Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABS > MISCELLANEOUS > Flashcards

MISCELLANEOUS Flashcards

1
Q

Probability that a sick patient will have a positive test

A

Sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Probability that a healthy patient will have a negative test

A

Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

of true positives + false negatives divided by total number of tests done

A

Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True negatives divided by true negatives + false positives

A

specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Having a high false psoitive rate will lowera tests ability to be

A

specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1 standard deviation =

A

68% of samples are around the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 standard deviation =

A

95% of samples are around the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 standard deviation =

A

99.7% of samples are around the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Positively skewed distribution (mean median mode order)

A

mean > median > mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Negatively skewed distribution (mean median mode order)

A

mode > median > mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TYpe 1 error

A

null hypothesis is rejected when it is actually true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Probability of a type 1 error

A

alpha. Often the p-value set to 0.05 (5% chance of a type 1 error)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type 2 error

A

null is accepted when it is actually false. False negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Beta

A

Probability of a type 2 error. 1-beta is the POWER often set to 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compare numerical means of two different groups - use what test?

A

unaired t etest

example: average BMI in sleeve vs bypass pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Compare two different numerical measurements taken from a single group of patients

A

paired t test

example: BMI in pts before vs after getting a sleeve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

compare numerical means of three or more groups

A

ANOVA

average BMI in sleeve vs bypass versus gastric band pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Compare categorical outcomes between two or more groups

A

Chi square test or Fischers exact test

example does VTE occur more often in pts who are obese?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Identify and adjust for multiple potential factors contributing a to a categorical outcome

A

multivariate logistic regression

example: in a large database, determine what variables contribute to incidence of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Identify and adjust for multiple potential factors contributing to a numerical outcome

A

multivariate linear regression

example in a large database, determine what variables contribute to total lengthj of stay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

identify difference in survivorship over time betwen two or mrore groups

A

kaplan-meie analysis

example: cancer survival in pts who received neoadjuvamnt versus adjuvant chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

analyze a population at a particular moment in time to determine prevalence of factors and disease

A

cross sectional study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

population of subjects are analyzed to associate certain factors with an outcome

A

cohort study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cohort study can determine what kind of risk

A

relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

case control study are always prospective or retrospective

A

retrospective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

case-control study used to predict RR or OR

A

odds ratio!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

absolute risk

A

overall probability of the outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

relative risk

A

probability of outcome in exposed group compared to probability of outcome in non exposed group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

odds ratio

A

odds of outcome in exposed group compared to odds of outcome in non exposed group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

relative risk reduction

A

proportion of decreased risk due to not being exposed

1 - relative risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Number needs to treat

A

1 / absolute risk reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do predictive values take into account that sensitivtiy and specificity do not

A

prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sudden hypotension with pneumoperitoneum in other wise healthy person is due to

A

decreased CO

IVC is compressed which decreases venous return and therefore decreases CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What happens to functional residual capacity with pneumoperitoneum

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What happens to ADH with pneumoperitoneum

A

Increases. An increase in IAP leads to catecholamine release and activation of RAAS with vasopressin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens to SVR and CVP with pneumoperitoneum

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens to pH due to pneumoperitoneum

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What happens to MAP and PAP and mean airway pressure with pneumoperitoneum

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does CO2 sometimes do to myocardial contracility

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bipolar can achieve sealant of vessels of what size

A

< or = 7 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Power of a study calculated as

A

1 - beta (beta represents chance of incorrectly accepting the null hypotehseis when it is not true)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

difference between two unpaired treatments using ordinal variables

A

Mann Whitney U test
example: two groups of pts, one is receiving a new narcotic and the other is receiving normal narcotic. difference in pain levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ordianl variable

A

ranking scales or visual analog scale, such as pain scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

nominal variable

A

named category such as a persons favorite color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Comparing two unpaired treatments using quantitaitive variables

