Mix Flashcards

1
Q

Procedure Manual

A

(b) The procedure manual must include the following when applicable to the test procedure:

(1) Requirements for patient preparation; specimen collection, labeling, storage, preservation, transportation, processing, and referral; and criteria for specimen acceptability and rejection as described in § 493.1242.

(2) Microscopic examination, including the detection of inadequately prepared slides.

(3) Step-by-step performance of the procedure, including test calculations and interpretation of results.

(4) Preparation of slides, solutions, calibrators, controls, reagents, stains, and other materials used in testing.

(5) Calibration and calibration verification procedures.

(6) The reportable range for test results for the test system as established or verified in § 493.1253.

(7) Control procedures.

(8) Corrective action to take when calibration or control results fail to meet the laboratory’s criteria for acceptability.

(9) Limitations in the test methodology, including interfering substances.

(10) Reference intervals (normal values).

(11) Imminently life-threatening test results, or panic or alert values.

(12) Pertinent literature references.

(13) The laboratory’s system for entering results in the patient record and reporting patient results including, when appropriate, the protocol for reporting imminently life-threatening results, or panic, or alert values.

(14) Description of the course of action to take if a test system becomes inoperable.

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2
Q

Test Requisition

A

The laboratory must ensure the test requisition solicits the following information:

(1) The name and address or other suitable identifiers of the authorized person requesting the test and, if appropriate, the individual responsible for using the test results, or the name and address of the laboratory submitting the specimen, including, as applicable, a contact person to enable the reporting of imminently life threatening laboratory results or panic or alert values.

(2) The patient’s name or unique patient identifier.

(3) The sex and age or date of birth of the patient.

(4) The test(s) to be performed.

(5) The source of the specimen, when appropriate.

(6) The date and, if appropriate, time of specimen collection.

(7) For Pap smears, the patient’s last menstrual period, and indication of whether the patient had a previous abnormal report, treatment, or biopsy.

(8) Any additional information relevant and necessary for a specific test to ensure accurate and timely testing and reporting of results, including interpretation, if applicable.

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3
Q

Specimen Collection and Handling

A

The laboratory must establish and follow written policies and procedures for each of the following, if applicable:

(1) Patient preparation.

(2) Specimen collection.

(3) Specimen labeling, including patient name or unique patient identifier and, when appropriate, specimen source.

(4) Specimen storage and preservation.

(5) Conditions for specimen transportation.

(6) Specimen processing.

(7) Specimen acceptability and rejection.

(8) Specimen referral.

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4
Q

Reagent Labels

A

Reagents, solutions, culture media, control materials, calibration materials, and other supplies, as appropriate, must be labeled to indicate the following:

(1) Identity and when significant, titer, strength or concentration.

(2) Storage requirements.

(3) Preparation and expiration dates.

(4) Other pertinent information required for proper use.

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5
Q

Establishment of Performance Specifications

A

Establishment of performance specifications. Each laboratory that modifies an FDA-cleared or approved test system, or introduces a test system not subject to FDA clearance or approval (including methods developed in-house and standardized methods such as text book procedures), or uses a test system in which performance specifications are not provided by the manufacturer must, before reporting patient test results, establish for each test system the performance specifications for the following performance characteristics, as applicable:

(i) Accuracy.

(ii) Precision.

(iii) Analytical sensitivity.

(iv) Analytical specificity to include interfering substances.

(v) Reportable range of test results for the test system.

(vi) Reference intervals (normal values).

(vii) Any other performance characteristic required for test performance.

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6
Q

Verification of performance specifications

A

Verification of performance specifications. Each laboratory that introduces an unmodified, FDA-cleared or approved test system must do the following before reporting patient test results:

(i) Demonstrate that it can obtain performance specifications comparable to those established by the manufacturer for the following performance characteristics:

(A) Accuracy.

(B) Precision.

(C) Reportable range of test results for the test system.

