Midterm 3 (1) Flashcards

1
Q

Bovine parainfluenza virus 3 is frequently endemic in cattle farms

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Parainfluenza 3 viruses causes disease primarily in young calves

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A common route of infection with parainfluenza 3 is through inhalation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The main clinical sign of a parainfluenza 3 is diarrhoea

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parainfluenza 3 virus can predispose cattle to pneumonia caused by bacteria

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Parainfluenza 3 aids in secondary bacterial contaminations

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus is caused by pneumovirus and we use inactivated vaccines for prevention

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The world is free of Peste des petites ruminants

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Over 50% of the animals may die during a Peste des petites ruminants outbreak

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The Peste des petites ruminants are endemic in North- and South America

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Erosive lesions in the oral cavity are frequent signs of Peste des petites ruminants

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Only cattle are susceptible to Rinderpest infections

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rinderpest virus can survive in the environment for several months

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rinderpest virus survives in nature for years

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rinderpest is carries by animals for a long time

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rinderpest commonly occurs in Africa and in Latin America

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

It is mandatory to vaccinate cattle against Rinderpest

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nowadays the Rinderpest virus is used as a heterologous vaccine against the PPR virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The outcome of Canine distemper virus infection is very much influenced by the immune response of the dog in utero

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Distemper virus infects only dogs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Distemper can cause abortion

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Canine distemper virus can infect only dogs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Canine distemper virus may result in abortion

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Canine distemper virus only infects Canidae

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clinical manifestation of the Canine distemper is mainly seen in 3-4 months-old dogs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The dominant clinical sign of Canine distemper is diarrhea

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Distemper occurs in lions and dolphins

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Surviving distemper does not result in protection

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Distemper can cause encephalitis in dogs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

​Dogs infected with Canine distemper virus usually become life-long carriers and shedders

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Distemper causes de-myelinization

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vaccinations against distemper at half years of age

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Distemper can predispose dogs to secondary bacterial infections

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Canine parainfluenza virus 2 frequently causes encephalitis in old dogs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Canine distemper virus often causes cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the urinary ​bladder epithelial cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Parainfluenza virus 2 infection is frequent in the aetiology of kennel cough

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Distemper through conjunctival smear can be diagnosed by immunofluorescence technique

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Feline morbillivirus infection may be associated with tubulo-interstitial nephritis in cats

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hendra virus is found only in Australia

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The natural hosts of Hendra-viruses are flying foxes (Pteropus bats)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hendra-viruses can cause encephalitis in horses and in humans

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Wild birds may be reservoir hosts of the Nipah-viruses

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Nipah virus is transmitted mainly by arthropod vectors

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Wild birds may be reservoir hosts of the Newcastle disease virus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Members of every APMV serogroup can cause Newcastle’s disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Avian paramyxovirus belongs into 9 serogroups

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Any member of the avian paramyxovirus serogroups may cause Newcastle disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The sequence of Newcastle disease virus F0 splice site, is a significant factor of its virulence

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Velogenic strains of Newcastle disease virus cause an acute septicaemia

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Newcastle disease virus can be taken up by inhalation and per os

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

An acute, nervous form of Newcastle disease virus can frequently be seen in dogs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The virulence of Newcastle disease strains can be determined by sequence analysis of certain genes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Newcastle disease virus cause dwarfism in embryonated chicken eggs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Newcastle disease is caused by virulent strains of serogroup APMV-1

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lentogenic strains of Newcastle disease virus can cause disease in young turkey

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Velogenic-viscerotropic NDV strains can cause disease with high mortality

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Wild boars may transmit Newcastle disease virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

CNS clinical signs are frequently seen in chicken in the case of Newcastle disease

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

An acute, nervous form of Newcastle disease virus can frequently be seen in ducks

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Newcastle disease virus velogen viscerotop and neurotrop causes neurological signs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

New castle disease could easily be differentiated from avian influenza

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Avian paramyxovirus-1 usually causes central nervous disease in pigeons

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Velogenic strain of Newcastle disease virus cause an acute form of the disease

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Newcastle disease virus cannot survive long in the environment

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Lentogenic strains of Newcastle disease virus do not cause clinical signs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

An intracerebral pathogenicity index higher than 0.7 is a criterion of Newcastle disease

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Newcastle disease virus is typically vectored by ticks

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Vaccination against Newcastle disease is used all over the world

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Live mesogenic strains of Newcastle disease virus is used for vaccination in Europe

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Only inactivated vaccines can be used against Newcastle disease virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Mesogenic strains of Newcastle disease virus are used for vaccination in some countries

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Wild birds may be reservoir hosts of avian metapneumoviruses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Swollen head syndrome (SHS) caused by avian metapneumonia virus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

In avian metapneumovirus infection the egg production drops/decreases

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Avian metapneumoviruses can cause respiratory signs and egg production problems

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

It is possible to determine the virulence of AMPV-1 strains by sequencing

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Turkey rhinotracheitis virus causes disease in turkeys and chickens

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Turkey rhinotracheitis is most frequent at 4-9 weeks of age

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Equine infectious arteritis is a notifiable disease

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Equine infectious arteritis is stenoxen viruses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Equine arthritis virus is very resistant to physical damages

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Equine viral arteritis can affect donkeys

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Equine arteritis virus is a uniform virus without serotypes, subtypes etc

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Aerogenic infection can happen in the case of equine arteritis virus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lameness due to inflammatory joints is the most typical sign of Equine infectious arteritis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

After equine viral arteritis virus infection, mortality rate is low

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The main target of Equine viral arteritis virus is macrophages

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Equine viral arteritis is transmitted by a sexual and aerogenic pathways

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Equine viral arteritis, aborted embryos have degenerated liver

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Equine arteritis virus is shed in the semen

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Equine viral arteritis is usually asymptomatic

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Conjunctivitis and subcutaneous edema are possible signs of equine viral arteritis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Equine viral arteritis is diagnosed by agarose-gel immunodiffusion (Coggins test)

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Subcutaneous edema is a frequent sign of equine viral arteritis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Pregnant mares usually abort in the acute phase of equine viral arteritis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The Equine arteritis virus (EAV) may cause abortion in pregnant mares

