MIDTERM: PLASMODIUM SPP. Flashcards

1
Q

● leading parasitic disease
● one of 3 major infectious disease threats
● chronic malaria leads to anemia

A

Plasmodium spp.

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2
Q

Plasmodium spp.

A
  1. Plasmodium falciparum
  2. Plasmodium vivax
    (microscopically indistinguishable based on life cycle)
  3. Plasmodium ovale
  4. Plasmodium malariae
  5. Plasmodium knowlesi
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3
Q

are 90% responsible of human malaria cases

A

Plasmodium falciparum & Plasmodium vivax

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4
Q

described in humans in the Philippines and most of Southeast Asia. a parasite of long-tailed macaques (Macaca fascicularis)

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

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5
Q

ANOPHELES MOSQUITO
 principal malaria vector in the Philippines
 a night biter, which prefers to breed in slow flowing, partly shaded streams that abound in the foothill areas.
 ability to adapt to or utilize new habitats such as
irrigation ditches, rice fields, pools, and wells.
 In Palawan, it was observed to be mildly exophagic and zoophilic.

A

Anopheles minimus var. flavirostris

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6
Q

ANOPHELES MOSQUITO
- associated with malaria transmission in the
coastal areas of Mindanao, particularly in Sulu

A

Anopheles litoralis

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7
Q

coexists with A. flavirostris in the portion of streams exposed to sunlight.
 responsible for malaria transmission at higher
altitudes.

A

Anopheles maculatus

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8
Q

 has the same breeding habitats and seasonal
prevalence as A. flavirostris
 but prefer habitats located in forest fringe.

A

Anopheles mangyanus

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9
Q

➢ is also known as Erythrocytic Schizogony
➢ Where P. vivax and ovale forms its dormant stage and become hypnozoites

A

Exo-erythrocytic Cycle

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10
Q

 MOST DANGEROUS AND DEADLY
 Affects Erythrocytes of all ages
 BLACK WATER FEVER (severe malaria)
o caused by hemoglobinuria (presence of hemoglobin in urine)
o characterized by intravascular hemolysis
caused by P. falciparum-induced red cell
destruction.
 has Maurer’s dots - dark, irregular to commashaped cytoplasmic dots

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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11
Q

 Benign Tertian Malaria
o Causes REPEATED RELAPSES from a single mosquito
o mimic those usually seen in cases of the flu, including nausea, vomiting, headache, muscle pains, and photophobia.
 Most widespread
 infects RETICULOCYTES
 Schuffner’s dots are often present

A

Plasmodium vivax

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12
Q

 Benign Tertian (same as P. vivax)
 Infects RETICULOCYTES
 Has Jame’s dots

A

Plasmodium ovale

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13
Q

 Quartan Malaria (also known as “Malarial malaria”)
o typically experience an incubation period
of 18 to 40 days followed by the onset of
flulike symptoms.
o Cyclic paroxysms occur every 72 hours
(thus, the name quartan malaria).
 Infects OLD RBCs
 Has Ziemman’s dots

A

Plasmodium malariae

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14
Q

 A parasite of Old World Monkeys
 Long-tailed macaques (Macaca fascicularis)
 Morphologically resembles P. malariae
 Causes Malaria to humans and other primates
 Life cycle: Microscopically indistinguishable from P. malariae
 Requires infection of both mosquito and a
warm blooded host
 Natural Host: Cynomolgus Monkeys
- SINTON & MULLIGANS STIPPLINGS

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

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15
Q

Differentiation of P. knowlesi and P.
malariae is achieved through ?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Assay and Molecular characterization

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16
Q

MORPHOLOGICAL FEATURES
- only mature cells
- infected rbc: larger than normal, pale, often bizarre, SCHUFFNER’S DOT are often present
- MAURER’S CLEFT

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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17
Q

MORPHOLOGICAL FEATURES
- only young and immature cells
- infected rbc: larger than normal, pale, often bizarre or distorted,
- SCHUFFNER’S DOT are often present

A

Plasmodium vivax

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18
Q

MORPHOLOGICAL FEATURES
- only young and immature cells
- infected rbc: enlarged, oval in shape, often with fringed or irregular edge; SCHUFFNER’S DOT appear even with younger stages
- JAME’S DOT

A

Plasmodium ovale

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19
Q

MORPHOLOGICAL FEATURES
- only young and immature cells
- infected rbc: larger than normal, pale, often bizarre or distorted, SCHUFFNER’S DOT are often present
- ZIEMANN’S STRIPPING

A

Plasmodium malariae

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20
Q

Range from 11 days-4 weeks

A

PREPATENT PERIOD

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21
Q
  • Sporozoite injection & the appearance of clinical symptoms typically
  • Initial mosquito bite and exoerythrocytic cycle of malarial infection
A