(ii) Verify that the manufacturer’s reference intervals (normal values) are appropriate for the laboratory’s patient population.

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7
Q

Calibration verification frequency

A

At least once every 6 months and whenever any of the following occur:

(i) A complete change of reagents for a procedure is introduced, unless the laboratory can demonstrate that changing reagent lot numbers does not affect the range used to report patient test results, and control values are not adversely affected by reagent lot number changes.

(ii) There is major preventive maintenance or replacement of critical parts that may influence test performance.

(iii) Control materials reflect an unusual trend or shift, or are outside of the laboratory’s acceptable limits, and other means of assessing and correcting unacceptable control values fail to identify and correct the problem.

(iv) The laboratory’s established schedule for verifying the reportable range for patient test results requires more frequent calibration verification.

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8
Q

Required number and type of controls

A

At least once each day patient specimens are assayed or examined perform the following for—

(i) Each quantitative procedure, include two control materials of different concentrations;

(ii) Each qualitative procedure, include a negative and positive control material;

(iii) Test procedures producing graded or titered results, include a negative control material and a control material with graded or titered reactivity, respectively;

(iv) Each test system that has an extraction phase, include two control materials, including one that is capable of detecting errors in the extraction process; and

(v) Each molecular amplification procedure, include two control materials and, if reaction inhibition is a significant source of false negative results, a control material capable of detecting the inhibition.

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9
Q

Test Records Requirements

A

(a) The laboratory must maintain an information or record system that includes the following:

(1) The positive identification of the specimen.

(2) The date and time of specimen receipt into the laboratory.

(3) The condition and disposition of specimens that do not meet the laboratory’s criteria for specimen acceptability.

(4) The records and dates of all specimen testing, including the identity of the personnel who performed the test(s).

(b) Records of patient testing including, if applicable, instrument printouts, must be retained.

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10
Q

Test Report Requirements

A

The test report must indicate the following:

(1) For positive patient identification, either the patient’s name and identification number, or a unique patient identifier and identification number.

(2) The name and address of the laboratory location where the test was performed.

(3) The test report date.

(4) The test performed.

(5) Specimen source, when appropriate.

(6) The test result and, if applicable, the units of measurement or interpretation, or both.

(7) Any information regarding the condition and disposition of specimens that do not meet the laboratory’s criteria for acceptability.

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11
Q

When should controls be tested

A

once a day AND

before resuming patient testing when:

1) a complete change of reagents is introduced;

2) major preventive maintenance is performed

3) or any critical part that may influence test performance is replaced

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12
Q

7 Record Types that must be retained

A

test requisition/authorization

test procedures

analytical system records (QC, patient test records, analytical systems activities, test system performance specifications established or verified,

PT records

quality system assessment

test reports

slides, blocks, tissues

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13
Q

List elements of the pre-analytical phase

A

1)patient preparation,
2)specimen collection/labelling and accessioning
3) Specimen preservation/storage/transport
4) test requisitions
5) Relevance of test requests
6) specimen rejection criteria and actions initiated
7) confirmation of oral requests
8) Evaluation and verification of employee competence
9) Safety
10) Procedure updates and reviews

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14
Q

What is the DMAIC method?

A

Identifies and eliminates errors. Followed by six-sigma process. Five phases.

Define: identify high level processes for improvements
Measure: baseline data on current processes, pinpoint problems and areas of improvement
Analyze: root causes, validate root causes against captured data
Improve: implement improvements that address root causes
Control: perform before and after analysis, monitor systems, document results and determine next step recommendations

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15
Q

What are the differences between the 4 types of error?

A

-Systematic: influences values consistently in ONE DIRECTION (Examples 22S

-Random: exists in all measurements and is due to CHANCE (Example 13S)

-Active: occurs at the interface between a laboratories and patient samples

-Latent: related to the organization or design of a laboratory

-

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16
Q

What are sources of variation?

A

Sample error
Random analytical error
Method/instrument bias (analytical systematic error)
operator error
sample variation within patient day to day
patient variation

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17
Q

What are analytical phase elements?