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Equine arteritis virus can cause abortion

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

​Mares are frequently life-long carriers of the Equine arteritis virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Equine viral arthritis causes reproductive problems/impotence in stallions

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

In case of equine viral arteritis, the rate of seroconverted animals increases with age

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Stallions may be long-term carriers of the Equine arteritis virus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Vaccination of colts before puberty can prevent the development of EAV-carrier status

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Equine infectious arteritis is a notifiable disease, therefore vaccinations are forbidden

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Equine viral arteritis can be controlled in part by removing long-term carriers

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Acute equine viral arthritis is similar to Equine infectious anemia

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

​Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus (PRRSV) is a zoonotic agent

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRSV) is an Arterivirus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

PRRS: reproductive and respiratory problems and others with other virulence

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) is only present in North-America

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

PRRS virus has 3 genotypes

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

PRRSV attacks the active macrophages

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus (PRRSV) propagates in lymphatic cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

PRRS infection has two clinical phases

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Target cells of PRRSV are alveolar epithelial cells

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

PRRS causes immune suppression in prolonged cases

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

PRRS is characterized by respiratory disease in adult pigs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

PRRS: cyanosis is one clinical symptom

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

PRRS virus affects the respiratory system in young piglets

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Edema can be a sign of PRRS

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

PRRS virus causes severe intestinal problems in adult pig

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus cannot cause abortion only infertility of the sows

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

The PRRS virus may cause reproductive problems in boars

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

PRRSV infection may influence the reproductive performance of boars

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Boars can transmit porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus in the semen

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus (PRRSV) can cause abortion only in the advanced stage of pregnancy (over 90 days)

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are available against PRRS

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Porcine reproductive and respiratory vines (PRRSV does not cause clinical signs in boars

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

PRRS virus can only be isolated in porcine kidney cell culture

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Inactivated vaccines alone cannot induce protective immunity against PRRSV

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Only inactivated vaccines can be used for the prevention against PRRSV

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Porcine parvoviruses and PRRSV may cause similar disease in sows

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

For PRRS prevention we can get a very good immunization with inactivated vaccines

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Borna disease virus is spreading from cell to cell

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Borna disease occurs mainly in the Far East

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Borna disease replicate in the nucleus of cells and is called Joest Degen bodies

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Borna disease can be seen all over the world

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Clinical signs of Borna disease appear very slowly

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

​Borna disease is widespread all over the world

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Mainly central nervous clinical signs can be seen in the case of Borna disease

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Horse is the reservoir species of Borna disease virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Borna disease causes dementia / CNS signs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Borna disease appears in horses only

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Most animals showing clinical signs of Borna disease die due to it

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Only horses are susceptible to Borna disease virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Only ruminants are susceptible to Borna disease virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

The lethality of Borna disease is low

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Respiratory signs are the most typical ones in the case of Borna disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

​Dyspnea, nasal discharge and cough are the main signs of Borna disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Pneumonia is the main clinical sign of Borna disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Coronaviruses have a weak physical resistance

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Coronaviruses can survive for months in the environment

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Coronaviruses are enveloped viruses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Coronaviruses frequently mutate and recombine

A

False(?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Coronaviruses can cause asymptomatic infection in cats

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus causes acute pneumonia in susceptible piglets

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Cattle can be infected with coronavirus per os

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Cattle can be infected with coronavirus by inhalation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Bovine coronavirus can infect humans

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Bovine coronaviruses causes mainly respiratory and enteric diseases

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Bovine coronaviruses usually infect the respiratory and the digestive systems

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Certain bovine coronaviruses can cause diarrhea in children

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Calf coronavirus diarrhea is characterized by several respiratory signs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Bovine coronavirus may induce both respiratory and enteric signs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Certain bovine coronaviruses can affect humans causing clinical signs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Bovine coronaviruses may cause respiratory signs in calves

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Bovine corona virus can cause respiratory problems

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Coronaviruses mainly cause central nervous disease in cattle

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Coronavirus can cause enteritis in calves typically on the first week of life

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Surviving winter dysentery gives permanent protection only against homologous infection

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Coronavirus diarrhea occurs in young calves between a few days and 3-4 weeks of age

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Bovine corona virus causes diarrhea in adult animals mainly in summer

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Coronaviruses cause winter diarrhea in dairy cows

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Coronaviruses cause winter diarrhea in dairy cows with hemorrhagic access

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Calves can be protected against coronavirus diarrhea by vaccinations of pregnant cows

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Bovine coronaviruses can cause diarrhea only in calves up to one month of age

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of coronaviral diarrhea in cattle

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Transmissible Gastroenteritis virus (TGEV) is widespread.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

TGE is completely eradicated in Europe

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

TGE appears in Hungary

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Porcine transmissible gastroenteritis is completely eradicated in Europe

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Today TGE occurs in an enzootic form

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis of swine is a widespread disease, causing high losses in Europe

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

The Porcine respiratory coronavirus has been evolved from the Transmissible gastroenteritis virus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

The incubation time of TGE is usually 1-3 days

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis of pigs is more frequent in the tropical countries that the moderate climate

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Today TGE occurs in epizootic form

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis virus spreads rapidly in the herd

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

TGE infects only swine

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

TGE virus causes high morbidity

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis virus provides cross protection to hemagglutinating coronavirus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

There is no cross protection b/t transmissible gastroenteritis vines and the pulmonary coronavirus of pigs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

TGE causes 100% mortality in susceptible piglets under 1 week of age

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus induces cross-protection against PED

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Maternal immunity is essential against TGE infection of piglets

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus reduced the prevalence of porcine epidemic diarrhea

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

​Transmissible gastroenteritis is the more severe in piglets than in adult swine

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

PED is similar to TGE

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus causes acute pneumonia in susceptible piglets

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

TGEV is widespread and fully replaced porcine epidemic diarrhea (PED) virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis virus can cause clinical disease only in pigs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

TGE replaces the respiratory corona virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

