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Ortho Eval > Misc. Midterm Notes > Flashcards

Misc. Midterm Notes Flashcards

1
Q

should pt. go into a composite fist when evaluating PROM?

A

no - only during AROM

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2
Q
  • pt. is seated, stabilize elbow, pt. makes fist, radially deviates and asks to extend wrist under your resistance
  • if there is pain, they have tennis elbow/lateral epicondylitis
  • active provocative test
A

cozen’s test

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3
Q

In the subacute stage, if you stress a tendon slightly, it ___ ___.

A

heals better

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4
Q

if a pt. has more active than passive movement at a joint, what is it?

A

joint contracture

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5
Q

if a pt. has more passive than active ROM at a joint what is it?

A

muscle weakness

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6
Q

codman’s exercise - starts motion with the ___ rather than ___.

A

trunk, arm

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7
Q

muscle strengthening helps to improve what?

A

AROM

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8
Q

stretching helps to improve what?

A

PROM

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9
Q

when pitting edema stays a while and it becomes very difficult to move; fluid is so hard it may not even pit.

A

brawny edema

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10
Q

t/f - a resting hand splint is the same as safe position.

A

false

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11
Q

subluxation of joint is commonly seen in which types of pts?

A

RA pts.

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12
Q

what is an example of a non-articular splint?

A

buddy straps (tape injured finger to uninjured fingers)

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13
Q
  • provides a prolonged sustained stretch

- fast, inexpensive method of correcting burn, scars, contractures

A

serial casting

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14
Q

is the safe position the same for burn pts?

A

no different for burn pts.

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15
Q

ulnar fracture with radial head dislocation; radial nerve involved

A

monteggia fracture

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16
Q

heat transfer from 1 solid to another

A

conduction

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17
Q

mixed with oil at ration of 7:1 and kept at 125 degrees; has a low specific heat, so it is unable to deliver as much heat per gram as water, therefore it feels cooler at a higher temperature

A

paraffin

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18
Q

heat transfer by fluid to gas

A

convection

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19
Q

a dry heat in which heat is transferred to the UE by swirling mixture of are and small particles at temperature of 118 degrees

A

fluidotherapy

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20
Q

what is NMES used for?

A

getting muscle to move

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21
Q

what is TENS used for?

A

pain

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22
Q

___ ___ never reaches pre-injury status.

A

tensile strength

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23
Q

name 4 purposes of static splints.

A
  • support
  • protection
  • rest
  • immobilize
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24
Q

name 2 purposes of dynamic splints.

A

-increase PROM and AROM

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25
Q

what is the purpose of serial static splints?

A

making adjustments to orthosis to increase range

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26
Q

what is the purpose of static progressive splints?

A

uses a static adjustment part (such as hinge, turn buckle or strap) to increase motion.

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27
Q

a group of rare diseases that involve the hardening and tightening of the skin and connective tissues; makes skin tight and shiny - often breaks (systemic disease)

A

scleroderma

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28
Q

the study of mechanical laws relating to the movement or structures of living bodies

A

biomechanics

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29
Q

name the 3 components of the capacity for motion.

A
  • joint ROM (potential for movement at a joint)
  • muscle strength
  • endurance
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30
Q

hyperhidrosis

A

sweating

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31
Q

finger pulp

A

can become atrophied with PNI

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32
Q

gold standard pain assessment; check off symptoms and mark on blank body where the pain is on front and back

A

McGill Pain Questionnaire

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32
Q

gold standard pain assessment; check off symptoms and mark on blank body where the pain is on front and back

A

McGill Pain Questionnaire

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33
Q

complete loss of sensation

A

anesthesia

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34
Q

dont have to know

A

dont have to know

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35
Q

abnormal sensation

A

paresthesia

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36
Q

newer philosophy that you can get scarring if the edema doesn’t leave

A

mother of scar

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37
Q

“Can you raise you arms above your hand?”

A

shoulder flexion

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38
Q

“Can you touch your hands behind your back?”

A

shoulder abduction/extension

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39
Q

“Can you touch your hand to the small of your back?”

A

shoulder internal rotation

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40
Q

can you place your hands behind your head

A

shoulder abduction/external rotation

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41
Q

can you touch your mouth

A

elbow flexion

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42
Q

can you hold your hands and arms straight out in front of you

A

shoulder flexion and elbow extension

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43
Q

can you turn your palms up and down?

A

forearm pronation/supination

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44
Q

can you wave your hands up and down?

A

wrist flexion/extension

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45
Q

can you touch your fingers to your thumb?

A

thumb opposition

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46
Q

the dominant hand is usually how much stronger than non-dominant hand?

