Midterm Practice Exams

Question 1

According to the Central Dogma of molecular biology (4 pts)

A. RNA is translated from a DNA template then transcribed.
B. Proteins are transcribed at same time they are translated.
C. The flow of information is from DNA to RNA to protein.
D. Reverse Transcriptase is used to remove introns from RNA.

Answer 1

C. The flow of information is from DNA to RNA to protein.

Question 2

Eukaryotic transcription can be controlled by (4 pts):
A. Methylation of DNA causing a decrease in expression of these genes.
B. Histone mediated condensation of DNA causing a decrease in expression.
C. Enhancer regions located several thousand bases upstream of the promoter.
D. Promoter sequences.
E. antisense RNA
F. All of the above are true.

Answer 2

F. All of the above are true.

Question 3

. The process of making an RNA copy of a gene is (4 pts):
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Transduction
D. Transformation
E. Translocation

Answer 3

b. Transcription

Question 4

. Imprinting involves . (4 pts):
A. methylation of the DNA
B. methylation of histones
C. acetylation of histones
D. deacetylation of histones
E. nucleosome spacing rearrangements

Answer 4

A. methylation of the DNA

Question 5

When isolating DNA from Escherichia coli phenol is used to (4 pts):
A. Enzymatically degrade the bacterial cell wall.
B. Remove RNA.
C. Remove proteins.
D. Remove water.

Answer 5

C. Remove proteins.

Question 6

During a Northern blot _______ is transferred from a gel to a nylon membrane before probing. (4 pts)
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Protein
D. Antibodies

Answer 6

B. RNA

Question 7

What is the function of reverse transcriptase in the construction of a cDNA library? (4 pts)
A. Partial digestion of DNA
B. Converting single stranded mRNA into an mRNA/cDNA hybrid
C. Ligation of inserts with plasmids
D. Expression of the cDNA in E. coli.

Answer 7

B. Converting single stranded mRNA into an mRNA/cDNA hybrid

Question 8

Which of the following components terminate the chain in a sequencing reaction. (4 pts)
A. dideoxynucleotides
B. Klenow polymerase
C. DNA polymerase III
D. deoxynucleotide
E. DNA primers

Answer 8

A. dideoxynucleotides

Question 9

A flow cell is used in: (4 pts)
A. Illumina
B. MiSeq
C. Ion Torrent
D. HiSeq
E All of the above

Answer 9

E All of the above

Question 10

Which of the following is considered a field of bioinformatic? (4 pts)
A. genomic
B. computational biology
C. proteomics
D. chemoinformatics
E. all of the above

Answer 10

E. all of the above

Question 11

One difference between genetic maps and physical maps is: (4 pts)
A. Genetic maps are based on recombination frequency while physical maps are based on sequence.
B. Physical maps are based on recombination frequency while genetic maps are based on sequence.
C. Genetic maps do not require mating in order to construct.
D. There are no markers in physical maps.
E. All of the above are true.

Answer 11

B. Physical maps are based on recombination frequency while genetic maps are based on sequence.

Question 12

To shotgun sequence a genome one would: (4 pts)
A. Begin by identifying and sequencing a single clone then finding clones that overlap this clone and
sequencing them.
B. Randomly construct a genomic library and sequence many clones from this library. Use a
computer to find overlapping clones.
C. Isolate one end of a chromosome and begin sequencing it by degradation chemistry.
D. Use chromosome walking.

Answer 12

B. Randomly construct a genomic library and sequence many clones from this library. Use a
computer to find overlapping clones.

Question 13

DNA sequence moving to a new location in the genome is called: (4 pts)
A. Transition
B. Transposition
C. Inversion
D. Hot spot

Answer 13

B. Transposition

Question 14

DNA and RNA are identical in structure except for: (3 pts)
a. DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine
b. RNA has ribose and DNA has deoxyribose
c. RNA has uracil and DNA has thymine
d. RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ribose
e. A and B are correct
f. C and D are correct
g. B and C are correct
h. A and D are correct

Answer 14

g. B and C are correct

Question 15

Epigenetics . (3pts)
a. includes changes and modifications to histones and nucleosomes
b. are inherited changes other than mutations in nucleotide sequence
c. includes imprinting from methylation of genes
d. may be mediated by noncoding RNAs
e. all of the above

Answer 15

e. all of the above

Question 16

An antibiotic resistance gene is (2pts)
a. The reason people need to take antibiotics when they have a cold
b. Found only in eukaryotes
c. Is sometimes used to select for the bacterial cells that received vector during transformation
d. A region of DNA with many restriction enzyme sites.