The incubation time of TGE is usually 5-7 days

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

TGE virus infects the digestive and the respiratory system

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

The incubation period of TGE can be as short as 8 hours

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

The characteristic symptoms of TGE are vomiting and diarrhea

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

TGE is devastating at any age

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis is usually asymptomatic in adults

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

TGE causes 100% mortality in sows

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

The lesions of transmissible gastroenteritis of swine are in the gastric mucosa and in the small intestine

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

The mortality caused by transmissible gastroenteritis of swine is the highest among old sows

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

TGE mainly cause croupous pneumonia

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus infection usually provides cross-protection from Transmissible gastroenteritis virus infection

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

TGE virus infects the digestive and the respiratory systems

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus induces cross protection against TGE

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Swine pulmonary corona virus has a high mortality by pneumonia

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus induces cross-protection from transmissible gastroenteritis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Pulmonary coronavirus provides cross protection to the virus of transmissible gastroenteritis of swine

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

​Transmissible gastroenteritis virus can infect only swine

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Only pigs are susceptible to TGE infection

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhoea frequently occurs in Europe

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus can cause disease in humans

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

​Porcine epidemic diarrhea is present only in Africa and in the Middle East

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

The virus causing porcine epidemic diarrhea can replicate in the heart muscle of the foetus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea can replicate in the colon.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus causes more severe symptoms in adult than in young piglets

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea can be transmitted by infected dogs and cats

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea usually resembles TGE

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Porcine respiratory corona virus has reduced the prevalence of porcine epidemic diarrhoea

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Porcine respiratory coronavirus induces cross-protection against PED

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Hemagglutinating coronavirus is present worldwide

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

​Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus is typically vectored by mosquitoes

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Hemagglutinating coronavirus/Ontario Disease is sporadic in Hungary

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

​Porcine respiratory coronavirus is a modification of the Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

The occurrence of coronavirus encephalomyelitis of piglets is usually sporadic

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

The hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus multiply in hematopoietic stem cells of the bone marrow

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Hemagglutination encephalomyelitis virus infects young pigs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Hemagglutinating coronavirus can cause severe diarrhea in sows

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Hemagglutinating coronavirus can cause encephalomyelitis in suckling piglets

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Hemagglutinating coronavirus of pigs is frequently causing malabsorption in sows

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

​Canine coronavirus are only present in North America

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Pantropic canine coronavirus infections are endemic worldwide

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Canine coronavirus (CCoV-1) causes diarrhea in young susceptible dogs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Canine coronavirus is part of kennel cough

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

CCoV-IIa infections are endemic worldwide

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

In suckling dogs CCoV-II infection causes respiratory disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Canine coronaviruses frequently cause encephalitis and hepatitis in puppies

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Canine respiratory coronavirus infection results cross-protection against CCoV-1

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Canine alphacoronavirus type Il may cause hemorrhagic disease in 1-2-month-old pups

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Canine respiratory coronavirus infection results cross-protection against CCoV-114

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

​There are no protective vaccines available against Canine enteric coronavirus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Dog enteral coronavirus: some strains can cause hemorrhagic diseases in some visceral organs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Feline coronavirus has two serotypes, both having two pathotypes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

All species of Felidae are susceptible to feline coronaviruses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Feline infectious peritonitis viruses form a single serotype

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Feline corona virus does not have a long infection/carrier time

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

​Feline infectious peritonitis is an acute disease, it appears after a 2-3 days long incubation

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Feline enteric coronavirus (FECoV) can only infect Felidae

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Feline enteric coronaviruses may infect dogs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

​Feline enteric coronavirus infection of cats is very common

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

The Feline enteric coronavirus usually does not cause severe enteritis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Feline coronaviruses can cause mild watery diarrhoea

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Feline enteric coronavirus causes FIP in 5-10% of cases

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

​Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) develops only in adult cats (over 1 year of age)

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

FIP causes infection only in cats younger than 1 year of age

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

FIP mainly infects with feces

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Feline enteric coronavirus infection usually causes sudden death of queens

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Effusive FIP is the result of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

In the background of FIP can be immunopathological processes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

​ FECoV infection usually causes acute hemorrhagic enteritis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Feline enteric coronavirus usually causes severe, hemorrhagic enteritis in kittens

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Cell-mediated hypersensitivity plays a major role in the background of non-effusive feline infectious peritonitis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

​Decreased serum albumin/globulin ratio may indicate FIP

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

FIP forms because of immunotolerance

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Vaccine effectively protects from feline infectious peritonitis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Infectious bronchitis has a lot of serotypes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can result damaged or shell formation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus damages the ovaries only in hens

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Infectious bronchitis viruses have a wide range of serotypes including many variants

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus of chicken is a uniform virus without any types of variants

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

The clinical signs of Infectious bronchitis and Newcastle disease may be similar

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

​Infections bronchitis virus vaccines are used against turkey enteritis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

There is no germinative infection in the case of infectious bronchitis of chicken

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Infectious bronchitis viruses may have different organ tropism

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bronchitis of chicken

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can cause renal problems

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Attenuated vaccines can be used against infectious bronchitis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Germinative route is the most important in the transmission of infectious bronchitis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can damage the oviduct

A

True

290
Q

Infectious bronchitis can spread very slowly in the flock causing chronic disease

A

False

291
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can cause severe respiratory signs in young chicken

A

True

292
Q

Infectious bronchitis viruses form 2 distinct serotypes

A

False

293
Q

Inactivated vaccines can be used against infectious bronchitis

A

True

294
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus can cause inflammatory lesions in the oviduct of chicken

A

True

295
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus replicates in the epithelial cells of the trachea and bronchi

A

True

296
Q

Infectious bronchitis viruses belong into 3 distinct serotypes

A

False

297
Q

Turkey corona virus does not cause strong diarrhea and causes no necrosis

A

False

298
Q

Vaccination of turkey breeding flocks against Turkey enteritis virus is mandatory

A

False

299
Q

Turkey enteritis is characterized by age-dependent mortality rates

A

True

300
Q

Rhabdoviruses are enveloped viruses

A

True

301
Q

Rhabdoviruses are very resistant and they can survive in the environment for several weeks

