MIDTERMS: Integumentary System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis and Dermis (Note: Hypodermis is not part of the skin but stabilizes it over skeletal muscles and organs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the sublayers of the epidermis.

A

Stratum Corneum, Stratum Lucidum (thick skin), Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Basale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary role of the epidermis?

A

Avascular, water-resistant, assists with thermoregulation (via arrector pili muscle), provides protection from bacteria, chemicals, and UV radiation through melanocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the functions of the skin.

A
  1. Primary insulator
  2. Holds organs together
  3. Provides sensory perception
  4. Contributes to fluid balance
  5. Regulates internal temperature
  6. Absorbs UV radiation
  7. Metabolizes vitamin D
  8. Synthesizes epidermal lipids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the components of the dermis?

A

Collagen, elastic fibers, hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the role of the hypodermis.

A

Consists of loose connective tissue and fat cells, provides insulation and protection to underlying structures, plays a role in pressure ulcer prevention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the sublayers of the dermis?

A

Papillary Dermis and Reticular Dermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What occurs during the inflammatory phase of wound healing (Day 1-10)?

A

Immune response, coagulation, cell necrosis, pathogen control, increased oxygen supply, and initiation of reepithelialization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Rubor (redness), calor (heat), dolor (pain), tumor (swelling), loss of function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What characterizes the proliferative phase (Day 3-20)?

A

Fibroblast activity, angiogenesis, formation of granulation tissue, and differentiation into type I collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the goal of the maturation phase (Day 9-2 years)?

A

Scar tissue remodeling, increased tensile strength, transition of scars in appearance, replacement of granulation tissue with less vascular tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What factors influence the rate of wound healing during all phases?

A

Wound size, blood supply, nutrient availability, and external conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What interventions are used for edema in wound healing?

A

: Compression (e.g., garments, bandages) is used for edema management, but it’s contraindicated in patients with arterial disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What role does oxygen play in wound healing?

A

Oxygen supports wound contraction, collagen deposition, angiogenesis, and granulation. Adequate oxygenation reduces the risk of infections, while poor oxygenation increases infection risk. Edema and necrosis can limit oxygen delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the effects of dry wounds on healing?

A

Dry wounds allow scab and eschar formation, which inhibit epithelial cell migration, provide food for pathogens, impede blood flow, and cool the wound surface, all of which slow healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is moisture important in wound healing?

A

Adequate moisture softens scabs and eschar, allowing enzymes to dissolve them naturally. Moist wounds promote healing, while dry wounds can slow healing, increase infection risk, and delay epithelial migration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why are occlusive dressings preferred over dry dressings in wound care?

A

Occlusive dressings maintain moisture, prevent trauma, keep the wound warm, protect from bacteria, and support healing even in infected wounds (e.g., hydrocolloids).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most important external factor for wound healing?

A

Wound hydration is the most crucial external factor for effective wound healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is wound healing by primary intention?

A

Primary intention occurs when a wound is surgically closed using sutures, staples, glue, or grafts, resulting in faster healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should be documented for wound characteristics?

A

Location, size (depth, width, length), shape, edges, tunneling/undermining, base characteristics, necrotic tissue, exudate, granulation tissue, epithelialization, exposed structures, periwound area, and pain patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the gold standard for assessing the bio-burden of a wound?

A

Quantitative biopsy is the gold standard, though it’s more expensive and painful. Swab cultures are less reliable but commonly used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe wound healing by secondary intention.

A

Secondary intention occurs when a wound is left open to heal through contraction and re-epithelialization without surgical closure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is wound healing by tertiary intention?

A

Tertiary intention (delayed primary closure) involves initially allowing a wound to heal by secondary intention before closing it surgically, often to treat infection before closure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is wound dehiscence?

A

Dehiscence occurs when a wound closed by primary intention reopens due to factors like maceration or infection, and it often then heals by secondary intention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the typical signs of arterial ulcers?