Answer 16

c. Is sometimes used to select for the bacterial cells that received vector during transformation

Question 17

A phage is a bacteria. (2pts)
True
False

Answer 17

False

Question 18

A plasmid is an extrachromosomal genetic element that has circular DNA with an origin so it can replicate.
(2pts)
True
False

Answer 18

True

Question 19

For RNA Quality Control, a DV200 value of 30 means that: (3 pts)
A. 30% of RNA is greater than 200 Mb
B. 30% of RNA is less than 200 Mb
C. 70% of RNA is greater than 200 bp
D. 30% of RNA is greater than 200 bp
E. 30% of RNA is less than 200 bp

Answer 19

D. 30% of RNA is greater than 200 bp

Question 20

Monoisotopic mass is the: (3 pts)
a. highest mass of the isotopic series of a peptide and caused mainly by 1.1% 13C abundance in nature.
b. average mass of the isotopic series of a peptide and caused mainly by 1.1% 13C abundance in nature
c. lowest mass of the isotopic series of a peptide and caused mainly by 1.1% 13C abundance in nature.
d. Most reasonable mass of a protein

Answer 20

c. lowest mass of the isotopic series of a peptide and caused mainly by 1.1% 13C abundance in nature.

Question 21

The method of isobaric tagging for relative and absolute quantification (iTRAQ) permits at least 4 different
samples to be analyzed at one time. It uses a reactive chemical that binds the peptide and is composed of an
“isobaric tag” that is covalently attached to the “reporter group”. In MS1 the masses of a particular peptide
from each of the 4 samples are the same and only in MS/MS will the reporter group be fragmented off.
(Short answer, 12 pts)

What does isobaric mean?

Answer 21

Identical mass

Question 22

What information about the sample does the reporter group give?

Answer 22

Sample number by mass and relative quantitation between samples

Question 23

Stable isotope labeling of amino acids in culture (SILAC) uses either ‘heavy’ arginine or ‘heavy’ lysine
which are incorporated into proteins. Trypsin cleaves at these positions resulting in just one heavy arginine
or heavy lysine difference within each peptide. When mixed with cells not cultured with ‘heavy’ arginine
or lysine, one can determine differences in the levels of a particular peptide. (circle one, 10 pts)

Answer 23

True

Question 24

What does phosphoproteomics quantify? (Short answer 10pts)

Answer 24

Amount of Phosphorylation on various amino acid side chains in a protein

Question 25

Gas chromatography (GC) in GC-MS separates chemical mixtures before entering the mass spectrometer
based on two parameters: (1) temperature and (2) chemical interactions with material on the capillary wall.
(circle one, 3pts)

Answer 25

True

Question 26

Liquid chromatography (LC) in LC-MS separates mixture before entering the mass spectrometer based on
two parameters: (1) chemical interactions with material on the microbeads within the solvent flow path and
(2) pressure (circle one, 3pts)
True
False

Answer 26

False

Question 27

A. Electrospray Ionization (ESI)

Answer 27

6. A high voltage stream creates a charged aerosol

Question 28

B. Matrix assisted laser desorption ionization (MALDI)

Answer 28

7. A method that makes ions from a surface

Question 29

C. Quadrupole

Answer 29

5. A set of elements that modulate between positive and negative charges

Question 30

D. Ion mobility separation

Answer 30

8. The differential speeds at which ions migrate through a gas under the influence of an electric field

Question 31

E. Electron multipliers

Answer 31

3. Ions hit material on the surface to create many electrons that will create a current

Question 32

F. Time of Flight (TOF)

Answer 32

2. Also known as a reflectometer

Question 33

G. Obitrap

Answer 33

9. Signal of charged material creates a frequency that is proportional to the m/z ratio

Question 34

H. Ion cyclotron resonance (ICR)

Answer 34

10. A superconducting magnet is required for this technique

Question 35

I. Collision Cell

Answer 35

1. A part of the MS where fragment ions are made to perform MS/MS

Question 36

Shielding of a nuclei will effect where the peak is located on the x axis of the NMR spectrum. A more
shielded 1
H will move more to the _________. (circle on, 4 pts)
A. Right
B. Left
C. Stay the same