A

False

302
Q

Rhabdoviruses can survive in the environment for several months

A

False

303
Q

​Ephemeral fever occurs only in America

A

False

304
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is endemic in America

A

True

305
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus is found all over the world

A

False

306
Q

​Vesicular stomatitis virus is transmitted only by arthropods

A

False

307
Q

Vesicular stomatitis, animals can recover

A

True

308
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus spreads with insects

A

True

309
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus can infect humans

A

True

310
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is a common disease all over the world

A

False

311
Q

Vesicular stomatitis occurs in America

A

True

312
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is a zoonosis

A

True

313
Q

Cattle are not susceptible to vesicular stomatitis virus

A

False

314
Q

Only ruminants have vesicular stomatitis

A

False

315
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus infects only swine

A

False

316
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause severe disease in humans

A

False

317
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus can spread by direct contact

A

True

318
Q

Sand flies and midges can transmit vesicular stomatitis virus

A

True

319
Q

Increased salivation is a clinical sign of vesicular stomatitis

A

True

320
Q

In the case of vesicular stomatitis vesicles are formed only at the place of entry of the virus

A

False

321
Q

Vesicular stomatitis can cause vesicles on the foot

A

True

322
Q

The mortality of vesicular stomatitis is very high

A

False

323
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus: horse is sensitive

A

True

324
Q

Vesicular stomatitis can occur in ruminants, pigs and horses

A

True

325
Q

Insects are involved in the transmission of vesicular stomatitis virus

A

True

326
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of vesicular stomatitis

A

False

327
Q

Lesions of vesicular stomatitis heal within a few weeks

A

True

328
Q

Vesicular stomatitis can be generalized

A

True

329
Q

Vesicular stomatitis cannot be prevented with vaccines

A

False

330
Q

After recovery of VSV there will be a permanent immunity

A

True

331
Q

Ephemeral fever occurs in the tropical countries

A

True

332
Q

Inhalation of the tracheal discharge is the main way of infection with ephemeral fever virus

A

False

333
Q

The morbidity is high, the mortality is low in the case of ephemeral fever

A

True

334
Q

Animals with ephemeral fever have fever for about 2-3 days

A

True

335
Q

The clinical signs of ephemeral fever are more severe in horses than cattle

A

False

336
Q

Drop of milk production is a common sign of ephemeral fever

A

True

337
Q

Warm blooded animals can be infected with rabies

A

True

338
Q

Rabies has been eradicated in Europe

A

False

339
Q

​Rabies virus is shed in the saliva only after the appearance of the clinical signs

A

False

340
Q

Immunofluorescence (IF) is reliable in the diagnosis of rabies

A

True

341
Q

Only carnivorous animals are susceptible to rabies virus

A

False

342
Q

Changed behavior is a clinical sign of rabies of wild living animals

A

True

343
Q

In cats furious form of rabies is typical

A

True

344
Q

​Only the classical rabies virus is present in Europe

A

False

345
Q

Since 2002 rabies is eradicated from Hungary

A

False

346
Q

Colic can be a sign of rabies in horses

A

True

347
Q

Humans can be infected by Rabies during organ transplants

A

True

348
Q

Rabies virus is replicating in the lymphoid cells and causes viraemia before the appearance of the clinical
signs

A

False

349
Q

Increased salivation is a clinical sign of rabies

A

True

350
Q

Paralysis is a typical sign of rabies

A

True

351
Q

Urban form of rabies is maintained by the fox in Europe

A

False

352
Q

There is no haematogenic spreading of the rabies virus

A

False

353
Q

When an animal which is infected with rabies virus attacks another dog it should be vaccinated immediately

A

False(?)

354
Q

Dogs have to be vaccinated for the prevention of rabies at the age of 3 months for the first time

A

True

355
Q

​The rabid bats fly during the day

A

True

356
Q

Virus isolation is the most widely used way of diagnosis of rabies

A

True

357
Q

Rabies virus is highly resistant

A

False

358
Q

Urban form of rabies is maintained by dogs and cats

A

True

359
Q

Humans can be infected by Rabies bite

A

True

360
Q

​Always the furious form of rabies can be seen in dogs

A

False

361
Q

The causative agent of rabies is a uniform virus without different types or groups

A

False

362
Q

Immunofluorescence test can be used to the detection of rabies virus in the brain

A

True

363
Q

Fox rabies can use live vaccines

A

True

364
Q

We can diagnose rabies by antibody detection test

A

False

365
Q

Focal necrosis in the liver is a typical lesion of rabies

A

False

366
Q

Rabid animals have to be vaccinated immediately

A

False

367
Q

Aggressiveness is a frequent sign of rabies

A

True

368
Q

Rabies: one of the important symptoms is the change of behaviour

A

True

369
Q

High amount of rabies virus is shed in the saliva

A

True

370
Q

​​The resistance of the rabies virus is good, it retains infectivity for several months in the environment

A

False

371
Q

Humans are not susceptible to European bat lyssaviruses

A

False

372
Q

Rabies can be transmitted only by saliva

A

False

373
Q

​Rabies virus can only be found in the nervous system

A

True

374
Q

Changed behavior is a typical sign of rabies

A

True

375
Q

In calm rabies the dogs cannot bark

A

True

376
Q

Immunofluorescence test is the most frequently used way of detection of rabies virus

A

True

377
Q

Rabies virus is spreading in the infected animals peri-neural

A

False

378
Q

Rabies spread through venereal

A

False

379
Q

​The incubation of rabies is generally less than one week

A

False

380
Q

Rabies virus is shed in high titre in the saliva

A

True

381
Q

All warm-blooded animals are susceptible to rabies virus

A

True

382
Q

Dogs maintain urban rabies

A

True

383
Q

Rabies virus cannot be cultured

A

False

384
Q

Rabies symptoms appear only after CNS signs

A

False

385
Q

Presence of antibodies to rabies virus confirms the diagnosis of rabies

A

False

386
Q

The sylvatic form of rabies is maintained by foxes in Europe

A

True

387
Q

The incubation time of rabies is variable, generally between 2 and 8 weeks

A

True

388
Q

The rabies virus is a uniform virus without serotypes, genotypes, subtypes etc

A

False

389
Q

Virus neutralization test is used to the laboratory diagnosis of rabies cases

A

False

390
Q

Immunofluorescence test is widely used diagnostic method in the case of rabies

A

True

391
Q

Rabies virus is spreading along the nerves to the central nervous system

A

True

392
Q

Foxes are vaccinated with attenuated bait vaccine

A

True

393
Q

Humans can be infected with rabies, only by being bitten by rabid animals

A

False

394
Q

The rabies virus is very resistant, it retains its infectivity for a few weeks in the environment

