Midterm Flashcards
Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle?
a. Skeletal muscle fibers are more tightly connected than cardiac muscle fibers.
b. It is composed of intercalated discs.
c. It is a voluntary muscle.
d. Skeletal muscle fibers are shorter than cardiac muscle fibers.
c. It is a voluntary muscle.
What is the term for the client’s pulse found on their wrist?
Radial pulse
During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?
Ball cobra
What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?
Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?
Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence?
a. Aerobic Endurance Training
b. Anaerobic Endurance Training
c. Strength Endurance Training
d. Speed Endurance Training
c. Strength Endurance Training
What gland releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty?
Pituitary gland
In the endocrine system, which of the following secretes hormones such as corticosteroids and catecholamines in response to stress?
a. Adrenal gland
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pineal gland
d. Thyroid gland
a. Adrenal gland
Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and protein?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Insulin
c. Cortisol
d. Testosterone
C. Cortisol
Which of the following is made up of the upper and lower extremities as well as the shoulder and pelvic girdles and encompasses approximately 126 bones?
a. Articular cartilage
b. Appendicular skeleton
c. Epiphyseal plate
d. Vertebral column
b. Appendicular skeleton
In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?
a. Atrioventricular node
b. Venules
c. Capillaries Correct
d. Sinoatrial node
c. Capillaries
Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Internal oblique
c. Diaphragm
d. Scalenes
d. Scalenes
What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?
The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted
Which of the following is true of glycogen?
a. It is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose.
b. It is used by the body during short-duration, low-intensity activities.
c. It is the chemical or substrate form in which most fat exist.
d. It is a form of glucose stored predominantly in the epidermal cells
a. It is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose.
As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?
Eccentric
The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between which of the following?
Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
Around which axis does frontal plane motion occur?
Anterior-posterior
Which muscle action occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in shortening of the muscle?
Concentric
Which plane bisects the body into right and left sides?
Sagittal plane
During the overhead squat assessment, which areas should the fitness professional focus on from the anterior view?
Feet and knees
Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations?
a. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
b. Overheard squat assessment, anterior view
c. Pushing assessment, lateral view
d. Shark skill test, anterior view
C. Pushing assessment, lateral view
If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
d. Medial gastrocnemius
Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?
a. Altered reciprocal inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Pattern overload
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
a. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched?
a. Septicity
b. Extensibility
c. Miscibility
d. Plasticity
b. Extensibility
What is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Corrective flexibility
Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?
a. Flexibility
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. Extensibility
d. Dynamic range of motion
a. Flexibility
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
Bicycles
Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?
a. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes.
b. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 15 minutes.
c. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 20 minutes.
d. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.
d. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.
Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise?
a. Ball crunch
b. Cable rotation
c. Floor prone cobra
d. Rotation chest pass
c. Floor prone cobra
Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for the goal of improving neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability?
a. Incline reverse crunch
b. Prone iso-abs
c. Back extension
d. Overhead medicine ball throws
b. Prone iso-abs
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?
a. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
b. Cable rotation
c. Rolling active resistance row
d. Cable chop
a. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise?
a. Avoid rounding the lower back when performing the exercise.
b. Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise.
c. Keep the chin tucked while performing the exercise.
d. Avoid a large stride length to protect the low back.
b. Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise.
A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work toward for this exercise?
Reaching all the way to the foot.
James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?
a. Hold the lunge for 5 seconds
b. Push off the front foot through the heel
c. Hold balance on the back leg
d. Rotate 90 degrees
b. Push off the front foot through the heel
Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
a. Single-leg box hop-down
b. Single-leg squat touchdown
c. Single-leg box hop-up
d. Single-leg balance reach
d. Single-leg balance reach
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to lift one leg directly beside the balance leg and then bend from waist to slowly reach hand toward the toes of the balance leg?
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
d. Single-leg balance reach
c. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
What is the balance-stabilization exercise that involves lifting one leg directly beside the balance leg while maintaining optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders and holding this position for 5-20 seconds?
Single-leg balance