A

1) INstrument monitoring, validation, operation functions, inspections, preventative maintanece, operational parameters
2) Calibration and calibration verification
3) Quality control evaluations
4) Proficiency test results
5) Comparative analysis for multiple analyze methodologies/locations
6) Quality management of lab supplies, reagents and materials

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18
Q

What are elements of post-analytical phase?

A

1)Appropriateness and acceptability of test results
2) completeness of test reports
3) timely reporting of all test results including STAT
4) Accuracy and reliability of test reporting systems
5) Appropriate storage and retrieval of records of test results
6) Problems in communicating with physicians or other workers
7) complaint investigation and evaluation and corrective actions
8) Compliance with regulatory requirements
9) User satisfaction monitors (physician and patient)
10) Incidence reports
11) Review of QA reports with staff

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19
Q

List the fully loaded cost components and how each are calculated

A

Prime Costs = Direct Labor + Direct Materials

Conversion Costs = Direct Labor + Section Overhead

Full Production Costs = Direct Labor + Direct Materials + Section Overhead

Ready to Serve Costs = Section Overhead + Collection & Reporting + General Laboratory Overhead

Fully Loaded Costs = Prime Costs + Ready to Serve Costs

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20
Q

What are the 7 criteria used by FDA to determine test complexity and categorize tests?

A

1) scientific/technical knowledge
2) training and experience required
3) reagents/materials preparation, stability, reliability
4) operational steps
5) calibration, QC, proficiency testing materials availability
6) test system troubleshooting and equipment maintenance
7) interpretation and judgment required to perform all 3 phases of testing

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21
Q

what are examples of PPM procedures?

A

wet mount preparations for presence or absence of bacteria, fungi, parasites, human cellular elements

KOH preparations

pinworm examinations

fern tests

post coital, direct exams of vaignal or cervical mucous

urine sediment exams

nasal smears for granulocyts

fecal leukocyte

qualitative semen analysis

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22
Q

What are the facility administration requirements for non waived testing from CLIA?

A

Facility: construction/arrangement/maintenance must ensure space, ventilation, utilities, minimizes contamination, unidirectional workflow

appropriate and sufficient equipment, instruments reagents, materials and supplies for volume of testing

comply with applicable federal, state and local requirements

safety precautions must be established, posted and observed

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23
Q

List major components of the quality systems required for non-waived testing

A

Confidentiality of patient information and specimen identification and integrity

complaint investigations

communications

personnel competency

Proficiency testing

General Lab systems assessment - monitor and correct problems and effectiveness

test requisition

specimen submission / handling

procedure manual

test systems, equipment, instrumentation, reagents, materials and supplies

Method performance specifications

Equipment maintenance and function checks

calibration and calibration verifications

Control procedures

Comparison of test reults

corrective actions

test records

test results

systems assessment

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24
Q

What are the moderate complexity technical consultant responsibilties?

A

Accessible to lab for onsite, electronic consultation as needed

S election of test methodology appropriate for clinical use of the test results

Verification of test procedures, establishment of test performance characteristics including preciesion and accuracy

enrollment participation in PT pgrogram

Establish QC program appropriate for testing performed, parameters for acceptable levels of analytic performance, levels are maintained

Resolving technical problems and esnuring remedial actions are taken

test results not reported until corrective actiosn have been taken and system is functioing

Identifying training needs and assuring each indivudal perforing tests recieved regular in service training, education

Evaluating competency of all testing personnel and assuring its maintained

Evaluating performance/competency at least semiannually during 1st year and then annually afterwards

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25
Q

Which records must be retained for 10 years?

A

Immunohematology records

blood and blood product records

transfusion records

pathology test reports

histopathology slides

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26
Q

Which records must be retained for 5 years?

A

Cytology slide preparations

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27
Q

How long must immunohematology records, blood and blood products and transfusion records be kept?