A

unpaired t test

assumes normal distrubtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

compare >2 treatments using quantiative variables

A

ANOVA test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Gastric staple line for sleeve gastrectomy should start where

A

6 cm from the pylorusN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Non parametric vs parametric data

A

Expected distribution of population is normal (parametric) or skewed (non parametric)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Non parametric test assessing qualitative data

A

Chi squared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Non parametric test assessing unpaired ordinal ONLY

A

Mann-Whitney U

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Non parametric test assessing paired nominal variables only

A

McNemar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Non parametric test assessing paired ordinal data

A

Wilcoxon signed-rank test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mann-Whitney-U test is also called

A

Wilcoxon rank SUM test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Quantitative data can be ___ or ___

A

disecrete or continuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What happens to GFR with pneumoperitoneum

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Persistent reflux following gastrectomy (but do not want to have roux en y conversion)

A

magnetic sphincter augmentation badm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Decreasing the mangnitude of difference between groups will do what to teh power of the study

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Decreasing the standard error the mean will do what to the power of a study

A

Increase it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Preload with pneumoperitoneum

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

when the piecemea ltechnique is used to remove a polyp when should repeat cscope be

A

2-6 months to document complete removal and no regrowth of polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

relationship of splenic artery to pancreas

A

superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

relationship of splenic vein to the pancreas

A

within or posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

tx of acute PID

A

rocephin 250 mg IM x 1 + doxy 100 mg BID x 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

MC site of perforation during cscope

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

when is rigid proctoscopy useful

A

when asesssing exact location of low rectal tumors for preoperative planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

where is ureter in relation to broad ligament

A

medial leaf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what type of suture is used in hysterectomy

A

heavy absorbable suture such as chromic gut or polyglycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are howell-jolly bodies

A

nuclear remnants of RBCs only present if entirety of spleen removed OR in sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are pappenhemier bodies

A

iron granules seen in increased frequency after splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are siderocytes

A

abnormal RBCs with cytoplasmic inclusions and iron granules not part of normal RBC. Seen in post splnectomy pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are Heinz bodies

A

aggregates of denatured hemoglobin seen when using special dye such as crystal violet
MC seen in pts with G6PD and thalassemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is basophilic stippling

A

blue granules dispersed throughout cytoplasm of RBC which represent ribosomal precipitates
ost often seen in thalassemies, alcohol abuse, lead and heavy metal poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

MC benign neoplasm of the spleen

A

hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

prophylactic abx in kids after splenectomy

A

until 5 years old or 2 years after splenectomy

pen V potassium 125 mg BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how often EGD for familial polyposis

A

every 1-2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

how often for EGD with gastric ulcer

A

every 6 weeks until healed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how often EGD for low risk Barretts

A

every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

how often EGD for high risk Barretts

A

every year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how often for high risk Barretts with low grade dysplasia

A

every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

how often EGD for esoph varices following sclerotherapy and banding

A

every 6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

grade Ib endometrial CA

A

> 50% myometrial involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

ITP and platelets >30K and asymptomator or minor bleeding tx

A

observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ITP with platelets <30K and asymptomatic or minor bleeding

A

corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

urgent management of pt with ITP and bleeding or prior to urgent procedure

A

IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

where is b12 absorbed

A

distal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

circulatory collapse - seen in spinal shock or neurogenic shock

A

neurogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

bradycardia - seen in spinal shock or neurogenic shock

A

neurogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

peripheral vasodilation - seen in spinal shock or neurogenic shock

A

neurogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

is bulbocavernosus reflex present in spinal shock or neurogenic shock

A

spinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

neurogenic shock can occur after SC injuries down to what level

A

T6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

elevated ICP can cause a palsy of whic hcranial nerve

A

6th

results in lateral rectus weakness and side by side diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

when is ICP monitoring required

A 
GCS = or <8 who EITHER have
any CT evidence of intracrnial pathology
OR
normal CT with 2-3 of the following:
age > 40 
any hx of hypotension
abnormal motor posturing