A

Wounds on distal LEs (e.g., toes), cool skin, necrotic wound base, pain with elevation, decreased pulses, and trophic changes like abnormal nail growth and dry skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is venous insufficiency characterized?

A

Inadequate venous drainage leading to edema, skin changes like hemosiderin staining, and ulcers near the medial malleolus. Often associated with minimal pain and a wet wound bed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)?

A

Long-term venous issues resulting in chronic ulcers, typically lasting 4 weeks to 3 months, with symptoms like swelling, aching, and skin changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is primary vs. secondary lymphedema?

A

Primary Lymphedema: Congenital/hereditary lymphatic abnormality (e.g., Milroy disease).
Secondary Lymphedema: Acquired due to lymphatic damage (e.g., after cancer surgery/radiation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes pressure injuries?

A

Prolonged pressure over bony areas leading to ischemia and tissue necrosis. Risk factors include immobility, advanced age, incontinence, and underweight status.

16
Q

What are common signs of lymphedema?

A

Swelling not relieved by elevation, early pitting edema, skin changes, increased infection risk, and discomfort or tightness in the affected area.

17
Q

What causes arterial insufficiency and ulceration?

A

Inadequate blood flow due to PVD, influenced by smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and obesity. Conditions include arteriosclerosis, atherosclerosis, arteriosclerosis obliterans, thromboangiitis obliterans, and Raynaud disease

18
Q

What are the stages of pressure injuries?

A

Initial stage presents as blanchable erythema; if unrelieved, progresses to non-blanchable erythema, then to deeper tissue involvement like abrasions, blisters, or craters.

19
Q

: Where are pressure injuries most likely to occur?

A

Sacrum, coccyx, greater trochanter, ischial tuberosity, calcaneus, and lateral malleolus due to proximity to bony prominences.

20
Q

pt presents with dried, inflammatory fluids that are moist, stringy and yellow, tan, gray, green or brown, What is this cond?

A

Slough

21
Q

pt presents with necrotic tissue that is leathery or thick, and black, brown or tan

A

Eschar

22
Q

What is neuropathy, and what causes it?

A

Neuropathy refers to nerve damage, often associated with diabetes, caused primarily by prolonged high blood sugar levels.

23
Q

: List common symptoms of diabetic neuropathy.

A

Numbness, tingling, burning sensations, and pain in the legs and feet, often leading to foot insensitivity and ulcers.

23
Q

Why is blood sugar control crucial for diabetic neuropathy?

A

Effective blood sugar control helps prevent or slow the progression of neuropathy and reduces the risk of complications like nonhealing wounds.

23
Q

What are the key features of arterial insufficiency ulcers?

A

: Painful wounds on distal lower extremities (e.g., lateral malleoli, toes), pale or necrotic base, and worsened pain with elevation.

23
Q

What is a neuropathic ulcer, and where is it commonly located?

A

Neuropathic ulcers occur at pressure points, primarily on the feet, due to impaired peripheral nerve function, such as metatarsal heads and heels.

23
Q

Describe the common sites and presentation of venous insufficiency ulcers.

A

Typically proximal to the medial malleolus, with heavy drainage, granulation tissue, and associated with swelling, hemosiderin staining, and increased skin temperature.

24
Q

What is the purpose of wound cleansing?

A

Wound cleansing supports the wound bed’s return to homeostasis while minimizing chemical and mechanical trauma, even in infected wounds.

24
Q

Why should excessive wound cleansing be avoided?

A

Excessive cleansing can lead to loss of endogenous fluids and slowed cellular activity for up to three hours post-cleansing.

24
Q

What is lymphedema, and how does it present clinically?

A

Chronic lymph fluid accumulation causing swelling that does not improve with elevation, with sensations of heaviness, tightness, and potential skin changes.

24
Q

What does a pain assessment in arterial disease focus on?