A

False

395
Q

Rabies is a uniform virus

A

False

396
Q

Rabies: one important symptom is paralysis

A

True

397
Q

In dogs both furious and silent form of rabies can occur

A

True

398
Q

Dogs have to be vaccinated against rabies in the first week of life

A

False

399
Q

Saliva can contain rabies virus before the appearance of clinical signs

A

True

400
Q

Rabies is a resistant virus

A

False

401
Q

Increased sexual activity is seen in rabid cattle

A

True

402
Q

Detection of Negri bodies is more sensitive than immunofluorescence test in the case of rabies

A

False

403
Q

Live vaccines are used to the vaccination of foxes against rabies

A

True

404
Q

In rabies we find purulent encephalitis in negri-bodies

A

True

405
Q

Inhalation of the virus is the main way of infection with rabies virus

A

False

406
Q

The high-titer of virus neutralizing antibodies confirms the diagnosis of rabies

A

False

407
Q

Rabies virus is shed in the saliva before appearance of the clinical signs

A

True

408
Q

Retroviruses are widely distributed in Hungary

A

True

409
Q

Retroviruses are generally resistant, they can survive in the environment for several weeks

A

False

410
Q

Retroviruses are generally species specific

A

True

411
Q

Retroviruses are enveloped viruses

A

True

412
Q

Frequent genetic changes of retroviruses are common

A

True

413
Q

Retroviruses replicate mainly in endothelia cells

A

False

414
Q

Retroviruses have a tegument or rind

A

False

415
Q

Retroviruses carry reverse transcriptase enzyme

A

True

416
Q

Retroviruses can integrate the cellular genome

A

True

417
Q

The resistance of retroviruses is low, they cannot survive in the environment for a long time

A

True

418
Q

Retrovirus has a good immunogenicity

A

True

419
Q

Retrovirus has a wide host spectrum

A

False

420
Q

Retrovirus infection is long-lasting

A

True

421
Q

You cannot multiply retrovirus artificially

A

False

422
Q

Certain retroviruses can cause malignant transformation

A

True

423
Q

Several retroviruses can cause malignant transformation in the hosts

A

True

424
Q

Retrovirus can replicate without helper retroviruses

A

True

425
Q

Retroviruses can incorporate into the genome

A

True

426
Q

Retroviruses are generally stable viruses, mutations are very rare

A

False

427
Q

Retroviruses show high host specificity

A

True

428
Q

Retroviruses generally cannot survive in the environment for a long time

A

True

429
Q

Retroviruses cannot spread from animal to animal

A

False

430
Q

Retroviruses transcribe their nucleic acid to DNA

A

True

431
Q

Reverse transcriptase is an important enzyme of retroviruses

A

True

432
Q

​Retroviruses are generally not carried for more than a month

A

False

433
Q

Retroviruses generally have a large host range

A

False

434
Q

Retroviruses are generally shed in infected lymphoid cells

A

True

435
Q

Retrovirus has weak resistance

A

True

436
Q

Retroviruses results in life-long infection

A

True

437
Q

Retroviruses are generally genetically very stable

A

False

438
Q

Malignant transformation can be caused by retroviruses

A

True

439
Q

Certain retroviruses can cause proliferation of the lymphoid cells

A

True

440
Q

The host range of retroviruses is generally wide

A

False

441
Q

Retroviruses are generally good antigens

A

True

442
Q

The animals will be infected with retroviruses until the end of their life

A

True

443
Q

Retroviruses replicate mainly in endothelium cell

A

False

444
Q

​Retroviruses generally have a wide host range

A

False

445
Q

Retroviruses spread with infected lymphocytes

A

True

446
Q

Retroviruses generally cause long, frequently life-long infection

A

True

447
Q

Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus is shed in the milk

A

True

448
Q

Kids can be infected with caprine arthritis encephalitis virus through the milk

A

True

449
Q

Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus replicates in the intestinal tract

A

False

450
Q

In the case of caprine arthritis encephalitis the signs of encephalitis can be seen in 2-4 months old kids

A

True

451
Q

​Sheep cannot be infected with the caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus

A

False

452
Q

​Arthritis caused by caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus is typically seen in kids below half a year of age

A

False

453
Q

Kids are recommended to be isolated in a herd where caprine arthritis encephalitis is present

A

True

454
Q

Caprine arthritis encephalitis is characterized by CNS signs in young goats

A

True

455
Q

Caprine arthritis-encephalitis: By the end of the incubation phase the animals become seropositive leukosis virus.

A

True

456
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis spreads slow in the herd

A

True

457
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is spreading horizontally in a cattle herd

A

True

458
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be transmitted with organic infection

A

True

459
Q

​The typical signs of bovine enzootic leukosis can be seen in cattle under 1 year of age

A

False

460
Q

Bovine enzootic leucosis virus has several serotypes

A

False

461
Q

PCR is used for the detection of bovine enzootic leucosis in immunotolerant calves

A

True

462
Q

There is genetic predisposition in the case of bovine enzootic leucosis

A

True

463
Q

Enzootic bovine leucosis only infects cattle

A

False

464
Q

​The target cells of the bovine enzootic leukosis virus are the T-lymphocytes

A

False

465
Q

Bovine enzootic leucosis can be eradicated with selection

A

True

466
Q

Antibodies against enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be detected in the ELISA test

A

True

467
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can infect cattle, pigs and horses

