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CMA > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

What is the BMI formula?

A

Weight in lbs / height in inches² × 703 = BMI

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2
Q

What is the repiration rate for adults?

Newborns?

A

12 to 20/min

30-50/min

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3
Q

What is the average heart rate for an adult?

Newborn?

A

60 to 100/min

120 to 160/min

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4
Q

What steps are necessary for asepsis?

A
  • Sanitization
  • Disinfection
  • Sterilization
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5
Q

What is the correct order for putting on PPE?

A
  1. Gown
  2. Mask
  3. Eye protection
  4. Gloves
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6
Q

Convert 37⁰ Celsius to Fahrenheit

A

37 × 9 ÷ 5 + 32 = 98.6

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7
Q

Auditory learning (learning styles)

A

Achieved by hearing the information. Can be accomplished with providing information verbally while the patient listens.

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8
Q

Kinesthetic learning (learning styles)

A

Involves movement or performing the task.

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9
Q

Visual learning (learning styles)

A

Involves reading information and seeing diagrams or graphics

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10
Q

Wave-scheduling

A

Scheduling 3 patients at the same time to be seen in the order in which they arrive. One pt being late doesn’t disrupt the providers schedule.

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11
Q

Modified wave scheduling

A

Allocating two pts to arrive at a specified time and the third to arrive approximately 30 mins later, repeated throughout the day.

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12
Q

Double-booking

A

Scheduling two pts at the same time with the same provider, often to fit in a patient who has an acute illness.

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13
Q

Conditioning (filing system)

A

Involves grouping related papers together, removing paperclips and staples, attaching smaller papers to regular sheets, and fixing damaged records.

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14
Q

Releasing (filing system)

A

Marking the form to be filed with a mark of designated preference (ready to be filed, the providers initials, using a stamp)

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15
Q

Indexing and coding (filing system)

A

Determining where to place the original record in the file and whether it needs to be cross-referenced in another section. Chart number is typically used for this.

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16
Q

Sorting (filing system)

A

Involves ordering papers in a filing structure and placing the documents in specific groups.

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17
Q

Storing and filing (filing system)

A

Securing documents permanently in the file to ensure the medical record documents do not become misplaced.

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18
Q

Alphabetic filing (filing methods)

A

Traditional system for patient records in providers’ offices and the most widely used. Files are arranged by last name, first name, and middle initial.

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19
Q

Numeric filing (filing methods)

A

Typically combined with color coding and used for larger health centers or hospitals. Method allows for unlimited expansion without the need to shift files to create room. Saves time for retrieving and filing charts, and provides additional patient confidentiality.

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20
Q

Subject filing (filing methods)

A

Used for general correspondence using the alphabetic or alphanumeric filing method. All correspondence dealing either a particular subject is placed under a specific tab with subject headings.

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21
Q

Define Papules

A

Papules are solid elevations that are less than .5 cm in diameter. A common cause is allergic eczema

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22
Q

Define macules

A

Flat areas of the skin that are a different color than surrounding skin. They have no elevation or depression.
Ex: a freckle

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23
Q

Define vesicles

A

Vesicles are small fluid-filled blisters. A common cause is herpes viral infection.

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24
Q

Define pustules

A

Pustules are pus-filled blisters. A common example is acne.

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25
Q

How many characters does ICD-10-CM codes have.

A

3 to 7 characters

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26
Q

CPT coding system consists of how many digits?

A

CPT code is a 5-digit code

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27
Q

What is an electronic health record (EHR)?

A

A record of health-related information that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards, can be created, managed, and accessed by authorized individuals from multiple health care organizations.

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28
Q

What is an electronic medical record? (EMR)

A

A record of health-related information about an individual that can be created, managed, and accessed by authorized individuals within a single health care organization.

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29
Q

What are the 5 core functions of patient-centered medical home (PCMH)?

A
  1. Comprehensive care
  2. Patient-centered care
  3. Coordinated care
  4. Accessible services
  5. Quality and safety commitments
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30
Q

Comprehensive care? (PCMH)

A

Is an approach that cares for all of the patient’s needs as a whole, not just medical/physical.

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31
Q

Patient-centered care (PCMH)

A

Positions patients and their families as core members of the team, focuses on individual needs throughout the stages of life

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32
Q

Coordinated care (PCMH)

A

Includes specialty care, hospitals, home health, community services overseen by the provider-directed medical practice. Works at creating and maintaining open communication.