Consider in pt with GCS of < or =12 who cannot be closely monitored or whose CT demonstrates evidence of intracrnial HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

hydroceles occur more often on which side

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Brown sequard syndrome

A

ipsilateral motor loss

contralateral pain/temp loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

central cord syndrome

A

UE&raquo_space; severely than LE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

anterior cord syndrome sx

A

Loss of motor, pain and temp below level of lesion but preserved proprioception ,vibration and pressure sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

cause of hydrocele

A

patent processus vaginalis with peritoneal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

after orchiectomy reveals stage I seminoama the next step is to obtain

A

serum tumor markers. If elevated may need RP XRT and or chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

disruption of upper ureter or UPJ is repaired by

A

debridement and primary n anastomosis
use interupted 5-0 or 6-0 absorbable sutures and place a double J ureteral stent or nephrostomy before completion of anastomosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

early symptoms of uncal herniation

A

compression of CN III –> anisocoria, ptosis, impaired EOM, sluggish pupillary light reflex on ipsilateral side of lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

gerotas fascia anterior and posterior leaves remain open in what direction

A

inferiorly, allowing ureter and gonadal vessels to exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

course of right renal artery in relation to IVC

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

rate of regeneration of typical axon

A

1-2 mm/day

104
Q

MC site of renal cell CA metastasis

A

lung

105
Q

CPP = ?

A

MAP - ICP

106
Q

which ligament contains short gastrics

A

gastrosplenic

107
Q

p[roteins responsible for opsonization

A

tuftsin and properdin

108
Q

red pulp responsibilities

A

filters RBCs

most of the spleen

109
Q

white pulp responsible for

A

immune function

110
Q

lymphoid follicles in white pulp contain

A

b cells

111
Q

periarterial lymphatic sheath in white pulp contain

A

T cells

112
Q

target cell

A

immature RBC

113
Q

spur cell

A

deformed membrane

114
Q

most reliable finding in post splenectomy patients

A

howell jolly body (nuclear remnants)

115
Q

MC hematologic disorders requiring splenectomy

A

ITP and spherocytosis

116
Q

tx multi locular/thin walled splenic abscess

A

splenectomy as suspect echinococcal abscess

117
Q

MC malignancy indication for splenectomy

A

non hodgkins lymphomas

118
Q

ITP thought to be due to

A

autoantibodies to glycoproteins IIb/IIIa and Ia/IIa

119
Q

when do you transfuse platelets in ITP

A

only for intraoperative bleeding

give after ligating splenic artery if possible as this prevents consumption of transfused platelets

120
Q

presentation of hereditary spherocytosis

A

anemia, splenomegaly

121
Q

dx of hereditary spherocytosis

A

autosomal dominant defect in cell membrane protein (spectrin) –> RBC less deformable –> culled by spleen

122
Q

when is splenectomy recommended in hereditary spherocytosis

A

symptomatic patients older than 6 (want them to devo immune function first)

123
Q

when performing splenectomy in hereditary spherocytosis what may also need done

A

cholecystectomy - check for gallstones, hemolysis produces bilirubin stones

124
Q

what is pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

congenital hemolytic anemia caused by impaired glucose metabolism

125
Q

what does splenectomy do in pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

reduces transfusion requirements

126
Q

what hemoglobinopathy assoc with splenic abscess

A

sickle cell

127
Q

tx of unilocular, thick walled splenic abscess

A

perc drainage

128
Q

true splenic cyst (3)

A

congenital
parasitic (echinococcus)
neoplastic

129
Q

false splenic cyst

A

post traumatic pseudocyst

130
Q

tx of large >5 cm cysts or symptomatic splenic cyst

A

consider lap cyst excision or fenestration

131
Q

splenic angiosarcoma assoc with

A

vinyl chloride and thorium dioxide exposure

132
Q

mc primary non blood malignant tumor of spleen

A

angiosarcoma

133
Q

tx of splenic angiosarcoma

A

splenectomy if caught in time

134
Q

when to treat splenic artery aneurysm

A

> 2 cm
all pregnant women
women of child bearing age regardless of size (up to 70% rupture risk during pregnancy)