A

no less than 10 years after records of processing are completed

or 6 months after latest expiration date for individual product, whichever is later

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28
Q

What are the requirements for General Laboratory Systems Quality Assessment?

A

the laboratory must establish and follow written policies and procedures for an ongoing mechanism to monitor, assess, and, when indicated, correct problems identified in the general laboratory systems requirements

the general laboratory systems quality assessment must include a review of the effectiveness of corrective actions taken to resolve problems, revision of policies and procedures necessary to prevent recurrence of problems, and discussion of general laboratory systems quality assessment reviews with appropriate staff.

(c) The laboratory must document all general laboratory systems quality assessment activities.

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29
Q

What are the responsibilities of moderate complexity clinical consultant?

A

Provide clinical consultation to lab clients

Assist lab clients in ensuring appropriate tests are ordered to meet clinical expectations

ensure reports of tests results include information for interpretation

AND

Consultation with clients regarding QUALITY of test results reported and their intepretation concerning specific patient conditions

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30
Q

What are responsibilities of high complexity clinical consultant?

A

1) provide consultation to clients
2) assist in ensuring appropriate tests are ordered by clients
3) Ensure reports include required information for interpretation
4) Consultation is available and communicated to labs clients regarding quality of test results reported and interpretation concerning specific patient conditions

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31
Q

What are responsibilties of high complexity general supervisor?

A

ACCESSIBLE to testing personnel at all times testing is performed to provide on site or electronic consultation to resolve technical problems in accordance with policies and procedures established by lab director or technical supervisor

day-to-day supervision of high complexity test performance by qualified personnel

monitor test analysis and specimen examinations to ensure acceptable levels of analytic performance are maintained

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32
Q

Moderate Complexity Director Qualifications

A

1) The laboratory director must possess current license as laboratory director issued by the state in which laboratory is located, if required AND
a. Doctor of medicine, osteopathy licensed to practice in state and be CERTIFIED in anatomic or clinical pathology or both by American Board of Pathology or the American Osteopathic Board of Pathology, OR possess QUALIFICATIONS that are equivalent to those required for such certification OR
b. Doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatric medicine licensed to practice in state AND have
i. 1 year experience directing or supervising non-waived tests OR
ii. 20 CEUs in laboratory practice OR
iii. Clinical laboratory training during residency

2) Doctoral degree in chemical, physical, biological or clinical laboratory science from accredited institution AND
a. Certified by American Board of Medical Microbiology/Clinical Chemistry/Bioanalysis/Medical Laboratory Immunology OR
b. At least 1 year directing or supervising non-waived testing

3) Master’s degree in chemical, physical, biological or clinical laboratory science or medical technology AND
a. 1 year of laboratory training or experience in non-waived testing AND
b. At least 1 year experience supervising non-waived testing OR

4) Bachelor's degree in chemical, physical, biological science, medical technology AND
a. At least 2 years laboratory training or experience in non-waived testing AND
b. At least 2 years experience supervising non-waived testing
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33
Q

High Complexity Director Qualifications

A

1) State license if required AND
2) Doctor of medicine/osteopathy licensed to practice AND CERTIFIED in anatomic or clinical pathology by American Board of Pathology/Osteopathic Board of Pathology OR poses equivalent QUALIFICATIONS as required for certification OR
3) Licensed Doctor of medicine/osteopathy/podiatry AND
a. 1 year laboratory training during medical residency OR
b. 2 years experience directing or supervising high complexity testing
4) Doctoral degree AND
a. Certified by American Board of Medical Microbiology/Clinical Chemistry/Board of Bioanalysis/Medical Laboratory Immunology or OTHER board deemed comparable by HHS OR
b. Before February 24th, 2003 must have served or be serving as a director of a laboratory performing high complexity testing AND have
i. 2 years clinical laboratory training or experience AND
ii. 2 years directing or supervising high complexity testing
5) Be serving as laboratory director and must have previously qualified or could have qualified as a laboratory director under regulations 42 CFR 493.1415
6) On or before February 28, 1992, be qualified under state law to direct a laboratory in state which lab is located

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34
Q

SDS Section 2 Hazards Identification

A

GHS classification of the substance/mixture and any national or regional information

GHS label elements including precautionary statements

other hazards which do not result in classification or are not covered by GHS

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35
Q

SDS Section 3 Composition

A

Substance:
Chemical identity

Common name, synonyms, etc.