A

False

468
Q

The target cell of bovine enzootic leucosis are the B-lymphocytes

A

True

469
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis can spread by air within the herd

A

True

470
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be transmitted with per os infection

A

True

471
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis does not spread with excretion

A

False

472
Q

Clinical signs of enzootic bovine leukosis are seen mainly in 6-8-month-old calves

A

False

473
Q

Tumors can be seen in about 90% of the animals infected with enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

False

474
Q

Bovine leukosis virus causes seropositivity in latency period

A

True

475
Q

Antibodies against enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be detected in the milk

A

True

476
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is carried lifelong by the infected animal

A

True

477
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis during pre-tumor phase causes lymphocytosis

A

True

478
Q

Enzootic bovine leucosis virus can infect the fetus

A

True

479
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis infect only bovine

A

False

480
Q

Immune tolerance can happen in the case of enzootic bovine leucosis

A

True

481
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus has several serotypes and subtypes

A

False

482
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is not shed by the infected animals

A

False

483
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis can spread by veterinarian

A

True

484
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be transmitted in blood

A

True

485
Q

Aerogenic infection occurs in the case of enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

True

486
Q

Bovine leukosis virus can give lifelong carriers

A

True

487
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can not result in tumor formation

A

False

488
Q

Serological examination cannot be used to diagnosis of enzootic bovine leukosis

A

False

489
Q

Selection cannot be used for eradication of enzootic bovine leucosis

A

False

490
Q

​Enzootic bovine leukosis virus cannot infect fetuses

A

False

491
Q

Iatrogenic infection is frequent in the epidemiology of bovine enzootic leukosis

A

True

492
Q

Bovine enzootic leukosis virus can be transmitted with lymphoid cells

A

True

493
Q

During incubation phase of bovine enzootic leucosis the animal become seropositive

A

True

494
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is spreading very fast within the herd

A

False

495
Q

Clinical signs of enzootic bovine leukosis can be seen in 6-8 months old calves

A

False

496
Q

​Selection (test and slaughter) method cannot be used to eradicate enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

False

497
Q

Genetic predisposition is present in the case of enzootic bovine leukosis

A

True

498
Q

Antibodies in the milk against enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be detected with ELISA

A

True

499
Q

There is no horizontal spread in the case of bovine enzootic leucosis

A

False

500
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis the pre-tumor phase usually in 6-10 months old animals

A

False

501
Q

​Generation shift method cannot be used to eradicate enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

False

502
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis occurs only in Holstein-Frisian cattle, other cattle races are resistant

A

False

503
Q

Enzootic bovine leucosis virus causes disease in suckling calves

A

False

504
Q

There is genetic predisposition in the case of bovine enzootic leukosis

A

True

505
Q

Iatrogenic infection can be important in the transmission of enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

True

506
Q

The tumors in the case of bovine enzootic leucosis can be seen from the age of 6 months

A

False

507
Q

Europe is free from ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

False

508
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus spreads with nasal discharge

A

True

509
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis has no antibody production

A

True

510
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus is found in 2-4 months old lambs

A

False

511
Q

Jaagsiekte is only present in Africa

A

False

512
Q

Jaagsiekte affects lambs of 3-6 months

A

False

513
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus is replicating in the epithelium of the airways

A

True

514
Q

Metastasis are rare in the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

True

515
Q

Lung adenomatosis causes usually dry cough

A

False

516
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus causes interstitial pneumonia

A

False

517
Q

Tumors can frequently be seen in the liver and the spleen in the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

False

518
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis is prevented with inactivated vaccines

A

False

519
Q

Jaagsiekte virus can transform human cells.

A

False

520
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis can be complicated by Pasteurella and Mannheimia strains

A

True

521
Q

The primary replication site of OPA is in the mucosal cells of the intestines

A

False

522
Q

Feces of infected animals contain large amount of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus

A

False

523
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis occurs only in South-Africa

A

False

524
Q

No antibodies to ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus can be detected in infected animals

A

True

525
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus results malignant transformation of macrophages

A

False

526
Q

Metastases are frequently seen in parenchymal organs in the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

False

527
Q

​ Jaagsiekte causes metastatic abscess formation all over the body

A

False

528
Q

Ovine pulmonary andenomatosis can be diagnosed by detecting antibodies with ELISA

A

False

529
Q

Tumor transformation of the epithelial cells happens in the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

True

530
Q

In the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis lesions are common in the liver

A

False

531
Q

Metastasis are frequently seen in parenchymal in the case of OPA

A

False

532
Q

FeLV spreads horizontally and vertically

A

True

533
Q

Feline leucosis spreads by direct contact

A

True

534
Q

Feline leukosis virus is frequently spread with saliva

A

True

535
Q

Feline leukosis is a very rare disease

A

False

536
Q

Feline leukosis can infect cats and dogs

A

False

537
Q

In Feline leukosis, anemia is an important sign

A

True

538
Q

Feline leukosis virus is immunosuppressive

A

True

539
Q

Persistently infected cats can shed the feline leukosis virus in high titers

A

True

540
Q

Feline leukosis virus can cause protective immunity

A

True

541
Q

There is no vaccine against Feline leukosis virus

A

False

542
Q

Infection with feline leukosis virus always appears in clinical signs

A

False

543
Q

Feline sarcomatosis is a defect virus

A

True

544
Q

Feline leukosis virus is spreading by discharge of the infected animal

A

True

545
Q

Feline leukosis can cross the placenta

A

True

546
Q

In the saliva of cats is a high-titer of FeLV

A

True

547
Q

Asymptomatic infection cannot happen in the case of Feline leukosis

A

False

548
Q

Persistent infected cats maintain the infection

A

True

549
Q

Feline leukosis virus can infect dogs, cats and wild living carnivorous animals

A

False

550
Q

Cat leukosis virus can be diagnosed with PCR

A

True

551
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus is widespread

A

True

552
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus in cat could be asymptomatic

A

True

553
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus is spread by excretes

A

True

554
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus is a persistent infection