135
Q

tx of splenci artery aneurysm

A

endovascular coil embolization or placement of covered stent

open or lap splenic artery ligation also acceptable

136
Q

very distal splenic artery aneurysm tx

A

may require splenectomy

137
Q

pathogenesis of post splenectomy infection

A

decreased IgM and IgG leads to increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms

138
Q

prophylactic abx after splenectomy

A

cosnider in children <10 years old for 6 month duration (daily Augmentin)

139
Q

how to diagnose accessory spleen

A

radionuclide spleen scan (tagged RBC scan)

140
Q

MC organism assoc with OPSI

A

S pneumo

141
Q

wandering spleen is caused by

A

failure of fusion of dorsal mesogastrium leading to lack of splenci ligaments

142
Q

tx of wandering spleen

A

splenectomy if infarcted

otherwise splenopexy

143
Q

pentad of TTP

A 
fever
hemolytic anemia
renal failure
purpura
neuro changes 
FAT RN
144
Q

TTP due to

A

defective ADAMTS13 metalloproteinase (vWF cleaving protein) –> platelet aggregation in microvasculature
Loss of platelet inhibition

145
Q

tx of TTP

A

plasmapheresis

146
Q

what is “pitting” in red pulp

A

removal of abnormalities in RBC membrane

147
Q

what is “culling” in red pulp

A

removal of less deformable RBC

148
Q

largest producer of IgM

A

spleen

149
Q

MC antibody in spleen

A

IgM

150
Q

which opsonin facilitates phagocytosis and where is it produced

A

tuftsin

spleen

151
Q

which protein produced in spleen activates alternate complement pathway

A

spleen

152
Q

MC non traumatic condition requiring splenectomy

A

ITP

153
Q

spleen in ITP is

A

normal

154
Q

in children <10 years describe course of ITP

A

usually resolves spontaneously

155
Q

primary tx of ITP

A

steroids

gammaglobulin if resistant

156
Q

death in TTP is most commonly due to

A

intracerebral hemorrhage or acute renal failure

157
Q

Most PSSS occur within what time period after splenectomy

A

2 years

158
Q

definition of hypersplenism

A

decrease circulating cell count of erythrocytes and/or platelets and/or leukocytes
AND
normal compensatory hematopoietic responses present in bone marrow
AND
correction of cytopenia by splenectomy
+/-
splenomegaly

159
Q

spectrin and protein 4.1 deficit

A

elliptocytosis

similar to spherocytosis less common

160
Q

MC congenital hemolytic anemia NOT involving membrane protein that requires splenectomy

A

pyruvate kinase deficiency

161
Q

G6PD deficiency precipitated by

A

infectrion
certain drugs
fava beans

162
Q

MC autoimmune hemolytic disease

A

warm antibody-type acquired immune hemolytic anemia

163
Q

HgbA replaced by HgbS

A

sickle cell anemia

164
Q

splenectomy in beta thalassemia

A

if pt has splenomegaly

may decrease hemolysis and symptoms

165
Q

beta thalassemia is due to

A

persistent HgbF

166
Q

Medical tx of beta thalassemia

A

blood txn, iron chelators such as deferoxamine and deferiprone

167
Q

Stage 1 Hodgkin’s

A

1 area or 2 contiguous areas same side of diaphragm

168
Q

Stage II Hodgkins

A

2 non contiguous areas on same side of diaphragm

169
Q

Stage III Hodgkins

A

involved on each side of diaphragm

170
Q

Stage IV hodgkins

A

liver, lung, bone or any other non lymphoid tissue except spleen

171
Q

best prognosis hodgkins

A

lymphocyte predominant

172
Q

worst prognosis hodgkins

A

lymphocyte depleted

173
Q

reed sternberg cells

A

hodgkins

174
Q

most common hodgkins

A

nodular sclerosing

175
Q

workup for hodgkins

A

1) core needle biopsy of lymph node
2) bone marrow biopsy
3) gallium MRI or PET scan of liver and spleen

176
Q

90% of NHL

A

B cell lymphomas

177
Q

Better prognosis - NHL or HL?