CAS number, EC number etc.

Impurities and stabilizing additives which are themselves classified and which contribute to classification of the substance

Mixture:
chemical identity and concentration of concentration ranges of all ingredients which are hazardous within the meaning of GHS and present above cutoff levels

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36
Q

SDS Section 4 First Aid Measures

A

description of necessary measures subdivided according to routes of exposure

most important symptoms/effects acute and delayed

indication of immediate medical attention and special treatment needed, if necessary

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37
Q

SDS Section 5 Firefighting Measures

A

suitable and unsuitable extinguishing media

specific hazards arising from the chemical (any hazardous combustion products)

Special protective equipment and precautions for firefighters

38
Q

SDS Section 6 Accidental Release Measures

A

Personal precautions, protective equipment and emergency procedures

Environmental precautions

Methods and materials for containment and cleaning up

39
Q

SDS Section 7 Handling and Storage

A

precautions for safe handling

conditions for safe storage, including any incompatibilities

40
Q

SDS Section 8 Exposure Controls/Personal Protection

A

Control parameters e.g. occupational exposure limit values or biological limit values

appropriate engineering controls

individual protection measures such as PPE

41
Q

SDS Section 9 Physical and Chemical Properties

A

appearance
odor
odor threshold
pH
melting/freezing point
initial boiling point and boiling range
flash point
evaporation rate
flammabillty (solid gas)
upper/lower flammability or explosive limits
vapor pressure
vapor density
relative density
solubility(ies)
partition coefficient: n-octanol/water
autoignition temperature
decomposition temperature

42
Q

SDS Section 10 Stability and Reactivity

A

chemical stability

possibility of hazardous reactions

conditions to avoid (E.g. static discharge, shock or vibration)

Incompatible materials

hazardous decomposition products

43
Q

SDS Section 11 Toxicological Information

A

concise but complete and comprehensible description of the various toxicological (health) effects and the available data used to identify those effects including:

information on likely routes of exposure

symptoms related to the physical, chemical and toxicologcal characteristics

delayed and immediate effects and also chronic effects from short and long term exposure;

numerical measures of toxicity (acute toxicity estimates)

44
Q

SDS Section 12 Ecological Information

A

ecotoxicity

persistence and degradability

bioaccumulative potential

mobility in soil

other adverse effects

45
Q

SDS Section 13 Disposal Considerations

A

description of waste residues and information on their safe handling and methods of disposal, including disposal of any contaminated packaging

46
Q

SDS Section 14 Transport Information

A

UN Number
UN proper shipping name
transport hazard classes
Packing group
marine pollutant (Yes/No)
special precautions for transport

47
Q

SDS Section 15 Regulatory Information

A

safety, health and environmental regulations specific for the product in question

48
Q

SDS Section 16 Other information

A

preparation and revisions of the SDS

other information

49
Q

What are the 13 required elements of the exposure control plan for BBPs?

A

1) Statement of Purpose
2) Universal Precautions
3) List of Infectious Materials
4) List of Job Classifications exposed to BBP
5) Laboratory Procedures/Tasks exposed to BBP
6) Engineering AND Work Practice Controls
7) PPE
8) Housekeeping Procedures
9) Hepatitis B Vaccines
10) Post-exposure evaluation and Follow-up
11) Hazard Communication
12) Training
13) Record Keeping

50
Q

What are engineering controls?