A

True

555
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus develops in 3 phases

A

False

556
Q

Infection of poultry herds with avian leukosis virus is widespread

A

True

557
Q

Avian leucosis can be caused by different retroviruses

A

True

558
Q

Avian Leukosis virus is uniform

A

False

559
Q

Avian leukosis virus cannot infect by germinative way

A

False

560
Q

Avian leucosis and sarcoma infections are very common

A

True

561
Q

Every avian leukosis viruses is oncogenic

A

True

562
Q

There are several subgroups of avian leucosis virus

A

True

563
Q

Avian leukosis viruses cannot cause germinative infection

A

False

564
Q

Avian leukosis virus infects B lymphocytes

A

True

565
Q

Avian leukosis viruses are shed in the faces

A

True

566
Q

Clinical signs of avian leukosis generally appear in day old chicken

A

False

567
Q

Avian leukosis is seen during the first week of life in chicken

A

False

568
Q

There are resistant lines to avian leukosis

A

True

569
Q

Osteopetrosis can be a clinical form of avian leukosis

A

True

570
Q

T-lymphocytes are the target cell of the avian leukosis virus

A

False

571
Q

Congenital transmission of avian leucosis results in immune tolerance

A

True

572
Q

All avian leukosis viruses cause malignant transformation of the host cells

A

True

573
Q

​There is no germinative infection in the case of avian leukosis viruses

A

False

574
Q

Lymphoid leukosis is the most frequent form of avian leukosis

A

True

575
Q

Inactivated vaccines are widely used in order to prevent avian leukosis

A

False

576
Q

Tumors can be seen in different parenchymal organs in the case of avian leukosis

A

True

577
Q

Proportion of the animals with tumors is low, 1-4% in the case of avian leukosis

A

True

578
Q

Germinative infection is an important way of transmission of avian leukosis

A

True

579
Q

The main way of prevention of avian leukosis is vaccination using attenuated strains

A

False

580
Q

Avian leukosis viruses can cause malignant transformation in different tissues

A

True

581
Q

​The target cells of the avian leukosis viruses are the B lymphocytes

A

True

582
Q

Germinative infection can happen in the case of Reticuloendotheliosis

A

True

583
Q

Pneumonia is a typical lesion of reticuloendotheliosis

A

False

584
Q

Retardation is a clinical sign of Reticuloendotheliosis

A

True

585
Q

Immunosuppression is common in the case of Reticuloendotheliosis

A

True

586
Q

In the case of reticuloendotheliosis tumors can be found in the parenchymal organs

A

True

587
Q

In the case of reticuloendotheliosis immunotolerant chicken can be hatched

A

True

588
Q

Avian reticuloendotheliosis may be similar in appearance to Marek ́s disease

A

True

589
Q

Wide vaccination is used to prevent Reticuloendotheliosis

A

False

590
Q

Maedi appears in Hungary

A

True

591
Q

Maedi and visna diseases are caused by the same virus

A

True

592
Q

Maedi/visna spreads slowly in the flock

A

True

593
Q

Maedi/visna virus is shed only in the tracheal discharge

A

False

594
Q

Clinical sign of maedi/visna appear from the age of 6-8 months

A

False

595
Q

Maedi/visna virus is shed in the milk

A

True

596
Q

Maedi is seen in 3-4 years old sheep

A

True

597
Q

Meadi/visna most important clinical sign is profuse diarrhea

A

False

598
Q

Interstitial pneumonia is a typical lesion of maedi

A

True

599
Q

Maedi/visna virus is shed in nasal discharge, respiratory secretions and milk

A

True

600
Q

Maedi spreads fast

A

False

601
Q

Maedi/visna spreads from sheep to other animals

A

False

602
Q

Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of visna

A

True

603
Q

In order to eradicate maedi/visna infected ewes have to be culled with their lambs

A

True

604
Q

Wet cough and intensive nasal discharge are typical signs of maedi

A

False

605
Q

Maedi/visna virus causes viraemia

A

True

606
Q

Maedi/visna virus causes interstitial pneumonia in sheep

A

True

607
Q

Clinical signs of maedi are generally seen above 3-4 years of age

A

True

608
Q

Maedi/visna is spreading fast in the flock

A

False

609
Q

Large amount of mucoid nasal discharge is typical in the case of maedi

A

False

610
Q

Clinical sign of maedi/visna appear from the age of 6 months

A

False

611
Q

In the case of maedi/visna interstitial pneumonia can be seen

A

True

612
Q

De-myelinization is the reason for the clinical signs of visna

A

True

613
Q

Attenuated vaccines are widely used to prevent maedi/visna

A

False

614
Q

​Clinical signs of maedi are mainly seen in lambs below half a year of age

A

False

615
Q

In the case of maedi/visna interstitial pneumonia can be seen

A

True

616
Q

Equine anemia is a notifiable disease

A

True

617
Q

Equine anemia is a zoonotic disease

A

False

618
Q

Equine infectious anemia is caused by a lentivirus

A

True

619
Q

Equine infectious anemia is a vector borne disease

A

True

620
Q

Febrile waves can be seen in equine infectious anemia

A

True

621
Q

Tick are vectors of equine infectious anemia virus

A

False

622
Q

Horseflies are mechanical vectors equine anemia virus

A

True

623
Q

Equine infectious anemia virus is mainly transmitted with tracheal discharge

A

False

624
Q

Blood sucking arthropods are mechanical vectors of equine infectious anaemia virus

A

True

625
Q

Horses and cattle are susceptible to equine infectious anemia virus

A

False

626
Q

Only Equidae are susceptible to equine infectious anemia virus

A

True

627
Q

Equine infectious anemia has a weak resistance

A

False

628
Q

In the case of equine infectious anemia, hemorrhages cannot be seen

A

True

629
Q

​There is no immune reaction in the case of equine infectious anemia

A

False

630
Q

Equine infectious anemia can damage the medulla of the bone

A

True

631
Q

Equine infectious anemia can be asymptomatic

A

True

632
Q

You cannot diagnose Equine infectious anemia with serology

A

False

633
Q

Attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of equine infectious anemia

A

False

634
Q

Equine infectious anemia may cause recurrent fever in horses

A

True

635
Q

Animals infected with equine infectious anemia virus are lifelong carriers

A

True

636
Q

Equine infectious anemia virus is resistant, it can survive several months in the environment