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33
Q

Accessible services (PCMH)

A

Include providing tools through patient information portals

Ex: open-scheduling, extended hours, communication with providers

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34
Q

Quality and safety commitments (PCMH)

A

Delivering quality health care. Met by collecting safety data and measuring and responding to patient experiences and satisfaction

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35
Q

What is a matrix?

A

Table used for scheduling

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36
Q

What are the five stages of grief?

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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37
Q

What is Syncope?

A

Caused by a sudden loss of blood flow to the brain.

Symptoms include: chills, dizziness, nausea, numbness, and a pale appearance.

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38
Q

What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

A

TIA is caused by circulatory issues in the brain.
Symptoms: cephalgia (headache), vertigo, paralysis of one side of the body, slurred speech.
Mini stroke

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39
Q

What is Myocardial Infarction?

A

Caused by a blockage of the coronary artery.
Symptoms: pain/discomfort in the chest, skin appears cyanotic, SOB, light-headed, N/V.
Heart attack

40
Q

What type of medical coverage does an accountable care organization (ACO) focus on for improving care for the patients?

A

Medicare

41
Q

You are administering a heparin subcutaneously, what actions should you take?

A

Pinch the skin
Insert needle quickly
Release skin
Slowly inject medicine

42
Q

What manifestations should you expect to see in a patient that has CHF?

A

SOB
Fatigue
Edema

43
Q

What is a usual fee?

A

The fee most commonly charged by a provider for a given service

44
Q

What is a reasonable fee?

A

A fee for services or procedures that require extra time and effort for the provider due to the level of complexity of the procedure

45
Q

What is a Customary Fee?

A

A range of fees charged by providers who have similar training and experience and practice in the same geographical area

46
Q

What is a Capitation Fee?

A

A fixed amount of money paid to the provider by a third-party payer per individual enrollee for an established period.

47
Q

What does a detailed history include?

A

Includes review of the chief complaint, systems related, and pertinent family, social, medical history.

48
Q

What does a comprehensive history include?

A

Includes review of chief complaint, all systems related/ unrelated to the chief complaint, family history, social history, and a detailed medical history

49
Q

What does a problem-focus history include?

A

It concentrates on the chief complaint, does not include a review of systems, family history, or medical history.

50
Q

What does an expanded problem-focus history include?

A

Includes the review of systems to the chief complaint, but does not include family or social history.

51
Q

What are the steps and purpose to the Rinne test?

A

Compares air and bone conduction hearing

  1. Strike tuning fork
  2. Place fork on mastoid bone
  3. Tell pt to raise hand when they longer here any sound
  4. Invert tuning fork while sound is still heard
52
Q

What is the steps and purpose of the Weber test?

A

Is used to see if a pt’s hearing is better in one ear than the other

  1. Strike tuning fork
  2. Place fork in the middle of the head
53
Q

You receive a denial of payment for a pt’s procedure, the reason states “non-covered service.” What action should you take?

A

Instruct the patient to contact the insurer about the denial of service.

54
Q

What does the RACE acronym stand for?

A

R- Remove staff/patients who are in immediate danger
A- Alarm
C- Contain/Confine the fire
E- Extinguish the fire

55
Q

What instructions should you give a patient when administering an enteric-coated tablet?

A

Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.

56
Q

What is the purpose of a database management system?

A

It is used for sort and retrieve information quickly.

Allows you to track specific information and create customized applications to sort the information and create reports.

57
Q

What is a diagnosis code?

A

Indicates the medical necessity for the performance of the procedure or treatment.
Without a diagnosis a provider will not receive reimbursement for the procedure.

58
Q

What is a modifier?

A

Used in conjunction with category l code.

Is applied to a procedure code on the CMS-1500 indicating how a specific procedure was altered.

59
Q

What are some disecting instrument?

A

Scissors, scapels, forceps (tweezers), dissecting needles.

Includes instruments with a sharp blade or surface that can disect, cut, or scrape.

60
Q

When unloading an autoclave you notice spots on the instruments, what is this a result of?

A

Mineral deposits from tap water

61
Q

What can improper cleaning of the chamber on an autoclave result in?

A

Can lead to instrument corrosion

62
Q

What can a clogged chamber drain on an autoclave result in?

A

Damp linens

63
Q

What is the purpose of a cryoprobe?

A

Used for procedures and treatments related to cryosurgery

64
Q

What is a senna retractor

A

Used to retract (draw back) small incision and assist with suturing.

65
Q

What is a cytobrush?