Answer 36

A. Right

Question 37

. The x axis in NMR spectra is in parts per million (ppm) because (4 pts)
A. it represents a concentration
B. it is in Hz/MHz
C. it is in mass-to-charge ratio

Answer 37

B. it is in Hz/MHz

Question 38

The y axis in NMR spectra represent 1
H’s and therefore is directly related to concentration of a compound
(4 pts)
True
False

Answer 38

True

Question 39

What is the difference between DNA and RNA?
A. DNA contains a phosphate group, but RNA does not.
B. Both DNA and RNA contain a sugar, but only DNA has a pentose.
C. The sugar ring in RNA has an extra hydroxyl group that is missing in the pentose of
DNA.
D. DNA consists of five different nitrogenous bases, but RNA only contains four
different bases.
E. RNA only contains pyrimidines and DNA only contains purines.

Answer 39

C. The sugar ring in RNA has an extra hydroxyl group that is missing in the pentose of
DNA.

Question 40

Which statement about Escherichia Coli is not correct?
A. E. coli is called “The workhouse of molecular biology”.
B. E. coli can grow in a simple solution of water, a carbon source, and mineral salts.
C. All E. coli strain are pathogenic, and therefore must be handled accordingly.
D. The chromosomes of E. coli consist of one circular DNA molecule.
E. All of the above are correct.

Answer 40

C. All E. coli strain are pathogenic, and therefore must be handled accordingly.

Question 41

The genetic material of viruses can be
A. dsRNA
B. dsDNA
C. ssRNA
D. ssDNA
E. All of the above

Answer 41

E. All of the above

Question 42

During the lysogenic cycle, the viral genome is integrated into the host genome
A. True
B. False

Answer 42

A. True

Question 43

Methylation of DNA _______________________.
A. silences gene expression in eukaryotes
B. enhances the DNA binding of RNA polymerase to the promoters in the
methylated region
C. results in removal of histones from the methylated regions
D. causes histone tails fibers to become acetylated
E. remodels nucleosomes to allow entry of transcription machinery

Answer 43

A. silences gene expression in eukaryotes

Question 44

RNA polymerase synthesizes:
A. A DNA copy of the gene using the antisense strand as template
B. An RNA copy of the gene using the sense strand as template
C. An RNA copy of the gene using the antisense strand as template
D. A DNA copy of the sequence from promoter to terminator

Answer 44

C. An RNA copy of the gene using the antisense strand as template

Question 45

Plasmids from bacteria can be described by which of the following statements?
2
A. An RNA copy of the gene using the antisense strand as template Plasmids provide an
advantage to the host bacterium to compete against non-plasmid-containing
bacteria for nutrients.
B. An RNA Plasmids are used as a molecular biology tool to express other genes
efficiently in the host bacterium.
C. A DNA copy of Plasmids are extrachromosomal segments of DNA that carry
several genes beneficial to the host organism.
D. Plasmids have their own origin of replication.
E. All of the above statements describe plasmids

Answer 45

E. All of the above statements describe plasmids

Question 46

In what way is eukaryotic transcription more complex than prokaryotic transcription
A. Eukaryotes have three different RNA polymerases, whereas prokaryotes only
have one RNA polymerase.
B. Eukaryotic transcription initiation is much more complex than prokaryotic
initiation because of the various transcription factor involved.
C. Upstream elements are required for efficient transcription of eukaryotic cells but
these element are not usually necessary in prokaryotes.
D. Eukaryotic mRNA is made in the nucleus.
E. All of the above statements outline ways that eukaryotic transcription is more
complex

Answer 46

E. All of the above statements outline ways that eukaryotic transcription is more
complex

Question 47

Which of the following statement(s) is not true about mRNA?
A. Both DNA and Prokaryotic mRNA may contain multiple structural genes on the same
transcript, known as polycistronic mRNA.
B. Eukaryotes only transcribe one gene at a time on mRNA, called monocistronic
mRNA.
C. Eukaryotes are capable of having polycistronic mRNA; however, only the first cistron
will be translated.
D. Eukaryotes almost always produce polycistronic mRNA
E. Genes for metabolic pathways in bacteria are typically located close together and
transcribed on one mRNA.