A

True

637
Q

Equine infectious anemia virus causes persistent infection

A

True

638
Q

Agar gel precipitation test can be used to the detection of antibodies against equine infectious anemia
virus

A

True

639
Q

In the case of equine infectious anemia hemorrhages cannot be seen

A

False

640
Q

Equine infectious anemia virus damages the bone marrow

A

True

641
Q

The resistance of equine infectious anemia is very low

A

False

642
Q

Transmissible encephalopathies are caused by prions

A

True

643
Q

Prions contain protein and DNA

A

False

644
Q

Chronic prion has no nucleic acid inside

A

True

645
Q

Protease breaks down prions

A

False

646
Q

Infective prions are taken per os

A

True

647
Q

Transmissible encephalopathies are acute or per-acute diseases

A

False

648
Q

Prions always cause viraemia in the infected hosts

A

False

649
Q

Transmissible encephalopathies are slow diseases

A

True

650
Q

Prions are spreading in the host along the nerves

A

True

651
Q

PCR is used to the detection of prions

A

False

652
Q

Antibodies to prions cannot be detected in the case of transmissible encephalopathies

A

True

653
Q

In the case of transmissible encephalopathies encephalitis can be seen in the gray material of the brain

A

False

654
Q

Chronic prion is inactivated by boiling

A

False

655
Q

Mutations can result infective prions

A

False

656
Q

Infective prions are resistant to proteases

A

True

657
Q

Chronic prion form has other form than normal prions

A

True

658
Q

Allergy tests are widely used to diagnose transmissible encephalopathies

A

False

659
Q

Infection with infective prions generally happens per os

A

True

660
Q

Changed behavior is a typical sign of transmissible mink encephalopathy

A

True

661
Q

Transmissible Mink encephalopathy can be transmitted by eating infected meat

A

True

662
Q

Transmissible Mink encephalopathy symptoms: being anxious

A

True

663
Q

Minks shed the transmissible mink encephalopathy prion in the feces

A

False

664
Q

Movement disorders are typical signs of transmissible mink encephalopathy

A

True

665
Q

Minks are infected with transmissible mink encephalopathy prion per os

A

True

666
Q

Scrapie is seen in sheep and goats

A

True

667
Q

Scrapie occurs only in Britain and Ireland

A

False

668
Q

Scrapie spreads via per os infection

A

True

669
Q

Itching is a clinical sign of scrapie

A

True

670
Q

Scrapie sensitivity depends on genotype of sheep

A

True

671
Q

Scrapie can be transmitted between sheep in a flock

A

True

672
Q

Atypical scrapie strains can cause the same clinical signs as typical scrapie

A

False

673
Q

Itching is always a clinical sign of scrapie

A

False

674
Q

Scrapie prion is shed by the infected animals in different discharges

A

True

675
Q

Scrapie can be prevented with inactivated vaccine

A

False

676
Q

Scrapie can be prevented with live vaccines

A

False

677
Q

Scrapie in goat, sheep and cattle could be infected

A

False

678
Q

Scrapie can be prevented by using attenuated vaccines

A

False

679
Q

Goat are resistant to scrapie

A

False

680
Q

Itching can be seen in the case of typical scrapie

A

True

681
Q

Genetic predisposition is needed for scrapie to develop

A

True

682
Q

Scrapie prion can infect susceptible animals per os

A

True

683
Q

Scrapie prion is shed by the infected animals

A

True

684
Q

Itching is a frequent clinical sign of scrapie

A

True

685
Q

Spongiform encephalopathies are caused by prions

A

True

686
Q

The incubation time of BSE is 3-5 years

A

True

687
Q

​Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is widespread in Europe; it is common in most European countries

A

False

688
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy cannot infect humans

A

False

689
Q

Cattle with bovine spongiform encephalopathy become aggressive

A

True

690
Q

You can diagnose bovine spongiform encephalopathy with ELISA

A

True

691
Q

BSE can be seen in calves from the age of 6 months

A

False

692
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy is not shed by the infected animals

A

True

693
Q

In case of spongiform encephalopathies micro abscesses are in the brain stem

A

False

694
Q

In the case of spongiform encephalopathies there is encephalitis

A

False

695
Q

Antibodies to BSE can be detected with ELISA in infected animals

A

False

696
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy is shed in large number in the milk

A

False

697
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy is spreading along the nerves in the infected animals

A

True

698
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy symptoms are in 1-1.5 years old cows

A

False

699
Q

Spongiform encephalopathies are mainly acute diseases

A

False

700
Q

2-6 months old calves having BSE are frequently aggressive

A

False

701
Q

In the case of spongiform encephalopathies the behavior of the animal is generally changed

A

True

702
Q

The agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy infects animals per os

A

True

703
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is seen only in beef cows

A

False

704
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is a contact infection

A

False

705
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy spread fast in the herd

A

False

706
Q

Hypersensitivity is a clinical sign of BSE

A

True

707
Q

Cattle with bovine spongiform encephalopathy have movement difficulties

A

True

708
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy causes an immune response

A

False

709
Q

BSE prions are shed in the feces and it is transmitted to other cattle in the herd

A

False

710
Q

In the case of spongiform encephalopathies encephalitis is the main post mortem lesion

A

False

711
Q

Focal necrosis in the liver is a typical post mortem lesion of BSE

A

False

712
Q

In the case of spongiform encephalopathies high levels of antibodies is produced

A

False

713
Q

Only a few animals show clinical signs of BSE in an infected herd

A

True

714
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy symptoms: e.g. ataxia

A

True

715
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy causes aggression

A

True

716
Q

Clinical signs of BSE can be seen mainly in 1-1.5 years old cattle

A

False

717
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is spreading fast in the infected herd

A

False

718
Q

Antibodies against bovine spongiform encephalopathy are detected with ELISA

A

False

719
Q

Changed behavior is a typical sign of bovine spongiform encephalopathy

A

True

720
Q

Spongiform encephalopathies can be diagnosed by detecting circulating antibodies

A

False