INCUBATION PERIOD

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22
Q

a sudden attack or increase of symptoms of a disease (such as pain, coughing, shaking, etc.) that often occurs again and again

A

Paroxysms

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23
Q

Prodromal Symptoms

A

o Feeling of weakness and exhaustion
o Desire to stretch and yawn
o Aching bones, limbs, back
o Loss of appetite
o Nausea and vomiting
o Sense of chilling

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24
Q

At disease onset:

A

o Malaise
o Backache
o Diarrhea
o Epigastric discomfort

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25
Q

3 Stages of Classical Malaria Paroxysms:
* Coldness & apprehension
* Mild shivering quickly turns to violent teeth chattering and shaking
of the entire body
* Convulsion may last 15-60 minutes

A

COLD STAGE

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26
Q

3 Stages of Classical Malaria Paroxysms:
* Headaches, palpitations, tachypnea, epigastric discomfort, thirst, nausea and vomiting
* Temperature may reach a peak of 41°C
* Last for 2-6 hrs

A

HOT STAGE/FLUSH PHASE

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27
Q

3 Stages of Classical Malaria Paroxysms:
*Defervescence or diaphoresis
*Temperature lower over the next 2-4 hrs
* Total duration of typical attack is 8-12 hrs

A

SWEATING STAGE

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28
Q
  • only infect the aging cells
A

Plasmodium malariae

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29
Q

infect young Red Blood Cell

A

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

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30
Q

infect all ages of erythrocytes

A

Plasmodium falciparum & Plasmodium knowlesi

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31
Q
  • RENEWAL OF PARASITEMIA or clinical features arising from persistent undetectable asexual parasitemia in the absence of an exo-erythrocytic
  • Recurrence of malaria due to the SURVIVAL OF THE PARASITE in the RBCs of the patient
A

Recrudescence

32
Q
  • is RENEWED ASEXUAL PARASITEMIA following a period in which the blood contains no detectable parasites
  • Recurrence of malaria even though the
    patient has been cured
  • Usually occurs with Plasmodium vivax and
    Plasmodium ovale due to the reactivation of
    HYPNOZOITES in the liver
33
Q

The rupturing of RBCs causes _______________ to be
released. Due to these factors, it causes the infected
body to experience the familiar symptoms of malaria:
o Fever
o Chills
o Headache
o Excessive perspiration

A

TUMOR NECROSIS FACTOR (TNF) & OTHER CYTOKINES

34
Q
  • are the ligands for rosette formation.
  • adhere to parasitized and non-parasitized
A

Rosettins and PfEMP-1

35
Q
  • act like the endotoxin of gram negative bacteria, lipopolysaccharide
    (LPS).
A

Glycosy|phosphatidylinositol (GPI)

36
Q

SEVERE FORMS OF MALARIA:

A

● impairment of consciousness
● signs of cerebral dysfunction (delirium and generalized convulsions)
● severe hemolytic anemia

37
Q

characterized by a hematocrit less than 7 g/dL and hyperbilirubinemia with levels more than 50 mmol/L

A

SEVERE HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA

38
Q
  • manifest diffuse symmetrix encephalopathy
  • FATAL
    o Signs & Symptoms: retinal hemorrhage, bruxism (fixed jaw closure and teeth grinding), and mild neck stiffness.
A

Cerebral Malaria

39
Q
  • is common, and it includes air flow obstruction, impaired ventilation and gas transfer, and increased pulmonary phagocytic activity
A

Altered Pulmonary Function

40
Q

__________ reaches up to 60% of patients with severe falciparum malaria
- Serum creatinine of more than 265 mmol/L
- 24-hour urine output of less than 1 ml/kg/hr

A

Acute Renal Failure (ARF)

41
Q

o Increases the risk of maternal death, maternal
anemia, intrauterine growth retardation,
spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, and low birth
weight associated with risk for neonatal death

A

PLACENTAL MALARIA

42
Q

MICROSCOPIC DETECTION OF MALARIA

A

GIEMSA STAIN (specimen of choice) & WRIGHT’S STAIN (GOLD STANDARD)

43
Q

BLOOD SMEARS( under OIO)
- used as SCREENING SLIDES, locates parasites
sitting in RBCs

A

Thick smears

44
Q

BLOOD SMEARS( under OIO)
- used in DIFFERENTIATING Plasmodium spp.