A

It focuses on symptoms like intermittent claudication and rest pain, which may require the use of scales like the Claudication Scale (CLAU-S).

24
Q

Excessive cleansing can lead to loss of endogenous fluids and slowed cellular activity for up to three hours post-cleansing.

A

Risks include contamination from waterborne pathogens, increased venous congestion, loss of endogenous fluids, mechanical disruption of granulation tissue, and increased heart and respiratory rates.

24
Q

What are the potential risks of pulsatile lavage with suction?

A

Risks include damaging newly formed tissue and causing pain during treatment.

25
Q

What are the signs of autonomic neuropathy in diabetic patients?

A

Decreased or absent sweat and oil production, dry and inelastic skin, and a propensity for heavy callus formation.

25
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of motor neuropathy in diabetic patients.

A

Includes loss of intrinsic muscles, leading to deformities like hammertoe and claw-toe, and foot drop.

25
Q

How does non-forceful irrigation work in wound cleansing?

A

It minimizes pressure on the wound bed by pouring a solution over the wound or using devices like a bulb syringe.

25
Q

What is the significance of trophic changes in wound evaluation?

A

Trophic changes like dry, shiny skin, decreased leg hair, and thickened toenails indicate impaired circulation in the lower extremities.

26
Q

What is pulsatile lavage with suction, and what are its advantages?

A

It is a wound irrigation technique that combines pulsed irrigation with suction. Advantages include less water usage, reduced treatment time, and suitability for bedside or home settings.

26
Q

What is the difference between non-selective and selective debridement?

A

Non-selective debridement removes all tissue (necrotic and living), while selective debridement removes only necrotic tissue in a controlled manner.

26
Q

What is the gold standard for debridement?

A

Sharp debridement using sterile instruments like scalpels and scissors is considered the gold standard.

26
Q

Describe the advantages and disadvantages of chemical or enzymatic debridement.

A

Advantages: minimal patient discomfort and simple application. Disadvantages: potential dermatitis on periwound skin and the need for crosshatching eschar.

27
Q

How does medical-grade honey aid wound healing?

A

It enhances debridement, reduces odor, prevents biofilm formation, and softens necrotic tissue while facilitating autolytic debridement.

28
Q

Describe the function of hydrogels in wound care.

A

Hydrogels increase moisture in dry wound beds, soften necrotic tissue, and support autolytic debridement.

29
Q

What is the function of primary and secondary dressings in wound care?

A

Primary dressings are applied directly to the wound, while secondary dressings are applied over the primary dressing for added protection.

29
Q

How do transparent films contribute to wound healing?

A

They trap endogenous fluids, maintain a moist environment, and facilitate autolytic debridement and wound bed homeostasis.

29
Q

Case: A patient requires wound debridement.
Question: What are the risks of whirlpool therapy?

A

Case: A patient requires wound debridement.
Question: What are the risks of whirlpool therapy?

29
Q

What are the key elements in scar management after wound healing?

A

Key elements include compression garments, stretching exercises, orthotics, positioning, specific massage techniques, and topical adjuncts like silicone gel sheets.

29
Q
A
29
Q

Case: A patient requires dressing for a chronic wound.
Question: What are primary and secondary dressings?

A

Primary dressings are applied directly to wounds; secondary dressings cover primary dressings for protection.

29
Q

Case: A patient has an infected wound.
Question: What should you consider before cleansing?

A

Choose methods that support homeostasis and avoid excessive cleansing to prevent fluid loss and cellular activity slowing.

29
Q

Case: A patient has a deep wound with debris.
Question: What are the advantages of pulsatile lavage with suction?

A

Efficiently collects exudate and debris, can be done bedside, and minimizes cross-contamination.

29
Q
A
29
Q
A
29
Q
A
29
Q
A
29
Q

Case: A patient experiences venous stasis.
Question: Why is compression therapy important?

A

It manages venous stasis, reduces swelling, and improves blood flow, aiding healing.