A

hand washing facilities, sharps containers, disposal containers, leak proof containers, protective shields, mechanical pipets, blood safety cabinets, other controls to prevent splatter

51
Q

What kinds of agents and practices are appropriate for BSL 1 Cabinet?

A

Agents: not known to consistently cause diseases in humans

Practices: standard microbiological practices

B. subtilis
E. Coli

52
Q

What kinds of agents and practices are appropriate for BSL 2 Cabinet?

A

Agents associated with human disease acquired through percutaneous injury, ingestion, mucous membrane exposure

BSL-1 Practices AND
Limited Access
Biohazard warning signs
sharps precautions
biosafety manual

s. aureus
e coli o157h7
K pneumoniae
HBV
HIV

53
Q

What agents and practices are appropriate for BSL 3 cabinet?

A

indigenous agents that may cause SERIOUS or potentially LETHAL disease through INHALATION route of exposure

BSL-2 practices AND
controlled access
decontamination of all waste
decontamination of clothing

M. tuberculosis
B. abortus
Y. pestis
B. anthracis
C. immitis

54
Q

What agents and practices are appropriate for BSL-4 Cabinet?

A

DANGEROUS agents that cause individual risk of aerosol-transmitted laboratory infections that are frequently FATAL, for which there are no vaccines or treatment

BSL-3 practice AND
clothing change before entering
showering on exit
all material decontaminated on exit from facility

Ebola
Lassa
marburg

55
Q

What are work practice controls?

A

hand washing with soap and water immediately after any exposure and as soon as possible after removal of gloves or other PPE

appropriate handling of needles and sharps: no recapping, discarded in approved containers, sharps containers readily available, needles not sheered broken or bent, not overfilling sharps containers, dont reach into sharps containers, leaking or punctured sharps containers placed inside second container, securely closed before disposal, tongs forceps and dustpan or broom to pick up contaminated broken glass, needles, sharps that have fallen

appropriate specimen handling procedures

decontaminating potentially contaminated equipment prior to repair OR if impossible biohazard labels use be affixed prior to repair or shipment and notified about possible contamiation

56
Q

What are housekeeping procedures under OSHA exposure control plan?

A

labs must be cleaned and uncontaminated

schedules and procedures for decontamination must be established in exposure control plan and implemented

lab must provide approved red plastic bags for special medical waste and biohazards and cleaning materials for disinfecting

57
Q

What are the requirements of exposure control plan regarding Hep B vaccines?

A

made available within 10 days of initial employment or when requested thereafter to all employees who have potential for occupational exposure to Hep B virus

booster must be provided if recommended

no cost to employee

vaccination not needed for previous vaccination, proven immunity or contraindicated

58
Q

What is required after exposure to BBP?

A

lab safety officer must complete incident report
document route of exposure
exposed individual entitled to medical evaluation, prophylaxis vaccination and lab testing for HIV and HBV
testing is free of charge at reasonable time and place

exposed individual must be tested after exposure then again at 3, 5, 12 months following incident

if REFUSES, blood should be drawn and saved for 90 days in case later testing is needed

59
Q

What are the hazard communication requirements within the exposure control plan?

A

warning labels and signs must be posted one regulated waste, infectious materials and hazardous work areas.

labels must be securely attached and labels indicating biohazards must be fluorescent orange or orange red with lettering in contrasting color

labels and signs with universal four circle legend

labels NOT required if red bags or red containers are used

60
Q

What must be included in BBP TRAINING program?

A

a)OSHA BBP regulations
b)epidemiology and symptoms of BBP
c)modes of transmission
d)laboratory exposure control plan and location in lab
e) recognizing exposure to infectious material or blood
f) use and limitations of methods reducing exposure
g) PPE use and disposal and decontamination
h) HEP B vaccine
i) procedures in emergency involving blood or infectious materials
j) standard procedures if exposure, reporting and follow-up
k) lab’s responsibilities following exposure
l) signs, labels and color coding

61
Q

What is the purpose of Hazard Communication Plan?