A

Used to obtain a specimen for a pap test.

66
Q

What are adson forceps used for?

A

Used to grasp tissue and assist with applying sutures.

Tweezers

67
Q

A patient who is having a heat stroke would have what symptoms?

A

Red, hot, dry skin

Fast breathing/SOB

68
Q

What is the purpose of a category ll code in procedural coding?

A

To track provider performance measures

Such as preventative care for cancer disorders and substance use treatment plan

69
Q

What is the purpose of a category lll code in procedural coding?

A

Works as a temporary code for emergency procedures or services that have not yet been added to the CPT manual

70
Q

What does SOAP stand for?

A

Subjective - CC, Family hx, symptoms
Objective - labs, signs
Assessment - diagnosis
Plan - treatment

71
Q

You are reviewing a Medicare claim denial, you determine that there are charges that exceed the usual, customary, and reasonable fees. What action should you take?

A

Adjust the patients account to reflect no unpaid charges and write off the balance.
Medicare guidelines states the fee schedule must follow the usual, customary, and reasonable fees.

72
Q

During a routine venipuncture, pt becomes pale and diaphoretic, what condition is most likely occuring?

A

Syncope

73
Q

A patient who regularly comes in contact with coal and wood dust has an increased risk for developing which disorder?

A

Emphysema

Coming into contact with coal and wood dust causes damage to the alveoli in the lungs

74
Q

What does atelectasis mean?

A

Collapsed lung

75
Q

What does source-oriented mean?

A

The documentation is organized by the entity that supplied the data

76
Q

What does problem-oriented mean?

A 
Each problem is listed with information organized into the following sections: 
Database
Problem list: educational, diagnostic
Treatment plan
Progress notes
77
Q

What is a goniometer?

A

Used to measure joint movement in a single plane.

For orthopedic examinations

78
Q

What is a hemostat?

A

Used for grasping and clamping blood vessels during surgical procedures.

79
Q

What is a retractor?

A

Hold tissues away from incision sites during surgeries.

80
Q

What is a tonometer?

A

Used to measure intraocular pressure

81
Q

What body system should be evaluated for a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis?

A

Gastrointestinal

82
Q

What does urticaria mean?

A

A rash on the skin that consists of hives or wheals, which are itchy, raised lesions.
Sign of an allergic reaction

83
Q

You are drawing blood using a butterfly needle, what actions should you take?

A 
Insert need at a 10⁰-15⁰ angle
Hold needle by wings
Release tourniquet after 1 min.
Remove needle
Activate safety device
84
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer.

What is the least common?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

Malignant carcinoma

85
Q

What is the Good Samaritan Act?

A

It protects those who assist others in an emergency in a voluntary capacity from the fear of a lawsuit if an injury occurs.

86
Q

What is the HITECH Act?

A

It supports electronic health records.

87
Q

What is the Whistleblower Protection Act?

A

It protects employers from retaliation when reporting suspected unsafe activities in the workplace.

88
Q

What is the Patients’ Bill of Rights?

A

Protects patients from being denied fair treatment or participation in research studies due to criteria such as age.

89
Q

What is a Benzoin Tincture used for?

A

Used to clean skin prior to applying an adhesive dressing.

90
Q

What technique should you use for the routine cleaning of EKG cables?

A

Disinfection because it is effective on surfaces that come in contact with micro-organisms and will not damage the cables.

91
Q

Cluster scheduling

A

Grouping patients who have similar conditions into specific time slots or days.

92
Q

Stream scheduling

A

Scheduling patients at a specific time. The amount of time for each appt varies depending on the patient’s condition.

93
Q

What instructions should you give a patient to avoid abnormal results for a papanicolaou (pap) test?

A
  • No intercourse 24 hrs prior
  • Avoid douching 2-3 days prior
  • Continue birth control
  • Avoid OTC vaginal creams prior to test
94
Q

What does CHEDDAR stand for?

A 
Chief complaint
History
Examination 
Details of problems
Drugs and doses
Assessment
Return
95
Q

What is a template?

A

An outline used to make new pages with a similar design, pattern, or style.

96
Q

What are Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A
  1. Self-actualization
  2. Self-esteem
  3. Love and belonging
  4. Safety and security
  5. Physiological needs
97
Q

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial developed

A 
Trust vs. Mistrust
Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt
Initiative vs. Guilt 
Industry vs. Inferiority
Identity vs. Role confusion
Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativity vs. Stagnation
Ego integrity vs. Despair

CMA (10 decks)

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