Answer 47

C. Eukaryotes are capable of having polycistronic mRNA; however, only the first cistron
will be translated.

Question 48

An operon is:
A. A eukaryotic gene regulation unit.
B. A cluster of genes that share the same promoter.
C. A cluster of genes that have different promoters.
D. A cluster of genes that are transcribed as individual mRNAs from a single
promoter.
E. An opera enthusiast

Answer 48

B. A cluster of genes that share the same promoter.

Question 49

In what way is eukaryotic transcription more complex than prokaryotic transcription?
A. Eukaryotes have three different RNA polymerases, whereas prokaryotes only have
one RNA polymerase.
B. Eukaryotic transcription initiation is much more complex than prokaryotic
initiation because of the various transcription factors involved.
C. Upstream elements are required for efficient transcription in eukaryotic cells, but
these elements are not usually necessary in prokaryotes.
D. Eukaryotic mRNA is made in the nucleus.
E. All of the above statements outline ways that eukaryotic transcription is more
complex.

Answer 49

E. All of the above statements outline ways that eukaryotic transcription is more
complex.

Question 50

What feature about eukaryotic transcription factors is useful to biotechnology research?
A. They have two domains, both of which bind to DNA
B. They have two domains, both of which bind to separate proteins
C. They have two domains: one domain binds DNA and the other binds to some part of
the transcription apparatus.
D. They have only one domain that binds to RNA polymerase.
E. They have two domains but neither domain can be engineered and are therefore not
useful to biotechnology research.

Answer 50

C. They have two domains: one domain binds DNA and the other binds to some part of
the transcription apparatus.

Question 51

Which of the following DNA structure modifications are used to regulate transcription?
A. Acetylation/Deacetylation of the histone tails
B. Methylation of specific bases in the DNA sequence
C. Imprinting, such as X-inactivation
D. Chromatin condensation
E. Mono-trimethylation of histones
F. All of the above are important modifications for transcription regulation

Answer 51

F. All of the above are important modifications for transcription regulation

Question 52

Why is an RNA primer necessary during replication?
A. DNA polymerase III requires a 3′-OH to elongate DNA.
B. An RNA primer is not needed for elongation.
C. DNA polymerase requires a 5′-phosphate before it can elongate the DNA.
D. A DNA primer is needed for replication instead of an RNA primer.
E. An RNA primer is only needed once the DNA has been elongated and DNA
polymerase is trying to fill in the gaps.

Answer 52

A. DNA polymerase III requires a 3′-OH to elongate DNA.

Question 53

Which of the following statements about mismatch repair is incorrect?
A. MutSHL excise the mismatched nucleotides from the DNA.
B. Mismatch repair proteins identify a mistake in DNA replication.
C. The mismatch proteins recruit DNA polymerase III to synthesize new DNA after the
proteins have excised the mismatched nucleotides.
D. MutSHL can synthesize new DNA after a mismatch has been excised.
E. MutSHL monitors the methylation state of the DNA to determine which strand
contains the correct base when there is a mismatch.

Answer 53

D. MutSHL can synthesize new DNA after a mismatch has been excised.

Question 54

How are restriction enzymes and ligase used in biotechnology?
A. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific locations, producing ends that can be
ligated back together with ligase.
B. Only restriction enzymes that produce blunt ends after cutting DNA can be ligated
with ligase.
C. Only restriction enzymes that produce sticky ends on the DNA can be ligated with
ligase.
D. Restriction enzymes can both cut DNA at specific sites and ligate them back
together.
E. Restriction enzymes randomly cut DNA, and the cut fragments can be ligated back
together with ligase.

Answer 54

A. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific locations, producing ends that can be
ligated back together with ligase.

Question 55

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms distinguish individuals based on
A. presence or absence of restriction sites
B. DNA bands seen on agarose gel after digestion with restriction enzymes
C. determining the full sequence of a fragment of DNA
D. All of the above are true.
E. A and B are true.

Answer 55

E. A and B are true.

Question 56

. Which of the following are useful traits of cloning vectors?
A. An antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid for selection of cells containing the
plasmid.
B. A site that contains unique, clustered restriction enzyme sequences for cloning
foreign DNA.
C. A high copy number plasmid so that large amounts of DNA can be obtained.
D. Alpha complementation to determine if the foreign DNA was inserted into the
cloning site.
E. All of the above are useful traits.