A

ensure that hazards of all chemicals produced or imported are evaluated and shared with employers and employees

62
Q

What are the requirements for chemicals within Hazard Communication Plan?

A

labels are not removed or defaced

SDS with shipments are accessible to personnel

personnel are apprised of hazards of the chemicals in the laboratory

63
Q

What must a laboratory do to comply with requirements Hazard Communication Plan?

A

Provide hazard determination

establish and maintain hazard communication program

provide labels and warnings

maintain SDS

training

64
Q

What are the 7 definitions used to classify hazardous chemicals by OSHA?

A

1) Carcinogen (health hazard)
2) corrosive
3) explosive
4) flammable
5) irritant (exclamation)
6) sensitizer (exclamation)
7) toxic (skull and crossbones)

65
Q

What must be included in the written hazard communication program required by OSHA for laboratories?

A

inventory with names and locations of all hazardous chemicals

location of hazard communication program, chemical inventory and SDS

description of physical and health hazards presented by chemicals in lab

information on labs protective measures, emergency and non-routine procedures, protective equipment

how to use laboratory labeling system and SDS

environmental monitoring procedures

66
Q

What information must be included on labels for chemical containers?

A

Identity of hazardous chemical using common name or trade name or nomenclature of the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) or Chemical Abstracts Services (CAS)

Appropriate hazard warnings including words, pictures, symbols or combinations

name of manufacturer and emergency telephone number

67
Q

What were the required elements of labels after June 1, 2015

A

Product identifier

Signal word

hazard statement

precautionary statement

pictogram

name, address etelophne number of manufacturer, importer or reasonable party

68
Q

what is the product identifier on a chemical label?

A

how its identified
can be chemical name, code number or batch number
must be same on label and section I of SDS

69
Q

what are signal words?

A

relative severity of hazard and alert reader to potential hazard on label

ONLY TWO WORDS USED: Danger and Warning

Within specific hazard class, gander is more severe and warning less

only one signal word no matter how many hazards chemical may have

70
Q

What is a hazard statement?

A

nature of hazards of chemical including degree
all applicable hazard statements must appear on label
may be combined where appropriate to reduce redundancies
specific to hazard classification categories
chemical users should see the same statement for the same hazards no matter what chemical is or who produces it

71
Q

What are precautionary statements?

A

recommended measures to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure, improper storage or handling

FOUR TYPES: prevention, response, storage and disposal

precautionary statements are independent in most cases

OSHA allows flexibility for combining statements, order of precedence or eliminating inappropriate statement

72
Q

What supplementary information is provided on labels?

A

additional instructions or information that is deemed helpful

may list any hazards not otherwise classified under this portion

identify percentage of ingredients of unknown acute toxicity when it is present in concentration of >1 and classification is not based on testing mixture as a whole

73
Q

What are the 6 specific hazards for the Health Hazard pictogram?

A

carcinogen
mutagenicity
reproductive toxicity
respiratory sensitizer
target organ toxicity
aspiration toxicity

74
Q

What are the hazards for the flame pictogram?

A

flammables
pyrophoric
self-heating
emits flammable gas
self-reactive
organic peroxides

75
Q

What are the Exclamation Mark hazards?

A

irritant (skin/eye)
skin sensitizer
acute toxicity (harmful)
narcotic effects
respiratory tract irritant
ozone layer hazard

76
Q

What are the Skull and Crossbones hazards?

A

acute toxicity (fatal or toxic)

77
Q

What are the exploding bomb hazards?

A

explosives
self-reactives
organic peroxides

78
Q

What are the 16 Sections of Safety Data Sheets?

A

1: Identification
2: Hazard ID
3: Composition Information/Ingredients
4: first-aid measures
5: fire-fighting measures
6: accidental release measures
7: handling and storage
8: exposure controls/personal protection
9: physical and chemical properties
10: Stability and Reactivity
11: Toxicological Information
12: Ecological (Non-mandatory)
13: Disposal considerations (Non-mandatory)
14: Transport information (Non-mandatory)
15: Regulatory Information (Non-mandatory)
16: Other Information

79
Q

What is the Chemical Hygiene Plan?