A

Thin smears

45
Q

Is the MEASUREMENT OF PARASITE LOAD in the sample and the indication of the degree of active parasitic infection

A

Parasitemia

46
Q

Blood smears are usually obtained every _________

A

every 6-8 hours

47
Q

Not seriously ill

A

once daily is sufficient

48
Q

Seriously ill

A

2-3 times daily

49
Q
  • Immunochromatographic methods to detect
    Plasmodium-specific antigens in a finger prick
    blood sample
  • Performed in 15-30 mins without use of electricity,
    special equipment, or any training in microscopy
  • Easily taught and interpreted
  • 90% specificity
A

Malaria rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs)

50
Q

Malaria rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs)
Antigens being targeted:

A
  • Histidine-rich protein II (HRP II)
  • plasmodium lactate dehydrogenase
    (pLDH)
  • Plasmodium aldolase
51
Q

 cannot differentiate between current and past
infections and are therefore most helpful in
epidemiologic studies.
 presently available methods are not capable of
making a definitive diagnosis of acute malaria

A

Serologic tests

52
Q

to significantly enhance microscopic diagnosis of
malaria especially in cases of low parasitemia and
in cases of mixed infection

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techniques

53
Q

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS MAIN USES:
- preventing either the occurrence of the infection or any of its symptoms.

A

PROTECTIVE (prophylactic)

54
Q

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS MAIN USES:
- use refers to action on the established infection, which involves the use of blood schizonticidal drugs for the treatment of the acute attack and in the case of relapsing malaria

55
Q

ANTIMALARIAL DRUGS MAIN USES:
- deterrence of infection of mosquitoes with the use of gametocytocidal drugs to attack the gametocytes in the blood of the human host; interruption of the development of the sporogonic phase

A

Preventive

56
Q

destroy the sexual forms of the parasite in the blood

A

Gametocytocidal drugs

57
Q

which kill the dormant forms in the liver

A

HYPNOZOITOCIDAL OR ANTIRELAPSE DRUGS

58
Q

Inhibit the development of the oocysts on the gut wall of the mosquito

A

Sporonticidal drugs

59
Q

TREATMENT
first line antimalarial treatment in africa

A

Lumefantrine

60
Q

2nd line drug

A

QUININE SULFATE PLUS DOXYCYCLINE OR
CLINDAMYCIN

Disadvantage of Quinine: produces
toxic side effects such as cardiotoxicity
and cinchonism, characterized by
tinnitus, headache, and blurring of vision

61
Q

contraindicated in pregnant women and children below 8 years.

A

Tetracycline

61
Q

known to be effective antimalarials, although they kill the parasite rather slowly.

A

TETRACYCLINE and CLINDAMYCIN

62
Q
  • Drug of choice in severe malaria
A

Quinine/quinidine

63
Q

drug choice for plasmodium vivax; mainstay of antimalarial treatment for the last 50 years

A

Chloroquine

64
Q

intermittent preventive treatment combined with sulfadoxine

A

Pyrimethamine

65
Q

severe/uncomplicated falciparum malaria

A

Artemisinin-based Combination Therapies (ACTs)

66
Q

Classification of response to malaria
treatment can be divided into?

A
  • early treatment failure
  • late treatment failure, and
  • adequate clinical and parasitological response
67
Q

Early diagnosis and prompt treatment of malaria are essential for malaria control. Breeding sites of ______________should be detected early and contained.

A

Anopheles flavirostris

68
Q

ANTIMALARIAL OF CHOICE IN PREGNANCY

A

Quinine plus Clindamycin taken for 7 days

69
Q
  • DRUG OF CHOICE FOR GAMETOCYTES AND HYPNOZOITES
  • should NOT be given in pregnancy
    and in children less than 4 years of age
A

Primaquine

70
Q

Resistance of a parasite to drugs is graded according to the PATTERNS OF _______after initiation of treatment

A

asexual parasitemia

71
Q

TYPES OF RESISTANCE OF PARASITE TO DRUGS
- is the MILDEST FORM of resistance which is characterized by initial clearance of parasites but recrudescence occurs within a month after the start of treatment

72
Q

TYPES OF RESISTANCE OF PARASITE TO DRUGS
- INITIAL REDUCTION IN PARASITEMIA after treatment but there is failure to clear the blood of asexual parasites and soon after an increase of parasitemia follows.

73
Q

TYPES OF RESISTANCE OF PARASITE TO DRUGS
-SEVEREST FORM OF RESISTANCE which parasitemia will either show no significant change with treatment or will eventually increase.

74
Q

ADDITIONAL TREATMENTS
- important especially in children to prevent convulsions.

A

Antipyretics and sponging

75
Q

administered with care to avoid pulmonary edema.

A

Fluid replacement or blood transfusion

76
Q

o To control seizures
o 10 mg intravenous