A

10-15%

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47
Q

against gravity, full ROM, max resistance

A

normal (5)

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48
Q

against gravity, full ROM, moderate resistance

A

good (4)

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49
Q

against gravity, full ROM, no resistance

A

fair (3)

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50
Q

gravity eliminated, full ROM, no resistance

A

poor (2)

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51
Q

tension is palpated in the muscle or tendon but no motion occurs at the joint

A

trace (1)

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52
Q

no tension is palpated in the muscle or tendon, and no motion occurs.

A

zero (0)

53
Q

name 3 examples of objective sensibility tests.

A
  • nerve conduction studies
  • ninhydrin sweat test
  • wrinkle test
54
Q

name 3 examples of threshold sensibility tests.

A
  • tuning fork
  • eraser end of pencil
  • semmes-weinstein monofilaments
55
Q

name 4 examples of functional sensibility tests.

A
  • moving 2 pt discrimination
  • static 2 pt discrimination
  • seddon coin test
  • moberg pick up test
55
Q

name 4 examples of functional sensibility tests.

A
  • moving 2 pt discrimination
  • static 2 pt discrimination
  • seddon coin test
  • moberg pick up test
56
Q

have the pt. pinch a piece of paper btwn the thumb and the radial aspect of the forefinger; if you can pull out the paper, it is positive

A

froment’s sign

57
Q

what is the clinical interpretation of a positive froment’s sign?

A

ulnar nerve weakness

58
Q

grasp the pts. thumb and gently grind it like a peppermill

A

grind test

59
Q

what is the clinical interpretation of pain during the grind test?

A

OA of thumb

60
Q

have pt. make an OK sign by opposing the thumb and forefinger to make a ring; check the strength of the O by trying to open it with your fingers.

A

“OK sign”

61
Q

what is the clinical interpretation of the “OK” sign?

A

weakness indicates median nerve abnormality

62
Q

pt. puts palm on surface, examiner checks for adduction of the 5th finger.

A

wartenburg’s finger sign

63
Q

what is the clinical interpretation of warternburg’s finger sign?

A

suggest ulnar nerve palsy

64
Q

pt makes a fist, pronates his or her forearm as well as radially deviate and extend wrist while examiner gives resistance over the radial aspect of the pts. hand.

A

cozen’s test

65
Q

what is the clinical interpretation of a positive cozen’s test?

A

lateral epicondylitis (ECRB could be affected)

66
Q

lightly stroked the pts. unaffected area first to see if pt feels sensation. repeated on unaffected and affected sides simultaneously using the same amt of pressure

A

10 test

67
Q

fluid can no longer be displaced (indented) and there is no pitting; becomes first and hard.

A

brawny edema

68
Q

which type of scar causes less stiffness than a straight scar?

A

z-plasty scar

69
Q

exerted by elastic when it is put on stretch; exerts pressure whether a pt is moving or immobile.

A

resting pressure (Co-ban compression wrap - edema)

70
Q

produced by active muscles pushing against an inelastic bandage and is only produced when the pt. is moving and contracting the muscles.

A

working pressure (Co-ban compression wrap - edema)

71
Q
  • monophasic current used to promote tissue healing and manage acute edema
  • direct current can produce mechanical and chemical changes
  • used to produce analgesia, muscle contractions and to facilitate wound healing
A

high volt pulsed galvanic stim (HVPG)

72
Q

inflatable garment that is intermittently inflated and deflated with the intention of forcing lymph out of the extremity/affected body part and into the central compartments of the body.

A

pneumatic compression pump

73
Q

name 2 examples of static progressive splints.

A
  • proglide

- JAS

73
Q

name 2 examples of static progressive splints.

A
  • proglide

- JAS

73
Q

name 2 examples of static progressive splints.

A
  • proglide

- JAS

74
Q

which conditions respond well to serial casting?

A

flexion contractures greater than 30 degrees

75
Q

paraffin dip 2x, then cast

A

tim technique

76
Q

when are high profile outriggers used?

A
  • when mobilizing stiff joints (allows for easier adjustment)
  • provides greater joint stability
77
Q

when are low-profile outriggers used?

A

when joints are supple and purpose is to substitute for absent motion

78
Q

all 3 arches of the hand create what?

A

dual obliquity

79
Q

modify joints positions according to diagnosis

A

resting splint

80
Q

modify wrist position according to diagnosis

A

cock-up splint

81
Q

if AROM is > than PROM what is the indication?

A

joint contracture

82
Q

if PROM > AROM what is indicated?

A

muscle weakness

83
Q

what does PROM measure?

A

the extensibility of the connective tissue surrounding a joint

84
Q

Maitland Joint Mobilization Grading Scale - Grade 1 involves a ___ amplitude rhythmic oscillating movement at the ___ of ROM.