Answer 56

E. All of the above are useful traits.

Question 57

Why must reverse transcriptase be used to create a eukaryotic expression library?
A. Reverse transcriptase is only used to create prokaryotic expression libraries.
B. Reverse transcriptase creates cDNA from mRNA in prokaryotes.
C. Reverse transcriptase ensures the gene is in the correct orientation within the
expression vector to create protein.
D. Reverse transcriptase creates cDNA from mRNA because genes in eukaryotes have
large numbers of non-coding regions.
E. No other enzymes are used to create expression libraries except restriction
enzymes.

Answer 57

D. Reverse transcriptase creates cDNA from mRNA because genes in eukaryotes have
large numbers of non-coding regions.

Question 58

Which of the following components terminates the chain in a sequencing reaction?
A. dideoxynucleotides
B. Klenow polymerase
C. DNA polymerase III
D. deoxynucleotides
E. DNA primers

Answer 58

A. dideoxynucleotides

Question 59

Which of the following statements about PCR is incorrect?
A. The DNA template is denatured using helicase.
B. PCR is used to obtain millions of copies of a specific region of DNA.
C. A thermostable DNA polymerase is used because of the high temperatures required
in PCR.
D. Template DNA, a set of primers, deoxynucleotides, a thermostable DNA polymerase,
and a thermocycler are the important components in PCR.
E. ePrimers are needed because DNA polymerase cannot initiate synthesis, but can
only elongate from an existing 3′-OH.

Answer 59

A. The DNA template is denatured using helicase.

Question 60

Why would a researcher want to use RT-PCR?
A. RT-PCR is used to compare two different samples of DNA for relatedness.
B. RT-PCR creates an mRNA molecule from a known DNA sequence.
C. RT-PCR generates a protein sequence from mRNA.
D. RT-PCR generates a DNA molecule without the noncoding introns from eukaryotic
mRNA.
E. All of the above are applications for RT-PCR

Answer 60

D. RT-PCR generates a DNA molecule without the noncoding introns from eukaryotic
mRNA.

Question 61

. Which of the following is utilized in genomic research?
1. microsatellite polymorphism
2. restriction fragment length polymorphism
3. single nucleotide polymorphism
4. variable number tandem repeat
5. all of the above

Answer 61

5. all of the above

Question 62

Which of the following is not an advantage of automated cycle sequencing over the chain
termination method of sequencing? (10 pts)
A. The reactions in an automated sequencer can be performed faster.
B. The reactions performed in an automated sequencer can be read by a
computer rather than a human.
C. Higher temperatures are used during cycle sequencing, which prevent
secondary structures from forming in the DNA and early termination of the
reaction.
D. In cycle sequencing, nonspecific interactions by the primer can be controlled
by raising the annealing temperature.
E. All of the above are advantages of cycle sequencing.

Answer 62

E. All of the above are advantages of cycle sequencing.

Question 63

In ______________ sequencing the DNA Fragments are bound to a solid surface via a flow cell?
(10 pts)
A. Illumina
B. 454
C. chain termination
D. Sanger
E. cycle.

Answer 63

A. Illumina

Question 64

Flashes of light are emitted whenever a base is added in _____________ sequencing. (10 pts)
A. Illumina
B. 454
C. chain termination
D. Sanger
E. cycle

Answer 64

B. 454

Question 65

In ______________ sequencing the DNA Fragments do not require sequencing by synthesis. (10 pts)
A. Illumina
B. 454
C. chain termination
D. Sanger
E. Nanopore

Answer 65

E. Nanopore

Question 66

Which type of mutation is the most common? (10 pts)
A. insertion of one or more bases
B. deletion of one of more bases
C. base substitutions
D. inversion of DNA segments
E. duplications of DNA segments

Answer 66

C. base substitutions

Question 67

Which technology uses helicase (10 pts)
A. Ion Torrent
B. Illumina
C. 454
D. Nanopore
E. Illuminati

Answer 67

D. Nanopore

Question 68

LAESI

Answer 68

Single Cell
Single Cell Imaging

Question 69

MERFISH

Answer 69

single cell imaging

Question 70

GeoMX

Answer 70

Bulk omic

Question 71

Phenocycler

Answer 71

Single cell imager

Question 72

Drop Seq

Answer 72

Single cell

Question 73

10x

Answer 73

Single cell

Question 74

FACS

Answer 74

Single cell

Question 75

BioNano

Answer 75

genomic mapping