A

Required by Federal Register

Laboratories must develop CHP

As defined by federal register- written program developed and implemented by employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, personal protective equipment and work practice that are capable of protecting employees from health hazards presented by hazardous chemicals used in that particular workplace…”

80
Q

What does OSHA require the CHP to contain?

A

specific measures by employer to ensure safety

1) SOPs for laboratory work involving use of hazardous chemicals. Relate to specific hazardous chemicals present in individual labs and specific measures to protect employees from exposure to these chemicals. General safety precautions (PPE, hygiene practices, restrictions on eating and drinking and housekeeping)

2) criteria for determining and implementing control measures to reduce employee exposure to hazardous chemicals

3) Specific measures to ensure fume hoods and PPE are functioning properly and procedures to maintain the proper and appropriate function of equipment

4) Provisions for employee information and training

5)statement indicating that specific laboratory operations, procedures or activities require prior approval from employer

6) provisions for medical consultation and medical examinations

7) designation of chemical hygiene officer responsible for implementing CHP

8) special precautions for use of particularly hazardous chemicals

81
Q

What is the relationship between the CHP and safety manual and OSHA hazard communication standard?

A

CHP information may already be a part of safety manual

not intended to replace safety manual or OSHA HCS

Communication standard is incorporated INTO THE CHP

82
Q

What is the boiling point of liquid nitrogen?

A

-196 C (-321F)

83
Q

What is the temperature of solid carbon dioxide (dry ice)?

A

-78 C (-109 F)

84
Q

What are the thresholds for hazardous atmosphere according to OSHA?

A

Oxygen concentration is below 19.5% or above 23.5%

85
Q

What are the OSHA requirements for noise exposure plan?

A

employers must develop and implement hearing conservation program that includes use of PPE if workers are exposed to TWA time weighted average of >or equal 85DBA over 8 hour shift

if workers exposed to noise above 85 dBA employer must develop monitoring program to assess noise levels

86
Q

What are the requirements of noise monitoring program?

A

all continuous, intermittent and impulsive sound levels from 80-130dbA must be included in noise measurements

noise measuring instruments must be calibrated and accurate

monitoring must be repeated when change in production, process equipment or controls increases noise exposures

87
Q

What are the symptoms at various oxygen ranges?

A

16%-19.5% = WITH EXERTION can rapidly cause symptoms such as increased breathing rates, accelerated heartbeat, impaired thinking or coordination

12%-16% = tachypnea (increased breathing rates), tachycardia (accelerated heartbeat), impaired attention, thinking and coordination even WHILE RESTING

10%-14% = faulty judgment, intermittent respiration and exhaustion even with MINIMAL EXERTION

6%-10% = nausea, vomiting, lethargic movements and perhaps unconsciousness

<6% = convulsions, apnea (cessation of breathing), cardiac standstill. symptoms can occur immediately. may cause irreversible hypoxic damage to organs

88
Q

National Fire Protection Association Health Hazard Scale Criteria (0-4)

A

0 = Normal Materials
1 = Slightly Hazardous
2 = Hazardous
3 = Extreme Danger
4 = Deadly

89
Q

National Fire Protection Association Reactivity Hazard Scale (0-4)

A

0 = Stable
1 = Unstable if Heated
2 = Violent Chemical Change
3 = Shock and Heat May Detonate
4 = May Detonate

90
Q

National Fire Protection Association Fire Hazard Scale 0-4

A

0 = Will not burn
1 = Combustible
2 = Ignited with Heat
3 = Readily Ignitable
4 = Very Flammable

91
Q

National Fire Protection Association Specific Hazard Identities

A

OXY = Oxidizer
ACID = Acid
ALK = Alkali
COR = Corrosive
W (with line through) = Use no Water ( it is water ignitable)