A

small, beginning

85
Q

Maitland Joint Mobilization Grading Scale - Grade 2 involves a ___ amplitude rhythmic oscillating movement within ____ of ROM.

A

large, midrange

86
Q

what is the concave-convex rule?

A
  • if concave surface is moving on a stationary convex surface, gliding will occur in the same direction as rocking motion.
  • if convex surface is moving on a stationary concave surface, gliding will occur in the opposite direction to the rolling motion.
87
Q

exists when there is loss of joint AROM in the direction of the agonist, but there is full PROM

A

lag

88
Q

digits are passively placed in the position that the client cannot achieve actively, then the client tries to hold the digits in that position while the support is released.

A

place and hold

89
Q

what should you do to improve AROM?

A

improve muscle strength

90
Q

what should you do to improve PROM?

A

stretch

91
Q

name the 3 components of the stress-strain curve.

A
  • neutral zone
  • elastic zone
  • plastic zone
92
Q

represents the unfolding of the collagen fibers as stress is applied

A

neutral zone

93
Q

represents where tissue resistance is first felt when a therapist performs PROM on a joint

A

elastic zone

94
Q

areas where application of increased stress after the end of joint PROM can result in tissue microfailure; if more stress is applied, failure point is reached, and gross rupture of tissue occurs.

A

plastic zone

95
Q

how do you treat tendon adhesions?

A
  • elongate the adhesion so that is no longer restricts tendon excursion
  • heat before exercise can improve extensibility of the tissue
96
Q

what is the easiest type of muscle contraction?

A

isometric

97
Q

how should frequency of exercise progress?

A

-first start with short period of frequent exercise, then move to longer periods of less frequent exercise

98
Q

no motion, force and load are equivalent

A

isometric contraction

99
Q

force of muscle is sufficient to lift the load, the muscle shortens

A

concentric contraction

100
Q

force of muscle is not sufficient to retain load, muscle extends and slows down load

A

eccentric contraction

101
Q

necrosis is common in which types of fractures?

A

scaphoid fx

102
Q

a radial fx and ulnar sided pain could indicate what?

A

potential TFCC damage

103
Q

no thermal modalities during the ____ phase of healing.

A

inflammatory

104
Q

NMES is indicated if MMT is less than what?

A

3/5

105
Q

what is boxer’s fracture?

A

fracture of the 5th MC, end of the 5th MC takes the force of the impact and breaks at its neck; creates a dorsal bump.

106
Q

describe a boxer’s fracture splint.

A

splint with ulnar gutter: MP flexion, IP extension, wrist in neutral

107
Q

fracture of the ulnar shaft with concomitant dislocation of the radial head

A

monteggia fracture

108
Q

are RA joints hyper or hypo mobile?

A

hypermobile from loss of elastic properties of joints

109
Q

abnormal growth of tissue that develops in the joints from synovial lining of cells that builds up

A

pannus

110
Q

how can you combat ulnar drift with an orthosis?

A

to combat this from occurring, use ulnar drift static progressive splint

111
Q

is OA an inflammatory disease?

A

onset in non-inflammatory but secondary inflammation is common

112
Q

idiopathic, affects joints of one site with no known cause

A

primary OA

113
Q

affects a joint of one site and is due to some external or internal injury or disease

A

secondary OA

114
Q

what is the most prominent feature of the 7 presenting pt complaints of OA?

A

pain

115
Q

generally, OA pts. have pain with ____.

A

movement

116
Q

OA usually comes with what comorbidity?

A

trigger finger

117
Q

what do the grind and finklestein tests tell the difference btwn?

A

OA or an inflammation of the 1st dorsal compartment

118
Q

prefab splint designed to support the CMC joint

A

colditz metagrip

119
Q

presents with deep thenar eminence and thumb basilar pain, often coexistent with CMC arthritis of the thumb.

A

STT arthritis

120
Q

with OA, work ___ pain, no ___ pain.

A

TO, THROUGH

121
Q

describe intrinsic tightness

A

lumbricals; if you extend the MP and the PIP extends

122
Q

describe extrinsic tightness

A

communis; if you extend the MP and the PIP flexes

123
Q

a common and painful condition that affects the tendons on the thumb side of the wrist; hurts when person turns wrist, grasps anything or makes a fist.

A

dequervain’s synovitis

124
Q

what is the finklestein test used to diagnose?

A

dequervain’s synovitis

125
Q

what is froment’s test used to diagnose?

A

ulnar nerve palsy

126
Q

describe tenodesis.

A

passive opening of the fingers when the wrist is flexed and closing of the fingers when the wrist is extended.

Ortho Eval (24 decks)

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