A

HL

178
Q

hairy cell leukemia + splenectomy

A

rarely

179
Q

what is splenosis

A

splenic implants usually related to trauma

180
Q

MCC splenic artery or splenic vein thrombosis

A

pancreatitis

181
Q

if platelets >1 x 10^5 after splenectomy give

A

ASA

182
Q

1 malignant splenic tumor

A

NHL

183
Q

MCC splenomegaly

A

NHL

184
Q

Feltys syndrome

A

RA, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and pancytopenia

185
Q

tx of Feltys syndrome

A

MTX

splenectomy for symptomatic splenomegaly

186
Q

MCC splenic abscess

A

Streptococcus

187
Q

Tx of dermoid splenic cyst

A

splenectomy

188
Q

Persistent changes in splenectomy

A

lymphocytosis, monocytosis

189
Q

transient changes after splenectomy on CBC

A

thrombocytosis, leukocytosis

190
Q

beta blocker overdose tx

A

atropine and IVF
if refractory: glucagon

191
Q

post operative parotitis is most likely due to

A

staph aureus

192
Q

most significant factors influencing oxygen content of bloo

A

Hgb and Hct

193
Q

Oxygen content equation

A

CaO2 = (Hgb x 1.34 x 02 sat) + (0.003 x PaO2)

194
Q

benefit in treatment of refractory small bowel AVM

A

thalidomide

195
Q

During first 24 hrs of stress/starvation,o organ with highest glycogen stores

A

liver

196
Q

AT III deficiency – what can you give?

A

FFP

197
Q

predominant collagen in the body

A

type I

198
Q

principal collagen in scars

A

type I (with lesser amounts of type III collagen also present)

199
Q

Proliferative phase of wound healing is characterized by

A

angiogenesis and collagen production

200
Q

MCC of lower GIB in AIDS

A

CMV

201
Q

IL-2 is secreted by

A

T lymphocytes

202
Q

IL-4 role

A

induces naive T helper cells to become T heloper 2 cells
Involved in adaptive immunity

203
Q

what cytokines do macrophages release in early stages of wound healing

A

IL-1
IL-6
IL-8
TNF-alpha

204
Q

what part of the gram negative cell wall is potent stimulator of the release of proinflammatory cytokines

A

lipid A

205
Q

MCC of emphysematous cholecystitis

A

Clostridia

206
Q

What type of bacteria are Clostridia spp

A

anaerobic gram + rods

207
Q

Protein parameters in ESRF

A

1.2-1.5 g/kg/day

208
Q

Li fraumeni is defined as having all 3:

A

Proband diagnosed with sarcoma before 45 yo
First degree relative with any CA diagnosed before age 45
An additional 1st or 2nd degree relative with either sarcoma at any age or any cancer before the age of 45 years

209
Q

VHL

A

renal cell CA
emangioblastomas of retina and CNS
pheochromocytoma

210
Q

HBsAg-
Anti-HBc +
Anti-HBs +

A

immune due to natural infection

211
Q

HBsAg +
Anti-HBc +
Anti-HBs -

A

Acutely infected
Will also have + IgM anti-HBc

212
Q

HBsAg + or -
Anti-HBc +
Anti-HBs +

A

Chronically infected

213
Q

HBsAg -
Anti-HBc +
Anti-HBs +

A

Resolved infection

214
Q

MCC cholangitis

A

E coli > Klebsiella > Enterococcus

215
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs

A

LN
Spleen
Peter patches
Tonsils
Adenoids

216
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

Liver
Bone
Thymus

217
Q

False positive rate of PET in mediastinal malignancy

A

10-20%

218
Q

Visceral pain is

A

vague, non specific pain

219
Q

Localization of pain in appendicitis occurs due to

A

somatic fiber irritation

220
Q

which amino acid associated with immune enhancement by stimulation of T lymphocytes

