and why?

A

Increase filtration, decrease subject contrast; Increase in average beam energy leads to less absorption/more scatter

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5
Q

IV drug injection: after flashback is seen, to avoid passing thru the vein, u must…

A

Decrease angle of the needle to be parallel with the skin.

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6
Q

A lateral chest can be used to…
Differentiate _______
Demonstrate ________
And localize ______<

A

Differentiate lobes of lungs
Demonstrate interlobular fissures
Localize pulmonary lesions

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7
Q

Point where needle attaches to syringe

A

Hub

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8
Q

Image display monitor that works by accelerating electrons toward a fluorescent screen

A

Cathode ray tube

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9
Q

What determines pixel size in CR?

A

Sampling frequency

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10
Q

What grid error shows acceptable brightness along one side of the radiograph but not the opposite side

A

Off level grid

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11
Q

Xray beam must be within ___ degrees of perpendicular

A

1

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12
Q

Bennett fracture

A

Fracture of base of 1st metacarpal

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13
Q

Test pattern used to assess display monitors

A

SMPTE test pattern (society of motion picture and television engineers)

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14
Q

Radiation doses of 5 Gy to the ovaries causes…

A

Sterility

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15
Q

Radiation doses of ___ could delay menstruation; ___ could cause temporary infertility

A

100 mGy
2 Gy

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16
Q

The 1st carpometacarpal joint is formed by the base of the 1st metacarpal and …

A

The scaphoid

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17
Q

Radiographic hallmark of Reiter syndrome

A

Erosion of Achilles tendon insertion

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18
Q

Tangential sesamoids with perpendicular CR, the foot is dorsiflexed ___ degrees from vertical

A

15 to 20

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19
Q

2 bones the calcaneus articulates with

A

Talus and cuboid

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20
Q

Ap medial oblique foot should show ___ free of superimposition

A

Metatarsals 3 through 5

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21
Q

The Hughston method for patella requires patient in ____ position with ____ degrees flexion of knee, and CR directed _____ degrees cephalad

A

Prone
50 to 60
45

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22
Q

CR angle for a mediolateral knee on a short patient with a wide pelvis

A

7 to 10 degrees cephalic

23
Q

AP 45 degree medial oblique ankle frequently is useful in showing fractures to what 3 structures?

A

Base of 5th metatarsal
Distal fibula and lateral malleolus

24
Q

Settegast method cannot be performed until ____ is ruled out

A

Patellar fx

25
Q

MCL tears are frequently associated with tears to …

A

ACL and medial meniscus

26
Q

2 other names for the intercondylar sulcus of the femur

A

Patellar surface and trochlear groove

27
Q

During ERCP, contrast is introduced into the

A

Common bile duct

28
Q

In a Waters view, the OML forms a ____ angle with the IR

A

37 degree

29
Q

CR angle for AP axial (lordotic) chest for lung apices

A

15 to 20 cephalad

30
Q

The ____ of a rib and the body of a thoracic vertebra form a costovertebral joint.

Thr ____ and transverse process form a costotransverse joint.

A

Head
Tubercle

31
Q

Zygomatic bones articulate with what 4 bones?

A

Temporal, frontal, sphenoid and maxillary

32
Q

Where does the CR enter for an SMV projection

A

3/4 inch anterior to the EAM thru the MSP

(Or, 2 inches inferior to the mandibular symphysis and perpendicular to IOML)

33
Q

In which bone are the optic foramina located?

A

Sphenoid. Inferior to the lesser wings.

34
Q

Condition frequently causing blunting of the costophrenic angles

A

Pleural effusion

35
Q

The right lung has a(n) ____ fissure superior to the _____ fissure.

The left lung has a(n) ____ fissure only.

A

Horizontal, oblique

Oblique

36
Q

Choanae

A

Posterior nasal apertures, separated by thr vomer, opening between nasal cavity and nasopharynx

37
Q

Average pt gallbladder is between ribs ____ and on the right.

Hypersthenic, ____ higher and more ___.

Asthenic, ____ lower anc more ____.

A

10 and 12
2 inches, lateral
3 inches, mudline

38
Q

With indirect conversion DR detectors, what is the major difference between TFT vs CCD (or CMOS) systems?

A

TFT detectors use photodiode semiconductor (amorphous silicon) to convert light to an electrical charge to send to the TFT.

CCD has no semiconductor, but instead the TFT is optically coupled to the CCD sensor by lenses or fiberoptics.

39
Q

Which type of indirect conversion detector uses amorphous silicon?

A

A TFT detector.

40
Q

Advantage of cesium iodide over gadolinium as a scintillator.

A

Cesium iodide can be formed into rods, better capture and spatial resolution.

41
Q

Why do indirect detectors with a gadolinium scintillator reduce spatial resolution?

A

Light is emitted isotropically, reducing spatial resolution

42
Q

What part of the TFT DEL stores the charge captured by the element?

A

Storage capacitor

43
Q

How does the amorphous selenium semiconductor release electrons to the TFT layer?

A

A high voltage charge is applied to the surface just before xray exposure. Interaction between xray photons and this charge causes selenium atoms to release electrons.

44
Q

What is the purpose of the fiberoptics or lenses that couple the scintillator and CCD?

A

The CCD chip is very small, and the lenses “cone down” or collimate the isotropically emitted light to fit the CCD chip.

45
Q

Why is cesium iodide preferred over gadolinium in CCD indirect detectors?

A

Because the shape of the cesium iodide crystals allows the light to spread out less, ideal for the small CCD chips

46
Q

What type of DR system is best for mammography?

A

Direct flat panel detector! Much better spatial resolution. Affordable for mammo bc mammo detectors are smaller.

47
Q

____ measures the reduction of signal amplitude as spatial frequency increases; OR the accuracy of image compared to the original object on a scale of 0 to 1.

A

Modulation transfer function

48
Q

Objects that are larger have ____ spatial frequency

A

Lower!

49
Q

As spatial frequency increases (objects get smaller), modulation transfer function…

A

Decreases (because there is more reduction in signal amplitude as the signal passes through the system)

50
Q

MTF is highest when spatial frequency is….

A

Lowest

51
Q

MTF is on a scale of ___ to ____

A

0.0 to 1.0

52
Q

Point spread function measures…

A

Blur (,edge blur)

53
Q

A low spatial frequency (large size object) will have a ____ MTF value

A

High

Board Review Final sets a (12 decks)

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