A

arginine

221
Q

predominant cell during proliferative stage

A

fibroblasts, responsible for collagen production and secretion

222
Q

MC gram negative a/w VAP

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

223
Q

MC gram positive a/w VAP

A

Staph aureus

224
Q

MOA streptokinase

A

binds to plasminogen and increases plasmin production

225
Q

Cytokine associated with cachexia

A

TNF-alpha

226
Q

Sx of copper deficiency

A

pancytopenia, peripheral neuropathy, ataxia

227
Q

MOA of ticagrelor

A

REVERSIBLE platelet aggregation inhibitor
non competitively binds to diphosphate (ADP) P2Y12 receptor on platelets to prevent activation of the GPIIB/IIIA receptor complex

228
Q

MOA enterococci resistance to gentamicin

A

genetic mutation for production of modifying enzymes

229
Q

predominant cell type in healing wound 24-48 hours after initial injury

A

neutrophil

230
Q

human breastmilk contains large amounts of which immunoglobulin

A

IgA

231
Q

primary means by which newborn remains protected during first 6 months of life

A

combo of maternal IgG (crosses placenta) and secretory IgA which is passed through breast milk

232
Q

tamoxifen MOA

A

estrogen agonist in non breast tissues
competitive estrogen antagonist in the breast

233
Q

Plavix - what works best for reversal of coagulopathy

A

platelets

234
Q

deficiency of complement proteins C5-C9

A

reduced arterial cell lysis due to difficulty in formation of the MAC

235
Q

branched chain amino acids

A

leucine
isoleucine
valine

236
Q

post translant lymphoproliferative distorder is due to

A

immortalization of EBV + B cells

237
Q

first line pix for type I vWD who are undergoing surgery is

A

DDAVP

238
Q

Which vWD type is DDAVP not effective

A

Type III

239
Q

mechanism behind factor V leiden

A

activated protein C resistance

Factor V is usually ianctivated by an activated protein C

240
Q

during wound healing when does maximum accumulation of collagen occur

A

21 days

241
Q

how does amphotericin B act to prevent fungal growth

A

binds to fungal cell wall sterols and causes cell death via lysis

242
Q

greatest art of protein turnover occurs where

A

skeletal muscle

243
Q

milrinone moa

A

PDE 3 inhibitor

244
Q

expected excess weight loss 2 years following RYGB

A

60%
weight loss/excess weight (actual weight and ideal weight)

245
Q

flumazenil dose

A

0.2 mg IV up to 3 mg

246
Q

complication of meperidine

A

seizure

247
Q

in renal transplant renal artery and vein are typically anastomosed to what

A

end to side to EIV and EIA

248
Q

simultaneous kidney and pancreas transplant - anastomosis?

A

kidney uses left iliac vessels andp ancreas anastomosed to right iliac vessels

249
Q

MC indication for renal transplant

A

DM II

250
Q

1st line treatment for PTLD

A

Rituximab

monoclonal antibody

251
Q

cowdry bodies

A

eosinophilic inclusion bod

252
Q

imnmediate allergic reactionsto cephalosporins are mediated by

A

IL-4 inducedp roduction

253
Q

treatment of symptomatic pancreatc divisum

A

ERCP with sphincterotomy

254
Q

what should you check prior to starting EPO in CKD

A

iron (MC reason for failure)

255
Q

MCC of long term lung transplant graft failure

A

bronchiolitis obliterans

ABS (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions